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2023 General pool
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On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?
  • 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters (0% chose this)
  • 160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters (0% chose this)
  • 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters (0% chose this)
  • 80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters (0% chose this)
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On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?
  • 160 meters (0% chose this)
  • 30 meters (0% chose this)
  • 17 meters (0% chose this)
  • 12 meters (0% chose this)
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On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?
  • 160 meters (0% chose this)
  • 30 meters (0% chose this)
  • 20 meters (0% chose this)
  • 12 meters (0% chose this)
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Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?
  • 11 meters (0% chose this)
  • 12 meters (0% chose this)
  • 30 meters (0% chose this)
  • 60 meters (0% chose this)
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On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?
  • 7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz (0% chose this)
  • All of the above (0% chose this)
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Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?
  • Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station (0% chose this)
  • Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies (0% chose this)
  • Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users (0% chose this)
  • Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band (0% chose this)
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On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?
  • 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only (0% chose this)
  • 28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only (0% chose this)
  • 28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only (0% chose this)
  • The entire band (0% chose this)
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Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?
  • All HF bands (0% chose this)
  • 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters (0% chose this)
  • All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters (0% chose this)
  • 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters (0% chose this)
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Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?
  • 14250 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 18155 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 21300 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 24900 kHz (0% chose this)
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What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?
  • The entire band (0% chose this)
  • The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz (0% chose this)
  • The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz (0% chose this)
  • The portion above 29.5 MHz (0% chose this)
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When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?
  • The lower frequency portion (0% chose this)
  • The upper frequency portion (0% chose this)
  • The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz (0% chose this)
  • The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz (0% chose this)
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What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?
  • 50 feet (0% chose this)
  • 100 feet (0% chose this)
  • 200 feet (0% chose this)
  • 250 feet (0% chose this)
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With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?
  • No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location (0% chose this)
  • The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization (0% chose this)
  • The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?
  • Observation of propagation and reception (0% chose this)
  • Automatic identification of repeaters (0% chose this)
  • Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?
  • Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only (0% chose this)
  • Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station (0% chose this)
  • Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations (0% chose this)
  • Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act (0% chose this)
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Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?
  • Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration (0% chose this)
  • Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code (0% chose this)
  • Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?
  • Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority (0% chose this)
  • At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC (0% chose this)
  • Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure (0% chose this)
  • Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity (0% chose this)
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What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?
  • Only “Q” signals are permitted (0% chose this)
  • They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message (0% chose this)
  • They are not permitted (0% chose this)
  • They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules (0% chose this)
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When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?
  • Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC (0% chose this)
  • When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications (0% chose this)
  • Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country (0% chose this)
  • Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country (0% chose this)
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On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?
  • On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt (0% chose this)
  • On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code (0% chose this)
  • 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz (0% chose this)
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What is the power limit for beacon stations?
  • 10 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
  • 20 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
  • 100 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
  • 200 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
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Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?
  • The FCC (0% chose this)
  • The control operator (0% chose this)
  • The IEEE (0% chose this)
  • The ITU (0% chose this)
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What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?
  • 200 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
  • 1000 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
  • 1500 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
  • 2000 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
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What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?
  • 50 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
  • 200 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
  • 1500 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
  • An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole (0% chose this)
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What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?
  • 2.8 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 5.6 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 1.8 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 3 kHz (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?
  • If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna (0% chose this)
  • You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked (0% chose this)
  • You must keep a record of all third-party traffic (0% chose this)
  • You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used (0% chose this)
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What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?
  • 100 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
  • 1000 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
  • 1500 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
  • 2000 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
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What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?
  • 200 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
  • 1000 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
  • 1200 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
  • 1500 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
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What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?
  • Type-certify equipment to FCC standards (0% chose this)
  • Obtain an experimental license from the FCC (0% chose this)
  • Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol (0% chose this)
  • Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique (0% chose this)
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What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?
  • 56 kilobaud (0% chose this)
  • 19.6 kilobaud (0% chose this)
  • 1200 baud (0% chose this)
  • 300 baud (0% chose this)
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What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?
  • 1500 watts PEP (0% chose this)
  • 10 watts RMS (0% chose this)
  • ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole (0% chose this)
  • ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna (0% chose this)
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What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?
  • 56 kilobaud (0% chose this)
  • 19.6 kilobaud (0% chose this)
  • 1200 baud (0% chose this)
  • 300 baud (0% chose this)
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What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?
  • RMS output from the transmitter (0% chose this)
  • RMS input to the antenna (0% chose this)
  • PEP input to the antenna (0% chose this)
  • PEP output from the transmitter (0% chose this)
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Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?
  • Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC (0% chose this)
  • Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago (0% chose this)
  • Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC (0% chose this)
  • Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license (0% chose this)
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What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?
  • General and Technician (0% chose this)
  • None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited (0% chose this)
  • Technician only (0% chose this)
  • Amateur Extra, General, and Technician (0% chose this)
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On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?
  • Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database (0% chose this)
  • Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment (0% chose this)
  • On any General or Technician class band segment (0% chose this)
  • On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters (0% chose this)
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Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?
  • At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher (0% chose this)
  • At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher (0% chose this)
  • At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher (0% chose this)
  • At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class (0% chose this)
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When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?
  • A US operator/primary station license (0% chose this)
  • Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC (0% chose this)
  • Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US (0% chose this)
  • A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC (0% chose this)
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Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?
  • Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges (0% chose this)
  • Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency (0% chose this)
  • Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges (0% chose this)
  • A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC (0% chose this)
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Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?
  • The Federal Communications Commission (0% chose this)
  • The Universal Licensing System (0% chose this)
  • A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator (0% chose this)
  • The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau (0% chose this)
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Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
  • The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years (0% chose this)
  • The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above (0% chose this)
  • The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2 (0% chose this)
  • None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner (0% chose this)
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How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?
  • 30 days (0% chose this)
  • 180 days (0% chose this)
  • 365 days (0% chose this)
  • For as long as your current license is valid (0% chose this)
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What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
  • 16 years (0% chose this)
  • 18 years (0% chose this)
  • 21 years (0% chose this)
  • There is no age limit (0% chose this)
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What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?
  • They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license (0% chose this)
  • There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license (0% chose this)
  • Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated (0% chose this)
  • The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam (0% chose this)
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When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?
  • Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC (0% chose this)
  • Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations (0% chose this)
  • Only those of the remote station’s country (0% chose this)
  • Only those of the FCC (0% chose this)
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Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?
  • The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated (0% chose this)
  • The third party is not a US citizen (0% chose this)
  • The third party is speaking in a language other than English (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?
  • Under no circumstances (0% chose this)
  • Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission (0% chose this)
  • Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency (0% chose this)
  • Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license (0% chose this)
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What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?
  • The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control (0% chose this)
  • The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station (0% chose this)
  • No third-party traffic may be transmitted (0% chose this)
  • The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license (0% chose this)
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Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?
  • When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station (0% chose this)
  • When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary (0% chose this)
  • When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?
  • They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief (0% chose this)
  • They must be for other licensed amateurs (0% chose this)
  • They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief (0% chose this)
  • The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log (0% chose this)
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The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?
  • Region 4 (0% chose this)
  • Region 3 (0% chose this)
  • Region 2 (0% chose this)
  • Region 1 (0% chose this)
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In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?
  • Anywhere in the band (0% chose this)
  • Channels 1 through 4 (0% chose this)
  • Channels 42 through 45 (0% chose this)
  • No part (0% chose this)
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What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?
  • 100 milliwatts (0% chose this)
  • 10 watts (0% chose this)
  • 100 watts (0% chose this)
  • 1500 watts (0% chose this)
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Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?
  • Under no circumstances (0% chose this)
  • When messages are encrypted (0% chose this)
  • When messages are not encrypted (0% chose this)
  • When under automatic control (0% chose this)
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Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24. 930 and 28.200 MHz?
  • A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies (0% chose this)
  • A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies (0% chose this)
  • These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations (0% chose this)
  • These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC (0% chose this)
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On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?
  • On any band segment where digital operation is permitted (0% chose this)
  • Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands (0% chose this)
  • Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands (0% chose this)
  • Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands (0% chose this)
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When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?
  • Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules (0% chose this)
  • Under no circumstances except for emergencies (0% chose this)
  • Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs (0% chose this)
  • Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC (0% chose this)
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Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?
  • Upper sideband (0% chose this)
  • Lower sideband (0% chose this)
  • Suppressed sideband (0% chose this)
  • Double sideband (0% chose this)
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Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?
  • Upper sideband (0% chose this)
  • Lower sideband (0% chose this)
  • Suppressed sideband (0% chose this)
  • Double sideband (0% chose this)
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Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?
  • Upper sideband (0% chose this)
  • Lower sideband (0% chose this)
  • Suppressed sideband (0% chose this)
  • Double sideband (0% chose this)
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Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?
  • Upper sideband (0% chose this)
  • Lower sideband (0% chose this)
  • Suppressed sideband (0% chose this)
  • Double sideband (0% chose this)
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Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?
  • Frequency modulation (0% chose this)
  • Double sideband (0% chose this)
  • Single sideband (0% chose this)
  • Single phase modulation (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?
  • Very high-fidelity voice modulation (0% chose this)
  • Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes (0% chose this)
  • Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise (0% chose this)
  • Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency (0% chose this)
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Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?
  • Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed (0% chose this)
  • Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed (0% chose this)
  • SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands (0% chose this)
  • SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands (0% chose this)
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What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?
  • Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign (0% chose this)
  • Say your call sign once (0% chose this)
  • Say “Breaker Breaker” (0% chose this)
  • Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station (0% chose this)
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Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?
  • Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies (0% chose this)
  • Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands (0% chose this)
  • Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector (0% chose this)
  • It is commonly accepted amateur practice (0% chose this)
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Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?
  • The received signal is more natural sounding (0% chose this)
  • It allows “hands free” operation (0% chose this)
  • It occupies less bandwidth (0% chose this)
  • It provides more power output (0% chose this)
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Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?
  • Any caller is welcome to respond (0% chose this)
  • Only stations in Germany (0% chose this)
  • Any stations outside the lower 48 states (0% chose this)
  • Only contest stations (0% chose this)
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What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?
  • RF clipping level (0% chose this)
  • Transmit audio or microphone gain (0% chose this)
  • Antenna inductance or capacitance (0% chose this)
  • Attenuator level (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?
  • Nets have priority (0% chose this)
  • QSOs in progress have priority (0% chose this)
  • Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency (0% chose this)
  • Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies (0% chose this)
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What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?
  • Inform your local emergency coordinator (0% chose this)
  • Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed (0% chose this)
  • Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress (0% chose this)
  • Immediately cease all transmissions (0% chose this)
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What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?
  • Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority (0% chose this)
  • Decrease power and continue to transmit (0% chose this)
  • Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner (0% chose this)
  • Switch to the opposite sideband (0% chose this)
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When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?
  • 5 Hz to 50 Hz (0% chose this)
  • 150 Hz to 500 Hz (0% chose this)
  • 1 kHz to 3 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 3 kHz to 6 kHz (0% chose this)
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When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?
  • 5 Hz to 50 Hz (0% chose this)
  • 150 Hz to 500 Hz (0% chose this)
  • 2 kHz to 3 kHz (0% chose this)
  • Approximately 6 kHz (0% chose this)
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How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?
  • Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign (0% chose this)
  • Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ (0% chose this)
  • Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response (0% chose this)
  • Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response (0% chose this)
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Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?
  • Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear (0% chose this)
  • Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times (0% chose this)
  • Follow the voluntary band plan (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?
  • Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states (0% chose this)
  • Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states (0% chose this)
  • Only digital contacts (0% chose this)
  • Only SSTV contacts (0% chose this)
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Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?
  • Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license (0% chose this)
  • Only a RACES net control operator (0% chose this)
  • A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official (0% chose this)
  • Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?
  • Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in (0% chose this)
  • Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions (0% chose this)
  • Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?
  • No more than 1 hour per month (0% chose this)
  • No more than 2 hours per month (0% chose this)
  • No more than 1 hour per week (0% chose this)
  • No more than 2 hours per week (0% chose this)
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Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?
  • Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK” (0% chose this)
  • Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code (0% chose this)
  • An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission (0% chose this)
  • Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements (0% chose this)
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What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”
  • Send slower (0% chose this)
  • Change frequency (0% chose this)
  • Increase your power (0% chose this)
  • Repeat everything twice (0% chose this)
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What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?
  • No US stations should call (0% chose this)
  • Operating full break-in (0% chose this)
  • Listening only for a specific station or stations (0% chose this)
  • Closing station now (0% chose this)
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What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?
  • “Will you keep the frequency clear?” (0% chose this)
  • “Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?” (0% chose this)
  • “Are you listening only for a specific station?” (0% chose this)
  • “Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?” (0% chose this)
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What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?
  • The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ (0% chose this)
  • The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ (0% chose this)
  • At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm (0% chose this)
  • At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm (0% chose this)
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What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?
  • Matching the speed of the transmitting station (0% chose this)
  • Operating split to avoid interference on frequency (0% chose this)
  • Sending without error (0% chose this)
  • Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal (0% chose this)
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When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?
  • Chirpy or unstable signal (0% chose this)
  • Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated (0% chose this)
  • 100 percent copy (0% chose this)
  • Key clicks (0% chose this)
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What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?
  • SK (0% chose this)
  • BK (0% chose this)
  • AR (0% chose this)
  • KN (0% chose this)
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What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?
  • Send slower (0% chose this)
  • We have already confirmed the contact (0% chose this)
  • I have received and understood (0% chose this)
  • We have worked before (0% chose this)
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What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?
  • Send more slowly (0% chose this)
  • Stop sending (0% chose this)
  • Zero beat my signal (0% chose this)
  • I am troubled by static (0% chose this)
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What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?
  • You are sending too fast (0% chose this)
  • There is interference on the frequency (0% chose this)
  • I am quitting for the day (0% chose this)
  • I am ready to receive (0% chose this)
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What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?
  • Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations (0% chose this)
  • Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations (0% chose this)
  • Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters (0% chose this)
  • Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency (0% chose this)
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Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?
  • To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations (0% chose this)
  • To provide emergency and public safety communications (0% chose this)
  • To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage (0% chose this)
  • To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules (0% chose this)
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What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?
  • Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency (0% chose this)
  • Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors (0% chose this)
  • Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?
  • A map that shows accurate land masses (0% chose this)
  • A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location (0% chose this)
  • A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator (0% chose this)
  • A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit (0% chose this)
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Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?
  • Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat (0% chose this)
  • Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat (0% chose this)
  • Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary (0% chose this)
  • Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary (0% chose this)
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How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?
  • Toward the rising sun (0% chose this)
  • Along the gray line (0% chose this)
  • 180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading (0% chose this)
  • Toward the north (0% chose this)
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Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?
  • Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog (0% chose this)
  • Adam, Boy, Charles, David (0% chose this)
  • America, Boston, Canada, Denmark (0% chose this)
  • Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta (0% chose this)
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Why do many amateurs keep a station log?
  • The FCC requires a log of all international contacts (0% chose this)
  • The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic (0% chose this)
  • The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest (0% chose this)
  • To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?
  • Submit a log to the contest sponsor (0% chose this)
  • Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World (0% chose this)
  • Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is QRP operation?
  • Remote piloted model control (0% chose this)
  • Low-power transmit operation (0% chose this)
  • Transmission using Quick Response Protocol (0% chose this)
  • Traffic relay procedure net operation (0% chose this)
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Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?
  • To allow each station to operate according to conditions (0% chose this)
  • To be sure the contact will count for award programs (0% chose this)
  • To follow standard radiogram structure (0% chose this)
  • To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display (0% chose this)
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Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?
  • USB (0% chose this)
  • DSB (0% chose this)
  • CW (0% chose this)
  • LSB (0% chose this)
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What is VARA?
  • A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce) (0% chose this)
  • A digital protocol used with Winlink (0% chose this)
  • A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF (0% chose this)
  • DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios (0% chose this)
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What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?
  • Frequent retries or timeouts (0% chose this)
  • Long pauses in message transmission (0% chose this)
  • Failure to establish a connection between stations (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?
  • Always call on the station’s frequency (0% chose this)
  • Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency (0% chose this)
  • Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station (0% chose this)
  • Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station (0% chose this)
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What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?
  • LSB (0% chose this)
  • USB (0% chose this)
  • DSB (0% chose this)
  • SSB (0% chose this)
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What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?
  • 85 Hz (0% chose this)
  • 170 Hz (0% chose this)
  • 425 Hz (0% chose this)
  • 850 Hz (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is required when using FT8?
  • A special hardware modem (0% chose this)
  • Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second (0% chose this)
  • Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB (0% chose this)
  • A vertically polarized antenna (0% chose this)
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In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?
  • At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz (0% chose this)
  • At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz (0% chose this)
  • In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz (0% chose this)
  • Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz (0% chose this)
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How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?
  • Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode (0% chose this)
  • Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects (0% chose this)
  • Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations (0% chose this)
  • Send a NAK code (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?
  • Send an email to the system control operator (0% chose this)
  • Send QRL in Morse code (0% chose this)
  • Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID (0% chose this)
  • Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency (0% chose this)
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What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?
  • To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas (0% chose this)
  • To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide (0% chose this)
  • To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event (0% chose this)
  • To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers (0% chose this)
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Which of the following describes Winlink?
  • An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet (0% chose this)
  • A form of Packet Radio (0% chose this)
  • A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation (0% chose this)
  • All of the above (0% chose this)
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What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?
  • Terminal Node Controller (0% chose this)
  • Gateway (0% chose this)
  • RJ-45 (0% chose this)
  • Printer/Server (0% chose this)
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What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?
  • The mark and space frequencies may be reversed (0% chose this)
  • You may have selected the wrong baud rate (0% chose this)
  • You may be listening on the wrong sideband (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a common location for FT8?
  • Anywhere in the voice portion of the band (0% chose this)
  • Anywhere in the CW portion of the band (0% chose this)
  • Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz (0% chose this)
  • Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz (0% chose this)
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How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?
  • Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies (0% chose this)
  • Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation (0% chose this)
  • A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band (0% chose this)
  • A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions (0% chose this)
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What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?
  • It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies (0% chose this)
  • It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies (0% chose this)
  • It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications (0% chose this)
  • None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected (0% chose this)
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Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?
  • 28 days (0% chose this)
  • 1 to 2 hours (0% chose this)
  • 8 minutes (0% chose this)
  • 20 to 40 hours (0% chose this)
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Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?
  • 80 meters and 160 meters (0% chose this)
  • 60 meters and 40 meters (0% chose this)
  • 30 meters and 20 meters (0% chose this)
  • 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters (0% chose this)
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What is the solar flux index?
  • A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth (0% chose this)
  • A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions (0% chose this)
  • Another name for the American sunspot number (0% chose this)
  • A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters (0% chose this)
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What is a geomagnetic storm?
  • A sudden drop in the solar flux index (0% chose this)
  • A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation (0% chose this)
  • Ripples in the geomagnetic force (0% chose this)
  • A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field (0% chose this)
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At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
  • At the summer solstice (0% chose this)
  • Only at the maximum point (0% chose this)
  • Only at the minimum point (0% chose this)
  • At any point (0% chose this)
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How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?
  • Improve high-latitude HF propagation (0% chose this)
  • Degrade ground wave propagation (0% chose this)
  • Improve ground wave propagation (0% chose this)
  • Degrade high-latitude HF propagation (0% chose this)
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How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?
  • Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals (0% chose this)
  • Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions (0% chose this)
  • Improve HF long path propagation (0% chose this)
  • Reduce long delayed echoes (0% chose this)
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What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?
  • Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere (0% chose this)
  • Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts (0% chose this)
  • Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis (0% chose this)
  • The position of the Moon in its orbit (0% chose this)
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How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?
  • 28 days (0% chose this)
  • 14 days (0% chose this)
  • 4 to 8 minutes (0% chose this)
  • 15 hours to several days (0% chose this)
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What does the K-index measure?
  • The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun (0% chose this)
  • The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field (0% chose this)
  • The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field (0% chose this)
  • The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado (0% chose this)
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What does the A-index measure?
  • The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun (0% chose this)
  • The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field (0% chose this)
  • The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field (0% chose this)
  • The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado (0% chose this)
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How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?
  • HF communication is improved (0% chose this)
  • HF communication is disturbed (0% chose this)
  • VHF/UHF ducting is improved (0% chose this)
  • VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed (0% chose this)
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What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?
  • Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds (0% chose this)
  • Signal strength increased by 3 dB (0% chose this)
  • The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation (0% chose this)
  • A slightly delayed echo might be heard (0% chose this)
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What factors affect the MUF?
  • Path distance and location (0% chose this)
  • Time of day and season (0% chose this)
  • Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?
  • Just below the MUF (0% chose this)
  • Just above the LUF (0% chose this)
  • Just below the critical frequency (0% chose this)
  • Just above the critical frequency (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?
  • Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received (0% chose this)
  • Check the A-index (0% chose this)
  • Send a series of dots and listen for echoes (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?
  • They are refracted back to Earth (0% chose this)
  • They pass through the ionosphere (0% chose this)
  • They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere (0% chose this)
  • They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth (0% chose this)
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What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?
  • They are refracted back to Earth (0% chose this)
  • They pass through the ionosphere (0% chose this)
  • They are attenuated before reaching the destination (0% chose this)
  • They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth (0% chose this)
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What does LUF stand for?
  • The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points (0% chose this)
  • Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius (0% chose this)
  • The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period (0% chose this)
  • Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes (0% chose this)
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What does MUF stand for?
  • The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points (0% chose this)
  • The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points (0% chose this)
  • The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period (0% chose this)
  • The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period (0% chose this)
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What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
  • 180 miles (0% chose this)
  • 1,200 miles (0% chose this)
  • 2,500 miles (0% chose this)
  • 12,000 miles (0% chose this)
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What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?
  • 180 miles (0% chose this)
  • 1,200 miles (0% chose this)
  • 2,500 miles (0% chose this)
  • 12,000 miles (0% chose this)
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What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?
  • Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path (0% chose this)
  • HF communications over the path are enhanced (0% chose this)
  • Double-hop propagation along the path is more common (0% chose this)
  • Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?
  • Poor propagation at any time of day (0% chose this)
  • World-wide propagation during daylight hours (0% chose this)
  • Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption (0% chose this)
  • High levels of atmospheric noise or static (0% chose this)
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Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?
  • The D region (0% chose this)
  • The E region (0% chose this)
  • The F1 region (0% chose this)
  • The F2 region (0% chose this)
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What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?
  • The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth (0% chose this)
  • The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth (0% chose this)
  • The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity (0% chose this)
  • The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB (0% chose this)
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Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?
  • Because it is the densest (0% chose this)
  • Because of the Doppler effect (0% chose this)
  • Because it is the highest (0% chose this)
  • Because of temperature inversions (0% chose this)
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What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?
  • The long path azimuth of a distant station (0% chose this)
  • The short path azimuth of a distant station (0% chose this)
  • The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions (0% chose this)
  • The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions (0% chose this)
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Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?
  • The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours (0% chose this)
  • The F region is unstable during daylight hours (0% chose this)
  • The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours (0% chose this)
  • The E region is unstable during daylight hours (0% chose this)
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What is a characteristic of HF scatter?
  • Phone signals have high intelligibility (0% chose this)
  • Signals have a fluttering sound (0% chose this)
  • There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength (0% chose this)
  • Scatter propagation occurs only at night (0% chose this)
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What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
  • The ionospheric region involved is unstable (0% chose this)
  • Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal (0% chose this)
  • The E region is not present (0% chose this)
  • Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths (0% chose this)
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Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?
  • Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone (0% chose this)
  • Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector (0% chose this)
  • Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy (0% chose this)
  • Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy (0% chose this)
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What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?
  • Faraday rotation (0% chose this)
  • Scatter (0% chose this)
  • Chordal hop (0% chose this)
  • Short-path (0% chose this)
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What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?
  • Propagation near the MUF (0% chose this)
  • Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles (0% chose this)
  • Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset (0% chose this)
  • Double hop propagation near the LUF (0% chose this)
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Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?
  • The F2 region (0% chose this)
  • The F1 region (0% chose this)
  • The E region (0% chose this)
  • The D region (0% chose this)
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What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?
  • To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth (0% chose this)
  • To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband (0% chose this)
  • To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources (0% chose this)
  • To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies (0% chose this)
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What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?
  • Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated (0% chose this)
  • More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband (0% chose this)
  • It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals (0% chose this)
  • Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented (0% chose this)
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How does a noise blanker work?
  • By temporarily increasing received bandwidth (0% chose this)
  • By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor (0% chose this)
  • By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse (0% chose this)
  • By clipping noise peaks (0% chose this)
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What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?
  • A pronounced peak (0% chose this)
  • A pronounced dip (0% chose this)
  • No change will be observed (0% chose this)
  • A slow, rhythmic oscillation (0% chose this)
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Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?
  • To balance the transmitter audio frequency response (0% chose this)
  • To reduce harmonic radiation (0% chose this)
  • To prevent excessive drive (0% chose this)
  • To increase overall efficiency (0% chose this)
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What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?
  • Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna (0% chose this)
  • Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna (0% chose this)
  • Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?
  • Received signals may become distorted (0% chose this)
  • Received frequency may become unstable (0% chose this)
  • CW signals may become severely attenuated (0% chose this)
  • Received frequency may shift several kHz (0% chose this)
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What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?
  • Minimum SWR on the antenna (0% chose this)
  • Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current (0% chose this)
  • Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current (0% chose this)
  • Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current (0% chose this)
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What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?
  • To prevent key clicks on CW (0% chose this)
  • To prevent transient overmodulation (0% chose this)
  • To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output (0% chose this)
  • To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level (0% chose this)
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What is the function of an electronic keyer?
  • Automatic transmit/receive switching (0% chose this)
  • Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation (0% chose this)
  • To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter (0% chose this)
  • Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation (0% chose this)
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Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?
  • ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode (0% chose this)
  • The ALC action distorts the signal (0% chose this)
  • When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?
  • To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once (0% chose this)
  • To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time (0% chose this)
  • To transmit on one frequency and listen on another (0% chose this)
  • To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation (0% chose this)
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What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?
  • To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals (0% chose this)
  • To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier (0% chose this)
  • To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries (0% chose this)
  • To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals (0% chose this)
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What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?
  • An ohmmeter (0% chose this)
  • A signal generator (0% chose this)
  • An ammeter (0% chose this)
  • An oscilloscope (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?
  • An oscilloscope uses less power (0% chose this)
  • Complex impedances can be easily measured (0% chose this)
  • Greater precision (0% chose this)
  • Complex waveforms can be measured (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?
  • An oscilloscope (0% chose this)
  • A field strength meter (0% chose this)
  • A sidetone monitor (0% chose this)
  • A wavemeter (0% chose this)
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What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?
  • The local oscillator of the transmitter (0% chose this)
  • An external RF oscillator (0% chose this)
  • The transmitter balanced mixer output (0% chose this)
  • The attenuated RF output of the transmitter (0% chose this)
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Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?
  • It improves the frequency response (0% chose this)
  • It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured (0% chose this)
  • It improves the resolution of the readings (0% chose this)
  • It decreases the loading on circuits being measured (0% chose this)
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What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?
  • Better for measuring computer circuits (0% chose this)
  • Less prone to overload (0% chose this)
  • Higher precision (0% chose this)
  • Faster response (0% chose this)
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What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?
  • Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees (0% chose this)
  • Two non-harmonically related audio signals (0% chose this)
  • Two swept frequency tones (0% chose this)
  • Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude (0% chose this)
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What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?
  • Linearity (0% chose this)
  • Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB (0% chose this)
  • Percentage of frequency modulation (0% chose this)
  • Percentage of carrier phase shift (0% chose this)
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When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?
  • When testing logic circuits (0% chose this)
  • When high precision is desired (0% chose this)
  • When measuring the frequency of an oscillator (0% chose this)
  • When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values (0% chose this)
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Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?
  • Standing wave ratio (0% chose this)
  • Antenna front-to-back ratio (0% chose this)
  • RF interference (0% chose this)
  • Radio wave propagation (0% chose this)
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Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?
  • Receiver (0% chose this)
  • Transmitter (0% chose this)
  • Antenna and feed line (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?
  • Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings (0% chose this)
  • Received power that interferes with SWR readings (0% chose this)
  • Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?
  • Front-to-back ratio of an antenna (0% chose this)
  • Power output from a transmitter (0% chose this)
  • Impedance of coaxial cable (0% chose this)
  • Gain of a directional antenna (0% chose this)
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Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?
  • Bypass inductor (0% chose this)
  • Bypass capacitor (0% chose this)
  • Forward-biased diode (0% chose this)
  • Reverse-biased diode (0% chose this)
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Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?
  • Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas (0% chose this)
  • Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors (0% chose this)
  • Arcing at a poor electrical connection (0% chose this)
  • Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna (0% chose this)
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What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?
  • A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air (0% chose this)
  • On-and-off humming or clicking (0% chose this)
  • Distorted speech (0% chose this)
  • Clearly audible speech (0% chose this)
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What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?
  • On-and-off humming or clicking (0% chose this)
  • A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency (0% chose this)
  • A chirpy CW signal (0% chose this)
  • Severely distorted audio (0% chose this)
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What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?
  • Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire (0% chose this)
  • Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire (0% chose this)
  • The ground rod is resonant (0% chose this)
  • The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency (0% chose this)
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What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?
  • Overheating of ground straps (0% chose this)
  • Corrosion of the ground rod (0% chose this)
  • High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment (0% chose this)
  • A ground loop (0% chose this)
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Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?
  • A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike (0% chose this)
  • Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection (0% chose this)
  • Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?
  • Place a ferrite choke on the cable (0% chose this)
  • Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal (0% chose this)
  • Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference (0% chose this)
  • Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable (0% chose this)
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How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?
  • Connect all ground conductors in series (0% chose this)
  • Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire (0% chose this)
  • Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections (0% chose this)
  • Bond equipment enclosures together (0% chose this)
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What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?
  • You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal (0% chose this)
  • The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high (0% chose this)
  • An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current (0% chose this)
  • You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station (0% chose this)
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What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?
  • Building all equipment in a metal enclosure (0% chose this)
  • Using surge suppressor power outlets (0% chose this)
  • Bonding all equipment enclosures together (0% chose this)
  • Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines (0% chose this)
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Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?
  • It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit (0% chose this)
  • It prevents signal overload (0% chose this)
  • It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded (0% chose this)
  • It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis (0% chose this)
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What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?
  • Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals (0% chose this)
  • Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals (0% chose this)
  • Prevent distortion of voice signals (0% chose this)
  • Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation (0% chose this)
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How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?
  • It increases peak power (0% chose this)
  • It increases average power (0% chose this)
  • It reduces harmonic distortion (0% chose this)
  • It reduces intermodulation distortion (0% chose this)
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What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?
  • Distorted speech (0% chose this)
  • Excess intermodulation products (0% chose this)
  • Excessive background noise (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What does an S meter measure?
  • Carrier suppression (0% chose this)
  • Impedance (0% chose this)
  • Received signal strength (0% chose this)
  • Transmitter power output (0% chose this)
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How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?
  • It is 10 times less powerful (0% chose this)
  • It is 20 times less powerful (0% chose this)
  • It is 20 times more powerful (0% chose this)
  • It is 100 times more powerful (0% chose this)
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How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?
  • 6 dB (0% chose this)
  • 12 dB (0% chose this)
  • 15 dB (0% chose this)
  • 18 dB (0% chose this)
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How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?
  • Approximately 1.5 times (0% chose this)
  • Approximately 2 times (0% chose this)
  • Approximately 4 times (0% chose this)
  • Approximately 8 times (0% chose this)
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What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?
  • 7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz (0% chose this)
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What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?
  • 14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz (0% chose this)
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How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?
  • At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment (0% chose this)
  • At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment (0% chose this)
  • At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment (0% chose this)
  • At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment (0% chose this)
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How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?
  • At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band (0% chose this)
  • At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band (0% chose this)
  • At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment (0% chose this)
  • At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment (0% chose this)
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What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?
  • To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna (0% chose this)
  • To reduce radiation resistance (0% chose this)
  • To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna (0% chose this)
  • To lower the radiation angle (0% chose this)
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What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?
  • To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna (0% chose this)
  • To increase the “Q” of the antenna (0% chose this)
  • To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object (0% chose this)
  • To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting (0% chose this)
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Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?
  • To the battery using heavy-gauge wire (0% chose this)
  • To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire (0% chose this)
  • To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line (0% chose this)
  • To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line (0% chose this)
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Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?
  • The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable (0% chose this)
  • The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver (0% chose this)
  • The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers (0% chose this)
  • Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat (0% chose this)
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Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?
  • “Picket fencing” (0% chose this)
  • The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver (0% chose this)
  • Efficiency of the electrically short antenna (0% chose this)
  • FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band (0% chose this)
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What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?
  • Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals (0% chose this)
  • Q of the antenna will be very low (0% chose this)
  • Operating bandwidth may be very limited (0% chose this)
  • Harmonic radiation may increase (0% chose this)
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Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?
  • The battery charging system (0% chose this)
  • The fuel delivery system (0% chose this)
  • The control computers (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?
  • Series-parallel (0% chose this)
  • Shunt (0% chose this)
  • Bypass (0% chose this)
  • Full-wave bridge (0% chose this)
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What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?
  • 0.02 VDC (0% chose this)
  • 0.5 VDC (0% chose this)
  • 0.2 VDC (0% chose this)
  • 1.38 VDC (0% chose this)
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Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?
  • To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage (0% chose this)
  • To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination (0% chose this)
  • To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value (0% chose this)
  • To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels (0% chose this)
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What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?
  • Ground the solar panel outer metal framework (0% chose this)
  • Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up (0% chose this)
  • A series resistor must be in place (0% chose this)
  • The solar panel must have a charge controller (0% chose this)
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What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?
  • Resonance causes impedance to be very high (0% chose this)
  • Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance (0% chose this)
  • Resonance causes impedance to be very low (0% chose this)
  • Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance (0% chose this)
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What is reactance?
  • Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance (0% chose this)
  • Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance (0% chose this)
  • Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance (0% chose this)
  • Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?
  • Conductance (0% chose this)
  • Reluctance (0% chose this)
  • Admittance (0% chose this)
  • Reactance (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?
  • Conductance (0% chose this)
  • Reluctance (0% chose this)
  • Reactance (0% chose this)
  • Admittance (0% chose this)
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How does an inductor react to AC?
  • As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this)
  • As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this)
  • As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this)
  • As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this)
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How does a capacitor react to AC?
  • As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this)
  • As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this)
  • As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this)
  • As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this)
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What is the term for the inverse of impedance?
  • Conductance (0% chose this)
  • Susceptance (0% chose this)
  • Reluctance (0% chose this)
  • Admittance (0% chose this)
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What is impedance?
  • The ratio of current to voltage (0% chose this)
  • The product of current and voltage (0% chose this)
  • The ratio of voltage to current (0% chose this)
  • The product of current and reactance (0% chose this)
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What unit is used to measure reactance?
  • Farad (0% chose this)
  • Ohm (0% chose this)
  • Ampere (0% chose this)
  • Siemens (0% chose this)
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Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?
  • A transformer (0% chose this)
  • A Pi-network (0% chose this)
  • A length of transmission line (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What letter is used to represent reactance?
  • Z (0% chose this)
  • X (0% chose this)
  • B (0% chose this)
  • Y (0% chose this)
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What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?
  • Current and voltage are equal (0% chose this)
  • Resistance is cancelled (0% chose this)
  • The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves (0% chose this)
  • Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel (0% chose this)
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What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?
  • Approximately 2 dB (0% chose this)
  • Approximately 3 dB (0% chose this)
  • Approximately 6 dB (0% chose this)
  • Approximately 9 dB (0% chose this)
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How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?
  • It equals the average of the branch currents (0% chose this)
  • It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit (0% chose this)
  • It equals the sum of the currents through each branch (0% chose this)
  • It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop (0% chose this)
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How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?
  • 0.5 watts (0% chose this)
  • 200 watts (0% chose this)
  • 400 watts (0% chose this)
  • 3200 watts (0% chose this)
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How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
  • 2.4 watts (0% chose this)
  • 24 watts (0% chose this)
  • 6 watts (0% chose this)
  • 60 watts (0% chose this)
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How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?
  • Approximately 61 milliwatts (0% chose this)
  • Approximately 61 watts (0% chose this)
  • Approximately 11 milliwatts (0% chose this)
  • Approximately 11 watts (0% chose this)
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What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?
  • 1.4 watts (0% chose this)
  • 100 watts (0% chose this)
  • 353.5 watts (0% chose this)
  • 400 watts (0% chose this)
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What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?
  • The peak-to-peak value (0% chose this)
  • The peak value (0% chose this)
  • The RMS value (0% chose this)
  • The reciprocal of the RMS value (0% chose this)
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What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?
  • 84.8 volts (0% chose this)
  • 169.7 volts (0% chose this)
  • 240.0 volts (0% chose this)
  • 339.4 volts (0% chose this)
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What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?
  • 8.5 volts (0% chose this)
  • 12 volts (0% chose this)
  • 24 volts (0% chose this)
  • 34 volts (0% chose this)
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What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?
  • 10.9 percent (0% chose this)
  • 12.2 percent (0% chose this)
  • 20.6 percent (0% chose this)
  • 25.9 percent (0% chose this)
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What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?
  • 0.707 (0% chose this)
  • 1.00 (0% chose this)
  • 1.414 (0% chose this)
  • 2.00 (0% chose this)
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What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?
  • 173 volts (0% chose this)
  • 245 volts (0% chose this)
  • 346 volts (0% chose this)
  • 692 volts (0% chose this)
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What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?
  • 530 watts (0% chose this)
  • 1060 watts (0% chose this)
  • 1500 watts (0% chose this)
  • 2120 watts (0% chose this)
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What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?
  • 8.75 watts (0% chose this)
  • 625 watts (0% chose this)
  • 2500 watts (0% chose this)
  • 5000 watts (0% chose this)
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What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?
  • Capacitive coupling (0% chose this)
  • Displacement current coupling (0% chose this)
  • Mutual inductance (0% chose this)
  • Mutual capacitance (0% chose this)
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What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?
  • The input voltage is multiplied by 4 (0% chose this)
  • The input voltage is divided by 4 (0% chose this)
  • Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload (0% chose this)
  • Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload (0% chose this)
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What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?
  • 5.9 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 0.17 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 17 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 80 ohms (0% chose this)
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What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?
  • 300 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 150 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 75 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 67 ohms (0% chose this)
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Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?
  • To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary (0% chose this)
  • To accommodate the higher current of the primary (0% chose this)
  • To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary (0% chose this)
  • To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding (0% chose this)
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What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?
  • 360 volts (0% chose this)
  • 120 volts (0% chose this)
  • 40 volts (0% chose this)
  • 25.5 volts (0% chose this)
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What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?
  • 3.5 to 1 (0% chose this)
  • 12 to 1 (0% chose this)
  • 24 to 1 (0% chose this)
  • 144 to 1 (0% chose this)
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What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?
  • 576.9 nanofarads (0% chose this)
  • 1,733 picofarads (0% chose this)
  • 3,583 picofarads (0% chose this)
  • 10.750 nanofarads (0% chose this)
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What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?
  • 0.33 microfarads (0% chose this)
  • 3.0 microfarads (0% chose this)
  • 33.3 microfarads (0% chose this)
  • 300 microfarads (0% chose this)
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What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?
  • 0.30 henries (0% chose this)
  • 3.3 henries (0% chose this)
  • 3.3 millihenries (0% chose this)
  • 30 millihenries (0% chose this)
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What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?
  • 7 millihenries (0% chose this)
  • 14.3 millihenries (0% chose this)
  • 70 millihenries (0% chose this)
  • 1,000 millihenries (0% chose this)
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What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?
  • 0.07 microfarads (0% chose this)
  • 14.3 microfarads (0% chose this)
  • 70 microfarads (0% chose this)
  • 1,000 microfarads (0% chose this)
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Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?
  • An inductor in series (0% chose this)
  • An inductor in parallel (0% chose this)
  • A capacitor in parallel (0% chose this)
  • A capacitor in series (0% chose this)
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Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?
  • A capacitor in series (0% chose this)
  • A capacitor in parallel (0% chose this)
  • An inductor in parallel (0% chose this)
  • An inductor in series (0% chose this)
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What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?
  • 6 volts (0% chose this)
  • 8.5 volts (0% chose this)
  • 10.5 volts (0% chose this)
  • 12 volts (0% chose this)
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What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?
  • Long life (0% chose this)
  • High discharge current (0% chose this)
  • High voltage (0% chose this)
  • Rapid recharge (0% chose this)
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What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?
  • 0.1 volt (0% chose this)
  • 0.3 volts (0% chose this)
  • 0.7 volts (0% chose this)
  • 1.0 volts (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?
  • Tight tolerance (0% chose this)
  • Much less leakage than any other type (0% chose this)
  • High capacitance for a given volume (0% chose this)
  • Inexpensive RF capacitor (0% chose this)
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What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?
  • 0.1 volt (0% chose this)
  • 0.3 volts (0% chose this)
  • 0.7 volts (0% chose this)
  • 1.0 volts (0% chose this)
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Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?
  • The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate (0% chose this)
  • The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable (0% chose this)
  • The resistor could overheat (0% chose this)
  • The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit (0% chose this)
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What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?
  • Saturation and cutoff (0% chose this)
  • The active region (between cutoff and saturation) (0% chose this)
  • Peak and valley current points (0% chose this)
  • Enhancement and depletion modes (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?
  • Tight tolerance (0% chose this)
  • High stability (0% chose this)
  • High capacitance for given volume (0% chose this)
  • Comparatively low cost (0% chose this)
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Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?
  • The gate is formed by a back-biased junction (0% chose this)
  • The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer (0% chose this)
  • The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer (0% chose this)
  • The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon (0% chose this)
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Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?
  • Control grid (0% chose this)
  • Suppressor grid (0% chose this)
  • Screen grid (0% chose this)
  • Trigger electrode (0% chose this)
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What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?
  • Its reactance increases (0% chose this)
  • Harmonics are generated (0% chose this)
  • It becomes capacitive (0% chose this)
  • Catastrophic failure is likely (0% chose this)
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What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?
  • To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance (0% chose this)
  • To increase efficiency (0% chose this)
  • To increase the control grid resistance (0% chose this)
  • To decrease plate resistance (0% chose this)
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What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?
  • Its conductivity (0% chose this)
  • Its thickness (0% chose this)
  • The composition, or “mix,” of materials used (0% chose this)
  • The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter (0% chose this)
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What is meant by the term MMIC?
  • Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit (0% chose this)
  • Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit (0% chose this)
  • Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit (0% chose this)
  • Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?
  • Low power consumption (0% chose this)
  • High power handling capability (0% chose this)
  • Better suited for RF amplification (0% chose this)
  • Better suited for power supply regulation (0% chose this)
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What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?
  • 50 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 500 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 4 GHz (0% chose this)
  • 40 GHz (0% chose this)
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What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?
  • Large values of inductance may be obtained (0% chose this)
  • The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies (0% chose this)
  • Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
  • Digital (0% chose this)
  • MMIC (0% chose this)
  • Programmable Logic (0% chose this)
  • Analog (0% chose this)
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Which of the following describes a type N connector?
  • A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz (0% chose this)
  • A small bayonet connector used for data circuits (0% chose this)
  • A low noise figure VHF connector (0% chose this)
  • A nickel plated version of the PL-259 (0% chose this)
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How is an LED biased when emitting light?
  • In the tunnel-effect region (0% chose this)
  • At the Zener voltage (0% chose this)
  • Reverse biased (0% chose this)
  • Forward biased (0% chose this)
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How does a liquid crystal display compare to an LED display?
  • Higher contrast in high ambient lighting (0% chose this)
  • Wider dynamic range (0% chose this)
  • Higher power consumption (0% chose this)
  • Shorter lifetime (0% chose this)
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How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?
  • By creating an impedance in the current’s path (0% chose this)
  • It converts common-mode current to differential mode current (0% chose this)
  • By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current (0% chose this)
  • Ferrites expel magnetic fields (0% chose this)
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What is an SMA connector?
  • A type-S to type-M adaptor (0% chose this)
  • A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz (0% chose this)
  • A connector designed for serial multiple access signals (0% chose this)
  • A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications (0% chose this)
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Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?
  • PL-259 (0% chose this)
  • BNC (0% chose this)
  • RCA Phono (0% chose this)
  • Type N (0% chose this)
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What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?
  • It acts as a fuse for excess voltage (0% chose this)
  • It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed (0% chose this)
  • It removes shock hazards from the induction coils (0% chose this)
  • It eliminates ground loop current (0% chose this)
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Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?
  • Diodes (0% chose this)
  • Transformers and transducers (0% chose this)
  • Capacitors and inductors (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?
  • Full-wave (0% chose this)
  • Full-wave bridge (0% chose this)
  • Half-wave (0% chose this)
  • Synchronous (0% chose this)
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What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?
  • Only one diode is required (0% chose this)
  • The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier (0% chose this)
  • More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier (0% chose this)
  • The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage (0% chose this)
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What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?
  • 90 degrees (0% chose this)
  • 180 degrees (0% chose this)
  • 270 degrees (0% chose this)
  • 360 degrees (0% chose this)
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What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?
  • 90 degrees (0% chose this)
  • 180 degrees (0% chose this)
  • 270 degrees (0% chose this)
  • 360 degrees (0% chose this)
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What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?
  • A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input (0% chose this)
  • A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input (0% chose this)
  • A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input (0% chose this)
  • A steady DC voltage (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?
  • Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible (0% chose this)
  • Fewer circuit components are required (0% chose this)
  • High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components (0% chose this)
  • Inherently more stable (0% chose this)
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Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?
  • Symbol 2 (0% chose this)
  • Symbol 5 (0% chose this)
  • Symbol 1 (0% chose this)
  • Symbol 4 (0% chose this)
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Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?
  • Symbol 4 (0% chose this)
  • Symbol 1 (0% chose this)
  • Symbol 11 (0% chose this)
  • Symbol 5 (0% chose this)
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Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?
  • Symbol 1 (0% chose this)
  • Symbol 2 (0% chose this)
  • Symbol 7 (0% chose this)
  • Symbol 11 (0% chose this)
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Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?
  • Symbol 4 (0% chose this)
  • Symbol 7 (0% chose this)
  • Symbol 6 (0% chose this)
  • Symbol 1 (0% chose this)
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Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?
  • Symbol 7 (0% chose this)
  • Symbol 11 (0% chose this)
  • Symbol 6 (0% chose this)
  • Symbol 1 (0% chose this)
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What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?
  • To limit the modulation index (0% chose this)
  • To eliminate self-oscillations (0% chose this)
  • To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods (0% chose this)
  • To keep the carrier on frequency (0% chose this)
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Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?
  • Class A (0% chose this)
  • Class B (0% chose this)
  • Class AB (0% chose this)
  • Class C (0% chose this)
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Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?
  • Output is high when either or both inputs are low (0% chose this)
  • Output is high only when both inputs are high (0% chose this)
  • Output is low when either or both inputs are high (0% chose this)
  • Output is low only when both inputs are high (0% chose this)
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In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?
  • 100% (0% chose this)
  • More than 50% but less than 100% (0% chose this)
  • 50% (0% chose this)
  • Less than 50% (0% chose this)
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How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?
  • 3 (0% chose this)
  • 6 (0% chose this)
  • 8 (0% chose this)
  • 16 (0% chose this)
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What is a shift register?
  • A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array (0% chose this)
  • An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations (0% chose this)
  • A digital mixer (0% chose this)
  • An analog mixer (0% chose this)
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Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?
  • An amplifier and a divider (0% chose this)
  • A frequency multiplier and a mixer (0% chose this)
  • A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop (0% chose this)
  • A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop (0% chose this)
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How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?
  • Divide the DC input power by the DC output power (0% chose this)
  • Divide the RF output power by the DC input power (0% chose this)
  • Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power (0% chose this)
  • Add the RF input power to the DC output power (0% chose this)
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What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?
  • The number of stages in the counter (0% chose this)
  • The number of stages in the divider (0% chose this)
  • The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit (0% chose this)
  • The time delay of the lag circuit (0% chose this)
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Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?
  • Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver (0% chose this)
  • An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform (0% chose this)
  • A Class C high efficiency amplifier (0% chose this)
  • An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier (0% chose this)
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For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?
  • SSB (0% chose this)
  • FM (0% chose this)
  • AM (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?
  • Carrier oscillator (0% chose this)
  • Filter (0% chose this)
  • IF amplifier (0% chose this)
  • RF amplifier (0% chose this)
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What output is produced by a balanced modulator?
  • Frequency modulated RF (0% chose this)
  • Audio with equalized frequency response (0% chose this)
  • Audio extracted from the modulation signal (0% chose this)
  • Double-sideband modulated RF (0% chose this)
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What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?
  • To minimize transmitter power output (0% chose this)
  • To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line (0% chose this)
  • To reduce power supply ripple (0% chose this)
  • To minimize radiation resistance (0% chose this)
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How is a product detector used?
  • Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products (0% chose this)
  • Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication (0% chose this)
  • Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands (0% chose this)
  • Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?
  • Extremely narrow tuning range (0% chose this)
  • Relatively high-power output (0% chose this)
  • Pure sine wave output (0% chose this)
  • Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?
  • A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created (0% chose this)
  • Fewer digital components are required (0% chose this)
  • Mixing products are greatly reduced (0% chose this)
  • The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies (0% chose this)
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What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?
  • Insertion loss (0% chose this)
  • Return loss (0% chose this)
  • Q (0% chose this)
  • Ultimate rejection (0% chose this)
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Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?
  • Input amplifier gain (0% chose this)
  • Demodulator stage bandwidth (0% chose this)
  • Input amplifier noise figure (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?
  • Zero (0% chose this)
  • 90 degrees (0% chose this)
  • 180 degrees (0% chose this)
  • 45 degrees (0% chose this)
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What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?
  • The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated (0% chose this)
  • All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing (0% chose this)
  • Minimum detectible signal level is reduced (0% chose this)
  • Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog (0% chose this)
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Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?
  • Filtering (0% chose this)
  • Detection (0% chose this)
  • Modulation (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?
  • Notch frequency (0% chose this)
  • Neper frequency (0% chose this)
  • Cutoff frequency (0% chose this)
  • Rolloff frequency (0% chose this)
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What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?
  • Notch depth (0% chose this)
  • Rolloff (0% chose this)
  • Insertion loss (0% chose this)
  • Ultimate rejection (0% chose this)
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The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?
  • Upper and lower half-power (0% chose this)
  • Cutoff and rolloff (0% chose this)
  • Pole and zero (0% chose this)
  • Image and harmonic (0% chose this)
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How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?
  • By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone (0% chose this)
  • By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal (0% chose this)
  • By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies (0% chose this)
  • By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator (0% chose this)
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What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?
  • Phase convolution (0% chose this)
  • Phase modulation (0% chose this)
  • Phase transformation (0% chose this)
  • Phase inversion (0% chose this)
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What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?
  • Frequency convolution (0% chose this)
  • Frequency transformation (0% chose this)
  • Frequency conversion (0% chose this)
  • Frequency modulation (0% chose this)
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What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?
  • Multiplex modulation (0% chose this)
  • Phase modulation (0% chose this)
  • Amplitude modulation (0% chose this)
  • Pulse modulation (0% chose this)
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What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?
  • Power modulation (0% chose this)
  • Phase modulation (0% chose this)
  • Frequency modulation (0% chose this)
  • Amplitude modulation (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?
  • It is sideband sensitive (0% chose this)
  • Its encoding provides error correction (0% chose this)
  • Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31 (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?
  • Single sideband (0% chose this)
  • Vestigial sideband (0% chose this)
  • Phase modulation (0% chose this)
  • Frequency modulation (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?
  • Insufficient audio (0% chose this)
  • Insufficient bandwidth (0% chose this)
  • Frequency drift (0% chose this)
  • Excessive bandwidth (0% chose this)
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What type of modulation is used by FT8?
  • 8-tone frequency shift keying (0% chose this)
  • Vestigial sideband (0% chose this)
  • Amplitude compressed AM (0% chose this)
  • 8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum (0% chose this)
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What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?
  • Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current (0% chose this)
  • The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted (0% chose this)
  • Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels (0% chose this)
  • The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed (0% chose this)
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What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?
  • The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal (0% chose this)
  • The carrier frequency that contains the signal (0% chose this)
  • Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies (0% chose this)
  • The bandwidth of the modulated signal (0% chose this)
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What is QPSK modulation?
  • Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth (0% chose this)
  • Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals (0% chose this)
  • Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity (0% chose this)
  • Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits (0% chose this)
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What is a link budget?
  • The financial costs associated with operating a radio link (0% chose this)
  • The sum of antenna gains minus system losses (0% chose this)
  • The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver (0% chose this)
  • The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity (0% chose this)
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What is link margin?
  • The opposite of fade margin (0% chose this)
  • The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver (0% chose this)
  • Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity (0% chose this)
  • Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB (0% chose this)
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Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?
  • Image frequency (0% chose this)
  • Local oscillator (0% chose this)
  • RF input (0% chose this)
  • Beat frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
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What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?
  • Quadrature response (0% chose this)
  • Image response (0% chose this)
  • Mixer interference (0% chose this)
  • Intermediate interference (0% chose this)
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What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?
  • Heterodyning (0% chose this)
  • Synthesizing (0% chose this)
  • Frequency inversion (0% chose this)
  • Phase inversion (0% chose this)
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What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?
  • Mixer (0% chose this)
  • Reactance modulator (0% chose this)
  • Balanced converter (0% chose this)
  • Multiplier (0% chose this)
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Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?
  • Second harmonics (0% chose this)
  • Even-order (0% chose this)
  • Odd-order (0% chose this)
  • Intercept point (0% chose this)
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What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?
  • 3 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 5 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 8 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 16 kHz (0% chose this)
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What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?
  • 101.75 Hz (0% chose this)
  • 416.7 Hz (0% chose this)
  • 5 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 60 kHz (0% chose this)
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Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?
  • To aid in tuning your transmitter (0% chose this)
  • Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating (0% chose this)
  • To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission (0% chose this)
  • To prevent overmodulation (0% chose this)
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Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?
  • It is required by FCC rules (0% chose this)
  • It minimizes power consumption in the receiver (0% chose this)
  • It improves impedance matching of the antenna (0% chose this)
  • It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio (0% chose this)
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What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?
  • Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related (0% chose this)
  • Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth (0% chose this)
  • Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth (0% chose this)
  • Bandwidth is half the symbol rate (0% chose this)
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What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?
  • The ratio (0% chose this)
  • The average (0% chose this)
  • The sum and difference (0% chose this)
  • The arithmetic product (0% chose this)
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What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?
  • Intermodulation (0% chose this)
  • Heterodyning (0% chose this)
  • Detection (0% chose this)
  • Rolloff (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?
  • 5F1-3F2 (0% chose this)
  • 3F1-F2 (0% chose this)
  • 2F1-F2 (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?
  • 432 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 902 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 2.4 GHz (0% chose this)
  • 10.7 GHz (0% chose this)
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Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?
  • WSPR (0% chose this)
  • MFSK16 (0% chose this)
  • PSK31 (0% chose this)
  • SSB-SC (0% chose this)
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What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?
  • Directory (0% chose this)
  • Preamble (0% chose this)
  • Header (0% chose this)
  • Trailer (0% chose this)
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Which of the following describes Baudot code?
  • A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits (0% chose this)
  • A code using error detection and correction (0% chose this)
  • A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits (0% chose this)
  • A code using SELCAL and LISTEN (0% chose this)
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In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?
  • Request retransmission of the packet (0% chose this)
  • Packet was received without error (0% chose this)
  • Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions (0% chose this)
  • Entire file received correctly (0% chose this)
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What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?
  • The checksum overflows (0% chose this)
  • The connection is dropped (0% chose this)
  • Packets will be routed incorrectly (0% chose this)
  • Encoding reverts to the default character set (0% chose this)
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Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?
  • MSK144 (0% chose this)
  • FT8 (0% chose this)
  • AMTOR (0% chose this)
  • MFSK32 (0% chose this)
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Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?
  • Upper case letters are sent with more power (0% chose this)
  • Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission (0% chose this)
  • Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception (0% chose this)
  • Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates (0% chose this)
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Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?
  • Having more nodes increases signal strengths (0% chose this)
  • If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node (0% chose this)
  • Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths (0% chose this)
  • More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference (0% chose this)
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How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?
  • By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength (0% chose this)
  • By using the Varicode character set (0% chose this)
  • By transmitting redundant information with the data (0% chose this)
  • By using a parity bit with each character (0% chose this)
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How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?
  • Dot and dash (0% chose this)
  • On and off (0% chose this)
  • High and low (0% chose this)
  • Mark and space (0% chose this)
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Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?
  • Varicode (0% chose this)
  • Viterbi (0% chose this)
  • Volumetric (0% chose this)
  • Binary (0% chose this)
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What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?
  • Long path propagation (0% chose this)
  • Backscatter propagation (0% chose this)
  • Insufficient modulation (0% chose this)
  • Overmodulation (0% chose this)
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Which of the following describes a waterfall display?
  • Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity (0% chose this)
  • Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal (0% chose this)
  • Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical (0% chose this)
  • Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity (0% chose this)
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What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?
  • The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal (0% chose this)
  • The signal is S3 (weak signals) (0% chose this)
  • The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth (0% chose this)
  • The signal is 3 dB over S9 (0% chose this)
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Which of the following provide digital voice modes?
  • WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL (0% chose this)
  • FT8, FT4, and FST4 (0% chose this)
  • Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III (0% chose this)
  • DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion (0% chose this)
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Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?
  • The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors (0% chose this)
  • The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line (0% chose this)
  • The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal (0% chose this)
  • The frequency of the signal and the length of the line (0% chose this)
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What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?
  • There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR (0% chose this)
  • High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line (0% chose this)
  • High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss (0% chose this)
  • High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss (0% chose this)
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What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?
  • 50 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 75 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 100 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 450 ohms (0% chose this)
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What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?
  • Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency (0% chose this)
  • Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle (0% chose this)
  • A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance (0% chose this)
  • Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line (0% chose this)
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How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?
  • Attenuation is independent of frequency (0% chose this)
  • Attenuation increases (0% chose this)
  • Attenuation decreases (0% chose this)
  • Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation (0% chose this)
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In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?
  • Ohms per 1,000 feet (0% chose this)
  • Decibels per 1,000 feet (0% chose this)
  • Ohms per 100 feet (0% chose this)
  • Decibels per 100 feet (0% chose this)
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What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?
  • The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential (0% chose this)
  • The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long (0% chose this)
  • The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long (0% chose this)
  • The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line (0% chose this)
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If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?
  • 1:1 (0% chose this)
  • 5:1 (0% chose this)
  • Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line (0% chose this)
  • Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter (0% chose this)
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What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?
  • 4:1 (0% chose this)
  • 1:4 (0% chose this)
  • 2:1 (0% chose this)
  • 1:2 (0% chose this)
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What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?
  • 2:1 (0% chose this)
  • 1:2 (0% chose this)
  • 1:5 (0% chose this)
  • 5:1 (0% chose this)
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What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?
  • Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line (0% chose this)
  • Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line (0% chose this)
  • Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line (0% chose this)
  • Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement (0% chose this)
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What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?
  • It must be longer than 1 wavelength (0% chose this)
  • Station equipment may carry significant RF current (0% chose this)
  • It produces only vertically polarized radiation (0% chose this)
  • It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?
  • Slope the radials upward (0% chose this)
  • Slope the radials downward (0% chose this)
  • Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength (0% chose this)
  • Coil the radials (0% chose this)
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Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?
  • Bi-directional in azimuth (0% chose this)
  • Isotropic (0% chose this)
  • Hemispherical (0% chose this)
  • Omnidirectional in azimuth (0% chose this)
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What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?
  • It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna (0% chose this)
  • It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna (0% chose this)
  • It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions) (0% chose this)
  • It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side (0% chose this)
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How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?
  • If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable (0% chose this)
  • Antenna height has no effect on the pattern (0% chose this)
  • If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional (0% chose this)
  • If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated (0% chose this)
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Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?
  • As high as possible above the ground (0% chose this)
  • Parallel to the antenna element (0% chose this)
  • On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground (0% chose this)
  • At the center of the antenna (0% chose this)
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How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?
  • It steadily increases (0% chose this)
  • It steadily decreases (0% chose this)
  • It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground (0% chose this)
  • It is unaffected by the height above ground (0% chose this)
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How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?
  • It steadily increases (0% chose this)
  • It steadily decreases (0% chose this)
  • It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end (0% chose this)
  • It is unaffected by the location of the feed point (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?
  • Lower ground losses (0% chose this)
  • Lower feed point impedance (0% chose this)
  • Shorter radials (0% chose this)
  • Lower radiation resistance (0% chose this)
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What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?
  • 8 feet (0% chose this)
  • 16 feet (0% chose this)
  • 24 feet (0% chose this)
  • 33 feet (0% chose this)
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What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?
  • 42 feet (0% chose this)
  • 84 feet (0% chose this)
  • 132 feet (0% chose this)
  • 263 feet (0% chose this)
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What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?
  • 8 feet (0% chose this)
  • 11 feet (0% chose this)
  • 16 feet (0% chose this)
  • 21 feet (0% chose this)
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Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?
  • Larger-diameter elements (0% chose this)
  • Closer element spacing (0% chose this)
  • Loading coils in series with the element (0% chose this)
  • Tapered-diameter elements (0% chose this)
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What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?
  • 1/4 wavelength (0% chose this)
  • 1/2 wavelength (0% chose this)
  • 3/4 wavelength (0% chose this)
  • 1 wavelength (0% chose this)
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How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?
  • The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter (0% chose this)
  • The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer (0% chose this)
  • They are all the same length (0% chose this)
  • Relative length depends on the frequency of operation (0% chose this)
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How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?
  • Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower (0% chose this)
  • Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher (0% chose this)
  • Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower (0% chose this)
  • Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher (0% chose this)
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What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?
  • Gain increases (0% chose this)
  • Beamwidth increases (0% chose this)
  • Front-to-back ratio decreases (0% chose this)
  • Resonant frequency is lower (0% chose this)
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What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
  • The number of directors versus the number of reflectors (0% chose this)
  • The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors (0% chose this)
  • The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction (0% chose this)
  • The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain (0% chose this)
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What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?
  • The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation (0% chose this)
  • The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element (0% chose this)
  • The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element (0% chose this)
  • The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna (0% chose this)
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In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?
  • Approximately 1.5 dB higher (0% chose this)
  • Approximately 3 dB higher (0% chose this)
  • Approximately 6 dB higher (0% chose this)
  • Approximately 9 dB higher (0% chose this)
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Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?
  • The physical length of the boom (0% chose this)
  • The number of elements on the boom (0% chose this)
  • The spacing of each element along the boom (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is a beta or hairpin match?
  • A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching (0% chose this)
  • A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching (0% chose this)
  • A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna (0% chose this)
  • A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?
  • It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom (0% chose this)
  • It does not require any inductors or capacitors (0% chose this)
  • It is useful for matching multiband antennas (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?
  • A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground (0% chose this)
  • A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground (0% chose this)
  • horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground (0% chose this)
  • A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground (0% chose this)
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What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?
  • Very low (0% chose this)
  • Approximately 50 ohms (0% chose this)
  • Approximately 300 ohms (0% chose this)
  • Very high (0% chose this)
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In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?
  • Broadside to the plane of the halo (0% chose this)
  • Opposite the feed point (0% chose this)
  • Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo (0% chose this)
  • On the same side as the feed point (0% chose this)
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What is the primary function of antenna traps?
  • To enable multiband operation (0% chose this)
  • To notch spurious frequencies (0% chose this)
  • To provide balanced feed point impedance (0% chose this)
  • To prevent out-of-band operation (0% chose this)
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What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?
  • It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization (0% chose this)
  • It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization (0% chose this)
  • It narrows the main lobe in azimuth (0% chose this)
  • It narrows the main lobe in elevation (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?
  • Wide bandwidth (0% chose this)
  • Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna (0% chose this)
  • Harmonic suppression (0% chose this)
  • Polarization diversity (0% chose this)
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Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?
  • Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom (0% chose this)
  • Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency (0% chose this)
  • Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency (0% chose this)
  • SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length (0% chose this)
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How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?
  • By varying its body capacitance (0% chose this)
  • By varying the base loading inductance (0% chose this)
  • By extending and retracting the whip (0% chose this)
  • By deploying a capacitance hat (0% chose this)
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What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?
  • Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands (0% chose this)
  • Directional transmitting for low HF bands (0% chose this)
  • Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies (0% chose this)
  • Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies (0% chose this)
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In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?
  • In the plane of the loop (0% chose this)
  • Broadside to the loop (0% chose this)
  • Broadside and in the plane of the loop (0% chose this)
  • Electrically small loops are omnidirectional (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?
  • They present low impedance on all design frequencies (0% chose this)
  • They must be used with an antenna tuner (0% chose this)
  • They must be fed with open wire line (0% chose this)
  • They have poor harmonic rejection (0% chose this)
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What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?
  • Inverted V (0% chose this)
  • Inverted L (0% chose this)
  • Sloper (0% chose this)
  • Lazy H (0% chose this)
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What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?
  • It heats body tissue (0% chose this)
  • It causes radiation poisoning (0% chose this)
  • It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level (0% chose this)
  • It cools body tissue (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?
  • Its duty cycle (0% chose this)
  • Its frequency (0% chose this)
  • Its power density (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?
  • By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65 (0% chose this)
  • By calculation based on computer modeling (0% chose this)
  • By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?
  • The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period (0% chose this)
  • The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body (0% chose this)
  • The total time of the exposure (0% chose this)
  • The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period (0% chose this)
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What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?
  • Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields (0% chose this)
  • File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC (0% chose this)
  • Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?
  • Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65 (0% chose this)
  • Contact the FCC for permission to transmit (0% chose this)
  • Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines (0% chose this)
  • Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter (0% chose this)
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What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?
  • A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted (0% chose this)
  • A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted (0% chose this)
  • Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements (0% chose this)
  • High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements (0% chose this)
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Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?
  • Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station (0% chose this)
  • Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels (0% chose this)
  • Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?
  • A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction (0% chose this)
  • A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna (0% chose this)
  • An SWR meter with a peak-reading function (0% chose this)
  • An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator (0% chose this)
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What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?
  • Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain (0% chose this)
  • Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio (0% chose this)
  • Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?
  • Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation (0% chose this)
  • Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation (0% chose this)
  • Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas (0% chose this)
  • Make sure the antenna is properly shielded (0% chose this)
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What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?
  • All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt (0% chose this)
  • Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground (0% chose this)
  • Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP (0% chose this)
  • All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt (0% chose this)
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Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?
  • Only the hot wires (0% chose this)
  • Only the neutral wire (0% chose this)
  • Only the ground wire (0% chose this)
  • All wires (0% chose this)
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According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?
  • AWG number 20 (0% chose this)
  • AWG number 16 (0% chose this)
  • AWG number 12 (0% chose this)
  • AWG number 8 (0% chose this)
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Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?
  • 30 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 25 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 20 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 15 amperes (0% chose this)
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Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?
  • As close to the station equipment as possible (0% chose this)
  • Outside the building (0% chose this)
  • Next to the closest power pole (0% chose this)
  • Parallel to the water supply line (0% chose this)
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Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?
  • Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire (0% chose this)
  • Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground (0% chose this)
  • Overvoltage on the hot wires (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?
  • Acceptable bandwidth limits (0% chose this)
  • Acceptable modulation limits (0% chose this)
  • Electrical safety of the station (0% chose this)
  • RF exposure limits of the human body (0% chose this)
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Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?
  • Always hold on to the tower with one hand (0% chose this)
  • Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life (0% chose this)
  • Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?
  • Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower (0% chose this)
  • Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged (0% chose this)
  • Unground the base of the tower (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?
  • The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area (0% chose this)
  • The generator must be insulated from ground (0% chose this)
  • Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?
  • Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder (0% chose this)
  • High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly (0% chose this)
  • Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit (0% chose this)
  • RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?
  • They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines (0% chose this)
  • Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle (0% chose this)
  • Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring (0% chose this)
  • They must be bonded together with all other grounds (0% chose this)
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What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?
  • To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty (0% chose this)
  • To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot (0% chose this)
  • To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened (0% chose this)
  • To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced (0% chose this)
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Where should lightning arrestors be located?
  • Where the feed lines enter the building (0% chose this)
  • On the antenna, opposite the feed point (0% chose this)
  • In series with each ground lead (0% chose this)
  • At the closest power pole ground electrode (0% chose this)
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