2026 Technician pool
409 / 409 questions need explanations
All explanations are written and maintained by ordinary users like you! Please help us finish the explanations in this pool.
Which of the following is part of the Basis and Purpose of the Amateur Radio Service?
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Providing personal radio communications for as many citizens as possible (0% chose this)
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Providing communications for international contesting (0% chose this)
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Advancing skills in the technical and communication phases of the radio art (0% chose this)
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All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Which agency regulates and enforces the rules for the Amateur Radio Service in the United States?
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ARRL (0% chose this)
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Homeland Security (0% chose this)
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The FCC (0% chose this)
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All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What do the FCC rules state regarding the use of a phonetic alphabet for station identification in the Amateur Radio Service?
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It is required when transmitting emergency messages (0% chose this)
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It is encouraged when using phone emissions (0% chose this)
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It is required when in contact with foreign stations (0% chose this)
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All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
How do you receive official notification of your new license and call sign after passing the exam?
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Email from the FCC with a link to download the license grant (0% chose this)
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USPS First-Class Mail from the FCC (0% chose this)
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Email from the lead volunteer examiner (0% chose this)
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USPS First-Class Mail from the lead volunteer examiner (0% chose this)
What proves that the FCC has issued an operator/primary license grant?
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A printed copy of the certificate of successful completion of examination (0% chose this)
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An email notification from the NCVEC granting the license (0% chose this)
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The license appears in the FCC ULS database (0% chose this)
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All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
On which of the following HF frequencies can automatically controlled amateur propagation beacons be found?
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Anywhere in the Technician portion of 10 meters (0% chose this)
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Anywhere, if they are registered with the FCC (0% chose this)
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In a specific portion of each of the HF Technician bands (0% chose this)
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On ten meters, between 28.200 MHz and 28.300 MHz (0% chose this)
What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a space station?
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Any satellite orbiting Earth (0% chose this)
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A manned satellite orbiting Earth (0% chose this)
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An amateur station located more than 50 km above Earth's surface (0% chose this)
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An amateur station using amateur radio satellites for relay of signals (0% chose this)
Who recommends transmit/receive channels for repeater and auxiliary stations?
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A Frequency Spectrum Manager appointed by the FCC (0% chose this)
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A Volunteer Frequency Coordinator recognized by local amateurs (0% chose this)
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An FCC Regional Field Office (0% chose this)
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The International Telecommunication Union (0% chose this)
Who selects a Frequency Coordinator?
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The FCC Office of Spectrum Management and Coordination Policy (0% chose this)
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The local chapter of the Office of National Council of Independent Frequency Coordinators (0% chose this)
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Amateur operators in a local or regional area whose stations are eligible to be repeater or auxiliary stations (0% chose this)
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The FCC Regional Field Office (0% chose this)
Besides an FCC-issued amateur operator license, what is required to be the control operator of a Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES) Station?
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A written recommendation by the local ARRL Emergency Coordinator (0% chose this)
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Membership in the Amateur Radio Emergency Service (ARES) (0% chose this)
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Certification of current enrollment by a civil defense organization (0% chose this)
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Nothing (0% chose this)
Which of the following is prohibited?
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International communications on VHF bands and higher frequencies (0% chose this)
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Willful or malicious interference (0% chose this)
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Third-party traffic using digital modes (0% chose this)
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All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Which of the following frequency ranges are available for phone operation by Technician licensees?
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28.050 MHz to 28.150 MHz (0% chose this)
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28.100 MHz to 28.300 MHz (0% chose this)
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28.300 MHz to 28.500 MHz (0% chose this)
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28.500 MHz to 28.600 MHz (0% chose this)
Which of the following U.S. amateur radio operators are allowed to contact the International Space Station (ISS) on VHF bands?
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Only amateurs with a General class or higher license (0% chose this)
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Any amateur with a Technician class or higher license (0% chose this)
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Only amateurs with a General class or higher license, and NASA approval (0% chose this)
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Any amateurs with a Technician class or higher license, and NASA approval (0% chose this)
Which frequency is in the 6-meter amateur band?
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49.00 MHz (0% chose this)
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52.525 MHz (0% chose this)
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28.50 MHz (0% chose this)
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222.15 MHz (0% chose this)
Which amateur band includes 146.52 MHz?
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6 meters (0% chose this)
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20 meters (0% chose this)
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70 centimeters (0% chose this)
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2 meters (0% chose this)
Which of the following bands include frequencies where Technicians are authorized to use digital modes such as FT8?
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10 meters (0% chose this)
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6 meters (0% chose this)
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2 meters (0% chose this)
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All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
On which HF bands does a Technician class operator have phone privileges?
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None (0% chose this)
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10-meter band only (0% chose this)
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80-meter, 40-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter bands (0% chose this)
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30-meter band only (0% chose this)
Which of the following VHF/UHF band segments are limited to CW only?
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50.0 MHz to 50.1 MHz and 144.0 MHz to 144.1 MHz (0% chose this)
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219 MHz to 220 MHz and 420.0 MHz to 420.1 MHz (0% chose this)
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902.0 MHz to 902.1 MHz (0% chose this)
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All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
How are US amateurs restricted in segments of bands where the Amateur Radio Service is secondary?
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U.S. amateurs may find non-amateur stations in those segments, and must avoid interfering with them (0% chose this)
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U.S. amateurs must give foreign amateur stations priority in those segments (0% chose this)
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International communications are not permitted in those segments (0% chose this)
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Digital transmissions are not permitted in those segments (0% chose this)
Why should you not set your transmit frequency to be exactly at the edge of an amateur band or sub-band?
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To allow for calibration error in the transmitter frequency display (0% chose this)
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So that modulation sidebands do not extend beyond the band edge (0% chose this)
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To allow for transmitter frequency drift (0% chose this)
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All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Where may SSB phone be used in amateur bands above 50 MHz?
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Only in sub-bands allocated to General class or higher licensees (0% chose this)
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Only on repeaters (0% chose this)
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In at least some segment of all these bands (0% chose this)
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On any band if the power is limited to 25 watts (0% chose this)
What is the maximum peak envelope power output for Technician class operators in their HF band segments?
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200 watts (0% chose this)
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100 watts (0% chose this)
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50 watts (0% chose this)
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10 watts (0% chose this)
Except for some specific restrictions, what is the maximum peak envelope power output for Technician class operators using frequencies above 30 MHz?
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50 watts (0% chose this)
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100 watts (0% chose this)
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500 watts (0% chose this)
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1500 watts (0% chose this)
Which amateur license classes are currently issued by the FCC?
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Novice, Technician, General, Amateur Extra (0% chose this)
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Technician, Technician Plus, General, Amateur Extra (0% chose this)
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Novice, Technician Plus, General, Advanced (0% chose this)
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Technician, General, Amateur Extra (0% chose this)
Who may select a desired call sign under the vanity call sign rules?
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Only a licensed amateur with a General or Amateur Extra Class license (0% chose this)
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Only a licensed amateur with an Amateur Extra Class license (0% chose this)
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Only a licensed amateur who has been licensed continuously for more than 10 years (0% chose this)
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Any licensed amateur (0% chose this)
What types of international communications are FCC-licensed amateur radio stations permitted to make?
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Communications incidental to the purposes of the Amateur Radio Service and remarks of a personal character (0% chose this)
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Communications incidental to conducting business or remarks of a personal nature (0% chose this)
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Only communications incidental to contest exchanges; all other communications are prohibited (0% chose this)
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Any communications that would be permitted by an international broadcast station (0% chose this)
What may happen if the FCC is unable to reach you by email?
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Fine and suspension of operator license (0% chose this)
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Revocation of the station license or suspension of the operator license (0% chose this)
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Revocation of access to the license record in the FCC system (0% chose this)
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Nothing; there is no such requirement (0% chose this)
Which of the following is a valid Group D call sign format for Technician class?
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KF1XXX (0% chose this)
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KA1X (0% chose this)
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W1XX (0% chose this)
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All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Which of the following statements is true about using your amateur radio license when operating aboard a vessel or craft in international waters?
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Amateur operation is prohibited in international waters (0% chose this)
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You may only operate during maritime emergencies (0% chose this)
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You need special FCC authorization for maritime mobile operation (0% chose this)
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You may operate from a US-documented vessel with the master's permission (0% chose this)
How long before the expiration date may an amateur radio license renewal be requested?
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30 days (0% chose this)
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90 days (0% chose this)
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6 months (0% chose this)
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1 year (0% chose this)
What is the normal term for an FCC-issued amateur radio license?
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Five years (0% chose this)
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Eight years (0% chose this)
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Ten years (0% chose this)
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Life (0% chose this)
What is the grace period for renewal if an amateur license expires?
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Two years (0% chose this)
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Three years (0% chose this)
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Five years (0% chose this)
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Ten years (0% chose this)
How soon after passing the examination for your first amateur radio license may you transmit on the amateur radio bands?
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Immediately on receiving your Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) (0% chose this)
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As soon as your operator/station license grant appears on the ARRL website (0% chose this)
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As soon as your operator/station license grant appears in the FCC’s license database (0% chose this)
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As soon as you receive your license in the mail from the FCC (0% chose this)
If your license has expired and is still within the allowable grace period, may you continue to transmit on the amateur radio bands?
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Yes, for up to two years (0% chose this)
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Yes, as soon as you apply for renewal (0% chose this)
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Yes, for up to one year (0% chose this)
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No, you must wait until the license has been renewed (0% chose this)
With which countries are FCC-licensed amateur radio stations prohibited from exchanging communications?
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Any country whose administration has notified the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) that it objects to such communications (0% chose this)
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Any country whose administration has notified the American Radio Relay League (ARRL) that it objects to such communications (0% chose this)
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Any country banned from such communications by the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU) (0% chose this)
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Any country banned from making such communications by the American Radio Relay League (ARRL) (0% chose this)
Under which of the following circumstances are one-way transmissions by an amateur station prohibited?
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Announcements of upcoming ham radio operating events (0% chose this)
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Broadcasting (0% chose this)
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International Morse Code Practice (0% chose this)
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Telecommand or transmissions of telemetry (0% chose this)
When is it permissible to transmit messages encoded to obscure their meaning?
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Only when using a remote station during a contest (0% chose this)
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Only when transmitting certain approved digital codes (0% chose this)
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Only when transmitting control commands to space stations or model craft (0% chose this)
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Never (0% chose this)
Under what conditions is an amateur station authorized to transmit music using a phone emission?
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When incidental to an authorized retransmission of manned spacecraft communications (0% chose this)
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When the music produces no spurious emissions (0% chose this)
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When transmissions are limited to less than three minutes per hour (0% chose this)
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When the music is transmitted above 1280 MHz (0% chose this)
When may amateur radio operators use their stations to notify other amateurs of the availability of equipment for sale or trade?
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Never (0% chose this)
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When the equipment is not the personal property of either the station licensee, or the control operator, or their close relatives (0% chose this)
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When no profit is made on the sale (0% chose this)
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When selling amateur radio equipment and not on a regular basis (0% chose this)
What, if any, are the restrictions concerning transmission of language that may be considered indecent or obscene?
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The FCC maintains a list of words that are not permitted to be used on amateur frequencies (0% chose this)
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Any such language is prohibited (0% chose this)
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The International Telecommunications Union (ITU) maintains a list of words that are not permitted to be used on amateur frequencies (0% chose this)
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There is no such prohibition (0% chose this)
Which of the following is an example of an auxiliary station?
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A station sending one-way transmissions between a remote repeater receiver and the main repeater transmitter (0% chose this)
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A backup radio for emergency use in case the main station radio fails (0% chose this)
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A station used in the Military Auxiliary Radio System for linking government and amateur stations in a digital network (0% chose this)
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A second station utilized in multi-operator contest stations (0% chose this)
In which of the following circumstances may the control operator of an amateur station receive compensation for operating that station?
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When the communication is related to the sale of amateur equipment by the control operator's employer (0% chose this)
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When the communication is a part of classroom instruction at an educational institution (0% chose this)
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When the communication is made to obtain emergency information for a local broadcast station (0% chose this)
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All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
When may amateur stations transmit information in support of broadcasting, program production, or news gathering, assuming no other means is available?
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When such communications are directly related to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property (0% chose this)
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When broadcasting communications to or from the space shuttle (0% chose this)
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Where non-commercial programming is gathered and supplied exclusively to the National Public Radio network (0% chose this)
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Never (0% chose this)
How does the FCC define broadcasting for the Amateur Radio Service?
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Two-way transmissions by amateur stations (0% chose this)
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Any transmission made by the licensed station (0% chose this)
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Transmission of messages directed only to amateur operators (0% chose this)
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Transmissions intended for reception by the general public (0% chose this)
When may an amateur station transmit without identifying on the air?
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When the transmissions are of a brief nature to make station adjustments (0% chose this)
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When the transmissions are unmodulated (0% chose this)
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When the transmitted power level is below 0.1 watt (0% chose this)
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When transmitting signals to control model craft (0% chose this)
Which of the following is required when making on-the-air test transmissions?
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Identify the transmitting station (0% chose this)
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Conduct tests only between 10 p.m. and 6 a.m. local time (0% chose this)
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Notify the FCC of the transmissions (0% chose this)
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All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
When may an amateur station transmit without a control operator?
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When using automatic control, such as in the case of a repeater (0% chose this)
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When the station licensee is away and another licensed amateur is using the station (0% chose this)
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When the transmitting station is an auxiliary station (0% chose this)
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Never (0% chose this)
Who may be the control operator of a station communicating through an amateur satellite or space station?
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Only an Amateur Extra Class operator (0% chose this)
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A General class or higher licensee with a satellite operator certification (0% chose this)
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Only an Amateur Extra Class operator who is also an AMSAT member (0% chose this)
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Any amateur allowed to transmit on the satellite uplink frequency (0% chose this)
Who must designate the station control operator?
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The station licensee (0% chose this)
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The FCC (0% chose this)
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The frequency coordinator (0% chose this)
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Any licensed operator (0% chose this)
What determines the transmitting frequency privileges of an amateur station?
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The frequency authorized by the frequency coordinator (0% chose this)
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The frequencies printed on the license grant (0% chose this)
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The highest class of operator license held by anyone on the premises (0% chose this)
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The class of operator license held by the control operator (0% chose this)
What is an amateur station’s control point?
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The location of the station’s transmitting antenna (0% chose this)
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The location of the station’s transmitting apparatus (0% chose this)
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The location at which the control operator function is performed (0% chose this)
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The mailing address of the station licensee (0% chose this)
When, other than during an emergency, may a Technician class licensee be the control operator of a station operating in an Amateur Extra Class band segment?
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At no time (0% chose this)
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When designated as the control operator by an Amateur Extra Class licensee (0% chose this)
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As part of a multi-operator contest team (0% chose this)
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When using a club station whose trustee holds an Amateur Extra Class license (0% chose this)
When the control operator is not the station licensee, who is responsible for the proper operation of the station?
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All licensed amateurs who are present at the operation (0% chose this)
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Only the station licensee (0% chose this)
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Only the control operator (0% chose this)
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The control operator and the station licensee (0% chose this)
Which of the following is an example of automatic control?
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Repeater operation (0% chose this)
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Controlling a station over the internet (0% chose this)
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Using a computer or other device to send CW automatically (0% chose this)
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Using a computer or other device to identify automatically (0% chose this)
Which amateur stations may be remotely controlled?
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Only repeater stations (0% chose this)
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Only automatically controlled stations (0% chose this)
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Only digital stations (0% chose this)
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Any station (0% chose this)
Which of the following is an example of remote control as defined in Part 97?
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A software defined radio (SDR) (0% chose this)
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Operating the station over the internet (0% chose this)
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Controlling a model aircraft, boat, or car by amateur radio (0% chose this)
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Earth-Moon-Earth (EME) communication (0% chose this)
What is a control operator as defined in Part 97?
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The person speaking or otherwise communicating messages over an amateur station (0% chose this)
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The person who is the licensee of an amateur station (0% chose this)
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An amateur operator identified in the FCC database as responsible for transmissions and FCC rules compliance at a station license location (0% chose this)
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An amateur operator designated by the licensee of a station to be responsible for transmissions and FCC rules compliance at that station (0% chose this)
When must the station licensee make the station and the station records available for inspection?
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At any time ten days after notification by the FCC of such an inspection (0% chose this)
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At any time upon request by an FCC representative (0% chose this)
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At any time after a written notification by the FCC of such inspection (0% chose this)
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Only when presented with a valid warrant by an FCC official or government agent (0% chose this)
How often must you identify with your FCC-assigned call sign when using tactical call signs such as “Race Headquarters”?
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Never, the tactical call is sufficient (0% chose this)
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Once every hour (0% chose this)
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At least every 10 minutes during and at the end of a communication (0% chose this)
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At the end of every transmission (0% chose this)
When are you required to transmit your assigned call sign?
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At the beginning of each contact, and every 10 minutes thereafter (0% chose this)
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At least once during each transmission (0% chose this)
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At least every 15 minutes during and at the end of a communication (0% chose this)
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At least every 10 minutes during and at the end of a communication (0% chose this)
What language must you use for identification when using a phone emission?
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Any language recognized by the United Nations (0% chose this)
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Any language recognized by the ITU (0% chose this)
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English (0% chose this)
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English, French, or Spanish (0% chose this)
What method of call sign identification is required for a station transmitting phone signals?
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Send the call sign followed by the indicator RPT (0% chose this)
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Send the call sign using a CW or phone emission (0% chose this)
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Send the call sign followed by the indicator R (0% chose this)
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Send the call sign using only a phone emission (0% chose this)
Which of the following self-assigned indicators are acceptable when using a phone transmission?
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KL7CC stroke W3 (0% chose this)
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KL7CC slant W3 (0% chose this)
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KL7CC slash W3 (0% chose this)
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All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Which of the following restrictions apply when a non-licensed person speaks to a foreign amateur radio station via a station under the control of an FCC-licensed amateur radio operator?
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The person must be a U.S. citizen (0% chose this)
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The foreign station must be in a country with which the U.S. has a third-party agreement (0% chose this)
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The licensed control operator must do the station identification (0% chose this)
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All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What is the definition of third-party communications?
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A message from a control operator to another amateur station control operator on behalf of another person (0% chose this)
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Amateur radio communications where three stations are in communications with one another (0% chose this)
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Operation when the transmitting equipment is licensed to a person other than the control operator (0% chose this)
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Temporary authorization for an unlicensed person to transmit on the amateur bands for technical experiments (0% chose this)
What type of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signal of another amateur station on a different channel or channels?
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Beacon station (0% chose this)
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Remote control station (0% chose this)
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Repeater station (0% chose this)
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Message forwarding station (0% chose this)
Who is accountable if a repeater inadvertently retransmits communications that violate the FCC rules?
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The control operator of the originating station (0% chose this)
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The control operator of the repeater (0% chose this)
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The owner of the repeater (0% chose this)
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Both the originating station and the repeater owner (0% chose this)
Which of the following is a requirement for the issuance of a club station license grant?
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The trustee must have an Amateur Extra Class operator license grant (0% chose this)
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The club must have at least four members (0% chose this)
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The club must be registered with the American Radio Relay League (ARRL) (0% chose this)
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All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What is a common repeater frequency offset in the 2-meter band?
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Plus or minus 5 MHz (0% chose this)
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Plus or minus 600 kHz (0% chose this)
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Plus or minus 500 kHz (0% chose this)
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Plus or minus 1 MHz (0% chose this)
What is the national calling frequency for FM simplex operations in the 2-meter band?
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146.520 MHz (0% chose this)
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145.000 MHz (0% chose this)
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432.100 MHz (0% chose this)
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446.000 MHz (0% chose this)
What is a common repeater frequency offset in the 70-centimeter band?
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Plus or minus 5 MHz (0% chose this)
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Plus or minus 600 kHz (0% chose this)
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Plus or minus 500 kHz (0% chose this)
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Plus or minus 1 MHz (0% chose this)
What is an appropriate way to call another station on a repeater if you know the other station's call sign?
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Say "break, break," then the other station’s call sign, followed by your call sign (0% chose this)
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Say the station's call sign, then identify with your call sign (0% chose this)
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Say "CQ" three times, then the other station's call sign, followed by your call sign (0% chose this)
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Wait for the station to call CQ, then answer with your call sign (0% chose this)
How should you respond to a station calling CQ?
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Transmit "CQ" followed by the other station’s call sign (0% chose this)
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Transmit your call sign followed by the other station’s call sign (0% chose this)
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Transmit the other station’s call sign followed by your call sign (0% chose this)
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Transmit a signal report followed by your call sign (0% chose this)
What is an effective way to seek a call from any phone station when not using a repeater?
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Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call;” if there is no answer, change the frequency and repeat (0% chose this)
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Say “QTC,” followed by “this is” and your call sign; if there is no answer, change the frequency and repeat (0% chose this)
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Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen; repeat as necessary (0% chose this)
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Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” and your call sign, then pause to listen; repeat as necessary (0% chose this)
What does the term "repeater offset" mean?
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The difference between a repeater’s transmit and receive frequencies (0% chose this)
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The repeater has a time delay to prevent interference (0% chose this)
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The approximately half-second delay to allow for the “squelch tail” to be removed (0% chose this)
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The fee charged by the repeater owner or club to provide for maintenance (0% chose this)
What is the meaning of the procedural signal “CQ”?
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A shortened form of the term “Contest QSO” (0% chose this)
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“Communication Quality,” used to indicate transmitted audio clarity (0% chose this)
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Only the called station should transmit (0% chose this)
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Calling any station (0% chose this)
Which of the following is a customary way to indicate a station is listening on a repeater and looking for a contact?
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“CQ CQ” followed by the repeater’s call sign (0% chose this)
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The station’s call sign followed by the word “listening” (0% chose this)
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The repeater’s call sign followed by the station’s call sign (0% chose this)
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“QSY” followed by your call sign (0% chose this)
What is a band plan, beyond the privileges established by the FCC?
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A voluntary guideline for using different modes or activities within an amateur band (0% chose this)
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A list of operating schedules (0% chose this)
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A list of available net frequencies (0% chose this)
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A plan devised by a club to indicate frequency band usage (0% chose this)
What term describes an amateur station that is transmitting and receiving on the same frequency?
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Full duplex (0% chose this)
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Diplex (0% chose this)
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Simplex (0% chose this)
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Multiplex (0% chose this)
What is the purpose of the reverse function on a VHF/UHF transceiver?
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To reduce power output (0% chose this)
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To increase power output (0% chose this)
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To listen on a repeater’s input frequency (0% chose this)
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To listen on a repeater’s output frequency (0% chose this)
What term describes the use of a sub-audible tone transmitted along with normal voice audio to open the squelch of a receiver?
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Carrier squelch (0% chose this)
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Tone burst (0% chose this)
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DTMF (0% chose this)
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CTCSS (0% chose this)
Which of the following describes a linked repeater network?
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A network of repeaters in which signals received by one repeater are transmitted by all the repeaters in the network (0% chose this)
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A single repeater with more than one receiver (0% chose this)
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Multiple repeaters with the same control operator (0% chose this)
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A system of repeaters linked by APRS (0% chose this)
Which of the following could be the reason you are unable to access a repeater whose output you can hear?
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Improper transceiver offset (0% chose this)
-
You are using the wrong CTCSS tone (0% chose this)
-
You are using the wrong DCS code (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Which of the following would cause your FM transmission audio to drop out on voice peaks?
-
Your repeater offset is inverted (0% chose this)
-
Your FM deviation is too low (0% chose this)
-
You are talking too loudly (0% chose this)
-
Your transmit power is too high (0% chose this)
What type of signaling to a repeater uses two simultaneous audio tones?
-
DTMF (0% chose this)
-
CTCSS (0% chose this)
-
GMRS (0% chose this)
-
D-STAR (0% chose this)
How can you join a digital repeater’s “talkgroup”?
-
Register with the local Frequency Coordinator (0% chose this)
-
Register with the digital repeater control operator (0% chose this)
-
Program your radio with the group’s ID or code (0% chose this)
-
Program your radio with the DTMF tone used by the talkgroup (0% chose this)
Which of the following applies when two stations transmitting on the same frequency interfere with each other?
-
The stations should negotiate continued use of the frequency (0% chose this)
-
Both stations should choose another frequency to avoid conflict (0% chose this)
-
Whichever station was on the frequency first has preemptive rights to the frequency (0% chose this)
-
Use subaudible tones so both stations can share the frequency (0% chose this)
Why are simplex channels designated in the VHF/UHF band plans?
-
So stations within range of each other can communicate without tying up a repeater (0% chose this)
-
For contest operation (0% chose this)
-
For working DX only (0% chose this)
-
So stations with simple transmitters can access the repeater without automated offset (0% chose this)
Which Q signal indicates that you are receiving interference from other stations?
-
QRM (0% chose this)
-
QRN (0% chose this)
-
QTH (0% chose this)
-
QSB (0% chose this)
Which Q signal indicates that you are changing frequency?
-
QRU (0% chose this)
-
QSY (0% chose this)
-
QSL (0% chose this)
-
QRZ (0% chose this)
What is the digital color code used on DMR repeater systems?
-
An access code which must be programmed into a DMR transmitter to access a specific repeater (0% chose this)
-
A code which automatically programs the repeater offset to a frequency chosen by the user (0% chose this)
-
A code which identifies the specific CODEC being used so that the repeater can properly decode the audio (0% chose this)
-
A code transmitted by the repeater to indicate health and status of the equipment (0% chose this)
What is the purpose of a squelch function?
-
Reduce a CW transmitter's key clicks (0% chose this)
-
Mute the receiver audio when a signal is not present (0% chose this)
-
Eliminate parasitic oscillations in an RF amplifier (0% chose this)
-
Reduce interference from impulse noise (0% chose this)
Which of the following is a “talkgroup”?
-
A group of amateur radio operators who share email on a specific amateur radio topic (0% chose this)
-
An identifier used by DMR to organize radio traffic so that those who want to hear the group aren’t bothered by other radio traffic (0% chose this)
-
The members of a net organized for amateur radio operators with a specific common interest (0% chose this)
-
A method of automatically alerting all group members to the frequency where any member is transmitting (0% chose this)
When do the FCC Part 97 Amateur Radio Service rules NOT apply to the operation of an amateur station?
-
When operating under RACES rules (0% chose this)
-
When operating under FEMA rules (0% chose this)
-
When operating under ARES rules (0% chose this)
-
FCC rules always apply (0% chose this)
Which of the following are typical duties of a Net Control Station?
-
Choose the regular net meeting time and frequency (0% chose this)
-
Ensure that all stations checking into the net are properly licensed for operation on the net frequency (0% chose this)
-
Call the net to order and direct communications between stations checking in (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What technique is used to ensure that voice messages containing unusual words are received correctly?
-
Send the words by voice and Morse code (0% chose this)
-
Use the Q-code “QSR” to ask the receiving station to repeat the words back (0% chose this)
-
Spell the words using a standard phonetic alphabet (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What is RACES?
-
An emergency organization combining amateur radio and citizens band operators and frequencies (0% chose this)
-
An international radio experimentation society (0% chose this)
-
A radio contest held in a short period, sometimes called a “sprint” (0% chose this)
-
An FCC Part 97 amateur radio service for civil defense communications during national emergencies (0% chose this)
What does the term “traffic” refer to in net operation?
-
Formal messages exchanged by net stations (0% chose this)
-
The number of stations checking in and out of a net (0% chose this)
-
Operation by mobile or portable stations (0% chose this)
-
A count of the number of activations of the net each month (0% chose this)
What is the Amateur Radio Emergency Service (ARES)?
-
A group of licensed amateurs who have voluntarily registered their qualifications and equipment for communications duty in the public service (0% chose this)
-
A group of licensed amateurs who are members of the military and who voluntarily agreed to provide message handling services in the case of an emergency (0% chose this)
-
A training program that provides licensing courses for those interested in obtaining an amateur license to use during emergencies (0% chose this)
-
A training program that certifies amateur operators for membership in the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (0% chose this)
Which of the following is standard practice when you participate in a net?
-
When first responding to the net control station, transmit your call sign, name, and address as in the FCC database (0% chose this)
-
Record the time of each of your transmissions (0% chose this)
-
Unless you are reporting an emergency, transmit only when directed by the net control station (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Which of the following relays messages using email addresses based on amateur callsigns?
-
Winlink (0% chose this)
-
FT8 (0% chose this)
-
PSK31 (0% chose this)
-
AMTOR (0% chose this)
Are amateur station control operators ever permitted to operate outside the frequency privileges of their license class?
-
No (0% chose this)
-
Yes, but only when part of a FEMA emergency plan (0% chose this)
-
Yes, but only when part of a RACES emergency plan (0% chose this)
-
Yes, but only in situations involving the immediate safety of human life or protection of property (0% chose this)
What information is contained in the preamble of a formal traffic message?
-
The email address of the originating station (0% chose this)
-
The address of the intended recipient (0% chose this)
-
The telephone number of the addressee (0% chose this)
-
Information needed to track the message (0% chose this)
What is meant by “check” in a radiogram header?
-
The number of words or word equivalents in the text portion of the message (0% chose this)
-
The call sign of the originating station (0% chose this)
-
A list of stations that have relayed the message (0% chose this)
-
A box on the message form that indicates that the message was received and/or relayed (0% chose this)
Which of the following requires certification by a civil defense agency?
-
ARES (0% chose this)
-
RACES (0% chose this)
-
MARS (0% chose this)
-
SKYWARN (0% chose this)
Why do VHF signal strengths sometimes vary greatly when the antenna is moved only a few feet?
-
The signal path encounters different concentrations of water vapor (0% chose this)
-
VHF ionospheric propagation is very sensitive to path length (0% chose this)
-
Multipath propagation cancels or reinforces signals (0% chose this)
-
The Doppler effect causes slight frequency shifts which result in changes in signal strength (0% chose this)
How does vegetation affect UHF and microwave signals?
-
Causes knife-edge diffraction, distorting voice peaks (0% chose this)
-
Absorbs signals, leading to poor reception of weak signals (0% chose this)
-
Amplifies signals, improving reception of weak signals (0% chose this)
-
Has no effect (0% chose this)
What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance CW and SSB contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?
-
Right-hand circular (0% chose this)
-
Left-hand circular (0% chose this)
-
Horizontal (0% chose this)
-
Vertical (0% chose this)
What is the effect of antenna cross-polarization over a line-of-sight VHF or UHF path?
-
Modulation sidebands might become inverted (0% chose this)
-
Received signal strength is reduced (0% chose this)
-
Signals have an echo effect (0% chose this)
-
Nothing significant will happen (0% chose this)
When using a directional antenna, how might your station be able to communicate with a distant repeater if buildings or obstructions are blocking the direct line of sight path?
-
Change from vertical to horizontal polarization (0% chose this)
-
Try to find a path that reflects signals to the repeater (0% chose this)
-
Try the long path (0% chose this)
-
Increase the antenna SWR (0% chose this)
What is the meaning of the term “picket fencing”?
-
Alternating transmissions during a net operation (0% chose this)
-
Rapid flutter on mobile signals due to multipath propagation (0% chose this)
-
A type of ground system used with vertical antennas (0% chose this)
-
Interference from cable TV in the form of carriers at fixed intervals across the band (0% chose this)
What weather condition might decrease range at microwave frequencies?
-
High winds (0% chose this)
-
Low barometric pressure (0% chose this)
-
Precipitation (0% chose this)
-
Colder temperatures (0% chose this)
What is a likely cause of irregular fading of signals propagated by the ionosphere?
-
Frequency shift due to Faraday rotation (0% chose this)
-
Interference from thunderstorms (0% chose this)
-
Intermodulation distortion (0% chose this)
-
Random combining of signals arriving via different paths (0% chose this)
Which of the following results from the fact that signals propagated by the ionosphere are elliptically polarized?
-
Digital modes are unusable (0% chose this)
-
Either vertically or horizontally polarized antennas may be used for transmission or reception (0% chose this)
-
FM voice is unusable (0% chose this)
-
Both the transmitting and receiving antennas must be of the same polarization (0% chose this)
What effect does multi-path propagation have on data transmissions?
-
Transmission rates must be increased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed (0% chose this)
-
Transmission rates must be decreased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed (0% chose this)
-
No significant changes will occur if the signals are transmitted using FM (0% chose this)
-
Error rates are likely to increase (0% chose this)
Which region of the atmosphere can reflect HF radio waves?
-
The stratosphere (0% chose this)
-
The troposphere (0% chose this)
-
The ionosphere (0% chose this)
-
The electrosphere (0% chose this)
What effect does fog or rain have on 10-meter and 6-meter band signals?
-
Absorption (0% chose this)
-
Little effect (0% chose this)
-
Deflection (0% chose this)
-
Increased range (0% chose this)
What is the relationship between the electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave?
-
They travel at different speeds (0% chose this)
-
They are in parallel (0% chose this)
-
They revolve in opposite directions (0% chose this)
-
They are at right angles (0% chose this)
What property of a radio wave defines its polarization?
-
The orientation of the electric field (0% chose this)
-
The orientation of the magnetic field (0% chose this)
-
The ratio of the energy in the magnetic field to the energy in the electric field (0% chose this)
-
The ratio of the velocity to the wavelength (0% chose this)
What are the two components of a radio wave?
-
Impedance and reactance (0% chose this)
-
Voltage and current (0% chose this)
-
Electric and magnetic fields (0% chose this)
-
Ionizing and non-ionizing radiation (0% chose this)
What is the velocity of a radio wave traveling through free space?
-
Speed of light (0% chose this)
-
Speed of sound (0% chose this)
-
0.86 times the speed of light (0% chose this)
-
1.86 times the speed of sound (0% chose this)
What is the relationship between wavelength and frequency?
-
Wavelength gets longer as frequency increases (0% chose this)
-
Wavelength gets shorter as frequency increases (0% chose this)
-
Wavelength is constant at all frequencies (0% chose this)
-
Wavelength and frequency increase as path length increases (0% chose this)
What is the formula for converting frequency to approximate wavelength in meters?
-
Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz multiplied by 300 (0% chose this)
-
Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz divided by 300 (0% chose this)
-
Wavelength in meters equals frequency in megahertz divided by 300 (0% chose this)
-
Wavelength in meters equals 300 divided by frequency in megahertz (0% chose this)
In addition to frequency, which of the following is used to identify amateur radio bands?
-
The approximate wavelength in meters (0% chose this)
-
Traditional letter/number designators (0% chose this)
-
Channel numbers (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What frequency range is referred to as VHF?
-
30 kHz to 300 kHz (0% chose this)
-
30 MHz to 300 MHz (0% chose this)
-
300 kHz to 3000 kHz (0% chose this)
-
300 MHz to 3000 MHz (0% chose this)
What frequency range is referred to as UHF?
-
30 to 300 kHz (0% chose this)
-
30 to 300 MHz (0% chose this)
-
300 to 3000 kHz (0% chose this)
-
300 to 3000 MHz (0% chose this)
What frequency range is referred to as HF?
-
300 to 3000 MHz (0% chose this)
-
30 to 300 MHz (0% chose this)
-
3 to 30 MHz (0% chose this)
-
300 to 3000 kHz (0% chose this)
What is the approximate velocity of a radio wave in free space?
-
150,000,000 meters per second (0% chose this)
-
300,000,000 meters per second (0% chose this)
-
300,000,000 miles per hour (0% chose this)
-
150,000,000 miles per hour (0% chose this)
Which of these frequencies travels at the highest velocity in free space?
-
Microwaves (0% chose this)
-
UHF (0% chose this)
-
VHF (0% chose this)
-
All radio frequencies travel at the same velocity (0% chose this)
Why are simplex UHF signals rarely heard beyond their radio horizon?
-
They are too weak to go very far (0% chose this)
-
FCC regulations prohibit them from going more than 50 miles (0% chose this)
-
UHF signals are usually not propagated by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
-
UHF signals are absorbed by the ionospheric D region (0% chose this)
What is a characteristic of HF communication compared with communications on VHF and higher frequencies?
-
HF antennas are generally smaller (0% chose this)
-
HF accommodates wider bandwidth signals (0% chose this)
-
Long-distance ionospheric propagation is far more common on HF (0% chose this)
-
There is less atmospheric interference (static) on HF (0% chose this)
What is one characteristic of VHF signals received via auroral backscatter?
-
They are often received from 10,000 miles or more (0% chose this)
-
They are distorted, with a characteristic raspy sound (0% chose this)
-
They occur only during winter nighttime hours (0% chose this)
-
They are generally strongest when your antenna is aimed west (0% chose this)
Which of the following types of propagation is most commonly associated with occasional strong signals on the 10-, 6-, and 2-meter bands from beyond the radio horizon?
-
Backscatter (0% chose this)
-
Sporadic E (0% chose this)
-
D region absorption (0% chose this)
-
Gray-line propagation (0% chose this)
Which of the following effects may allow radio signals to travel beyond obstructions between the transmitting and receiving stations?
-
Knife-edge diffraction (0% chose this)
-
Faraday rotation (0% chose this)
-
Quantum tunneling (0% chose this)
-
Doppler shift (0% chose this)
What type of propagation is responsible for allowing over-the-horizon VHF and UHF communications to ranges of approximately 300 miles on a regular basis?
-
Tropospheric ducting (0% chose this)
-
D region refraction (0% chose this)
-
F2 region refraction (0% chose this)
-
Faraday rotation (0% chose this)
What band is best suited for communicating via meteor scatter?
-
33 centimeters (0% chose this)
-
6 meters (0% chose this)
-
2 meters (0% chose this)
-
70 centimeters (0% chose this)
What causes tropospheric ducting?
-
Discharges of lightning during electrical storms (0% chose this)
-
Sunspots and solar flares (0% chose this)
-
Updrafts from hurricanes and tornadoes (0% chose this)
-
Temperature inversions in the atmosphere (0% chose this)
What is generally the best time for long-distance 10-meter band propagation via the F region?
-
From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of high sunspot activity (0% chose this)
-
From shortly after sunset to dawn during periods of high sunspot activity (0% chose this)
-
From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of low sunspot activity (0% chose this)
-
From shortly after sunset to dawn during periods of low sunspot activity (0% chose this)
Which of the following bands may provide long-distance communications via the ionosphere’s F region during the peak of the sunspot cycle?
-
6 and 10 meters (0% chose this)
-
23 centimeters (0% chose this)
-
70 centimeters and 1.25 meters (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Why is the radio horizon for VHF and UHF signals more distant than the visual horizon?
-
Radio signals move somewhat faster than the speed of light (0% chose this)
-
Radio waves are not blocked by dust particles (0% chose this)
-
The atmosphere refracts radio waves slightly (0% chose this)
-
Radio waves are blocked by dust particles (0% chose this)
Which of the following is an appropriate power supply rating for a typical 50-watt output mobile FM transceiver?
-
24.0 volts at 4 amperes (0% chose this)
-
13.8 volts at 4 amperes (0% chose this)
-
24.0 volts at 12 amperes (0% chose this)
-
13.8 volts at 12 amperes (0% chose this)
Which of the following should be considered when selecting an accessory SWR meter?
-
The frequency and power level at which the measurements will be made (0% chose this)
-
The distance that the meter will be located from the antenna (0% chose this)
-
The maximum SWR anticipated on the transmission line (0% chose this)
-
The ability of the meter to compensate for a poor transmission line match to the antenna (0% chose this)
Why are short, heavy-gauge wires used for a transceiver’s DC power connection?
-
To minimize voltage drop when transmitting (0% chose this)
-
To provide a close match to the power supply output impedance (0% chose this)
-
To avoid RF interference (0% chose this)
-
To minimize radiative losses in the power cable (0% chose this)
How are the audio input and output of a transceiver connected in a station configured to operate using FT8?
-
To a computer running a terminal program and connected to a terminal node controller unit (0% chose this)
-
To the audio output and input of a computer running FT8 software (0% chose this)
-
To an FT8 conversion unit, a keyboard, and a computer monitor (0% chose this)
-
To a computer connected to the FT8converter.com website (0% chose this)
Where should an RF power meter be installed?
-
In the feed line, between the transmitter and antenna (0% chose this)
-
At the power supply output (0% chose this)
-
In parallel with the push-to-talk line and the antenna (0% chose this)
-
In the power supply cable, as close as possible to the radio (0% chose this)
What signals are used in a computer-radio interface for digital mode operation?
-
Receive and transmit mode, status, and location (0% chose this)
-
Antenna and RF power (0% chose this)
-
Receive audio, transmit audio, and transmitter keying (0% chose this)
-
NMEA GPS location and DC power (0% chose this)
Which of the following is one of the connections required between a computer and a transceiver to operate digital modes?
-
Computer “line out” to transceiver push-to-talk (0% chose this)
-
Computer “line in” to transceiver push-to-talk (0% chose this)
-
Computer “line in” to transceiver speaker connector (0% chose this)
-
Computer “line out” to transceiver speaker connector (0% chose this)
Which of the following conductors is preferred for bonding at RF?
-
Copper braid removed from coaxial cable (0% chose this)
-
Copper-clad steel wire (0% chose this)
-
Twisted-pair cable (0% chose this)
-
Flat copper strap (0% chose this)
How can you determine the length of time that equipment can be powered from a battery?
-
Divide the watt-hour rating of the battery by the peak power consumption of the equipment (0% chose this)
-
Divide the battery ampere-hour rating by the average current draw of the equipment (0% chose this)
-
Multiply the watts per hour consumed by the equipment by the battery power rating (0% chose this)
-
Multiply the square of the current rating of the battery by the input resistance of the equipment (0% chose this)
What function does a digital mode hotspot perform for nearby transceivers?
-
Communication with a digital voice or data network (0% chose this)
-
FT8 digital communications via AFSK using a smartphone connected to the internet (0% chose this)
-
RTTY encoding and decoding without a computer (0% chose this)
-
High-speed digital communications for meteor scatter (0% chose this)
Where should the negative power return of a mobile transceiver be connected in a vehicle?
-
At the 12-volt battery chassis ground (0% chose this)
-
To the shell of the power connector (0% chose this)
-
To any metal part of the vehicle (0% chose this)
-
Through the transceiver’s mounting bracket (0% chose this)
What is an electronic keyer?
-
A device for switching antennas from transmit to receive (0% chose this)
-
A device for voice activated switching from receive to transmit (0% chose this)
-
A device that assists in manual sending of Morse code (0% chose this)
-
An interlock to prevent unauthorized use of a radio (0% chose this)
What is the effect of excessive microphone gain on SSB transmissions?
-
Frequency instability (0% chose this)
-
Distorted transmitted audio (0% chose this)
-
Increased SWR (0% chose this)
-
Sideband inversion (0% chose this)
Which of the following can be used to enter a transceiver’s operating frequency?
-
The keypad or VFO knob (0% chose this)
-
The CTCSS or DTMF encoder (0% chose this)
-
The Automatic Frequency Control (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
How is squelch adjusted so that a weak FM signal can be heard?
-
Set the squelch threshold so that receiver output audio is on all the time (0% chose this)
-
Turn up the audio level until it overcomes the squelch threshold (0% chose this)
-
Turn on the anti-squelch function (0% chose this)
-
Enable squelch enhancement (0% chose this)
What does an FM signal sound like when received slightly off frequency?
-
The audio increases in pitch (0% chose this)
-
The audio decrease in pitch (0% chose this)
-
There is no effect except for reduction in amplitude (0% chose this)
-
The audio becomes distorted (0% chose this)
What does the scanning function of an FM transceiver do?
-
Checks incoming signal deviation (0% chose this)
-
Prevents interference to nearby repeaters (0% chose this)
-
Tunes through a range of frequencies to check for activity (0% chose this)
-
Tunes through a range of frequencies to determine the antenna’s resonant frequency (0% chose this)
Which of the following controls could be used if the voice pitch of a single-sideband signal returning to your CQ call seems too high or low?
-
The AGC or limiter (0% chose this)
-
The bandwidth selection (0% chose this)
-
The tone squelch (0% chose this)
-
The RIT or Clarifier (0% chose this)
What is a DMR “code plug”?
-
An adapter cable used to connect a DMR radio to a computer for internet access (0% chose this)
-
Configuration data loaded onto your radio to access repeaters and talkgroups (0% chose this)
-
An upgrade to DMR programming software provided by the radio manufacturer to accommodate new radio models (0% chose this)
-
A Coder-Decoder (CODEC) that converts analog voice data to DMR digital data and vice versa (0% chose this)
What is the advantage of having a choice of receiver filter bandwidths in a multimode transceiver?
-
Permits monitoring several modes simultaneously by selecting a separate filter for each mode (0% chose this)
-
Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the mode (0% chose this)
-
Increases the number of frequencies that can be stored in memory (0% chose this)
-
Increases the amount of offset between receive and transmit frequencies (0% chose this)
How is a specific group of stations selected on a DMR digital voice transceiver?
-
By retrieving the frequencies from transceiver memory (0% chose this)
-
By enabling the group’s CTCSS tone (0% chose this)
-
By entering the group’s identification code (0% chose this)
-
By inserting a five-pin, pre-programmed code plug (0% chose this)
Which of the following receiver filter bandwidths provides the best signal-to-noise ratio for SSB reception?
-
500 Hz (0% chose this)
-
1000 Hz (0% chose this)
-
2400 Hz (0% chose this)
-
5000 Hz (0% chose this)
Which of the following must be programmed into a D-STAR digital transceiver before transmitting?
-
Your call sign (0% chose this)
-
Your output power (0% chose this)
-
The codec type being used (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?
-
Volts (0% chose this)
-
Watts (0% chose this)
-
Ohms (0% chose this)
-
Amperes (0% chose this)
Electrical power is measured in which of the following units?
-
Volts (0% chose this)
-
Watts (0% chose this)
-
Watt-hours (0% chose this)
-
Amperes (0% chose this)
What is the term for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?
-
Voltage (0% chose this)
-
Amperes per second (0% chose this)
-
Volts per second (0% chose this)
-
Current (0% chose this)
What term describes the number of times per second that an alternating current makes a complete cycle?
-
Pulse rate (0% chose this)
-
Wave number (0% chose this)
-
Frequency (0% chose this)
-
Wavelength (0% chose this)
What is the electrical term for the force that causes electron flow?
-
Voltage (0% chose this)
-
Ampere-hours (0% chose this)
-
Capacitance (0% chose this)
-
Inductance (0% chose this)
What is the unit of frequency?
-
Hertz (0% chose this)
-
Henry (0% chose this)
-
Farad (0% chose this)
-
Epicycles per second (0% chose this)
Why are metals generally good conductors of electricity?
-
They have relatively high density (0% chose this)
-
They have many free electrons (0% chose this)
-
They have many free protons (0% chose this)
-
They have relatively high Young’s modulus values (0% chose this)
Which of the following is a good electrical insulator?
-
Sea water (0% chose this)
-
Glass (0% chose this)
-
Stainless steel (0% chose this)
-
Graphite (0% chose this)
Which of the following describes alternating current?
-
Current that alternates between a positive direction and zero (0% chose this)
-
Current that alternates between a negative direction and zero (0% chose this)
-
Current that alternates between positive and negative directions (0% chose this)
-
All these answers are correct (0% chose this)
Which term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used?
-
Resistance (0% chose this)
-
Current (0% chose this)
-
Power (0% chose this)
-
Voltage (0% chose this)
What type of current flow is opposed by resistance?
-
Direct current (0% chose this)
-
Alternating current (0% chose this)
-
RF current (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes?
-
0.0000015 milliamperes (0% chose this)
-
0.0015 milliamperes (0% chose this)
-
1500 milliamperes (0% chose this)
-
1,500,000 milliamperes (0% chose this)
Which is equal to 1,500,000 hertz?
-
1500 kHz (0% chose this)
-
1500 MHz (0% chose this)
-
15 GHz (0% chose this)
-
150 kHz (0% chose this)
Which is equal to one kilovolt?
-
One one-thousandth of a volt (0% chose this)
-
One hundred volts (0% chose this)
-
One thousand volts (0% chose this)
-
One million volts (0% chose this)
Which is equal to one microvolt?
-
One one-millionth of a volt (0% chose this)
-
One million volts (0% chose this)
-
One thousand kilovolts (0% chose this)
-
One one-thousandth of a volt (0% chose this)
Which is equal to 500 milliwatts?
-
5 watts (0% chose this)
-
0.5 watts (0% chose this)
-
500,000 watts (0% chose this)
-
500,000,000 watts (0% chose this)
Which is equal to 3000 milliamperes?
-
0.003 amperes (0% chose this)
-
0.3 amperes (0% chose this)
-
3,000,000 amperes (0% chose this)
-
3 amperes (0% chose this)
Which is equal to 3.525 MHz?
-
0.003525 kHz (0% chose this)
-
35.25 kHz (0% chose this)
-
3525 kHz (0% chose this)
-
3,525,000 kHz (0% chose this)
Which is equal to 1,000,000 picofarads?
-
0.001 microfarads (0% chose this)
-
1 microfarad (0% chose this)
-
1000 microfarads (0% chose this)
-
1,000,000,000 microfarads (0% chose this)
Which decibel value most closely represents a power increase from 5 watts to 10 watts?
-
2 dB (0% chose this)
-
3 dB (0% chose this)
-
5 dB (0% chose this)
-
10 dB (0% chose this)
Which decibel value most closely represents a power decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts?
-
-1 dB (0% chose this)
-
-3 dB (0% chose this)
-
-6 dB (0% chose this)
-
-9 dB (0% chose this)
Which decibel value represents a power increase from 20 watts to 200 watts?
-
10 dB (0% chose this)
-
12 dB (0% chose this)
-
18 dB (0% chose this)
-
28 dB (0% chose this)
Which is equal to 28400 kHz?
-
28.400 kHz (0% chose this)
-
2.800 MHz (0% chose this)
-
284.00 MHz (0% chose this)
-
28.400 MHz (0% chose this)
Which is equal to 2425 MHz?
-
0.002425 GHz (0% chose this)
-
24.25 GHz (0% chose this)
-
2.425 GHz (0% chose this)
-
242.5 GHz (0% chose this)
What describes the ability to store energy in an electric field?
-
Inductance (0% chose this)
-
Resistance (0% chose this)
-
Frequency (0% chose this)
-
Capacitance (0% chose this)
What is the unit of capacitance?
-
Farad (0% chose this)
-
Ohm (0% chose this)
-
Volt (0% chose this)
-
Henry (0% chose this)
What describes the ability to store energy in a magnetic field?
-
Admittance (0% chose this)
-
Capacitance (0% chose this)
-
Resistance (0% chose this)
-
Inductance (0% chose this)
What is the unit of inductance?
-
Coulomb (0% chose this)
-
Farad (0% chose this)
-
Henry (0% chose this)
-
Ohm (0% chose this)
What is the unit of impedance?
-
Volt (0% chose this)
-
Ampere (0% chose this)
-
Coulomb (0% chose this)
-
Ohm (0% chose this)
What is the abbreviation for kilohertz?
-
kHz (0% chose this)
-
khz (0% chose this)
-
KHz (0% chose this)
-
KHZ (0% chose this)
What is the abbreviation for megahertz?
-
mHz (0% chose this)
-
mHZ (0% chose this)
-
Mhz (0% chose this)
-
MHz (0% chose this)
What formula is used to calculate electrical power (P) in a DC circuit?
-
P = I x E (0% chose this)
-
P = E / I (0% chose this)
-
P = I² x E (0% chose this)
-
P = I / E (0% chose this)
How much power is delivered by a voltage of 13.8 volts DC and a current of 10 amperes?
-
138 watts (0% chose this)
-
0.7 watts (0% chose this)
-
23.8 watts (0% chose this)
-
3.8 watts (0% chose this)
How much power is delivered by a voltage of 12 volts DC and a current of 2.5 amperes?
-
4.8 watts (0% chose this)
-
30 watts (0% chose this)
-
14.5 watts (0% chose this)
-
0.208 watts (0% chose this)
How much current is required to deliver 120 watts at a voltage of 12 volts DC?
-
0.1 amperes (0% chose this)
-
10 amperes (0% chose this)
-
12 amperes (0% chose this)
-
132 amperes (0% chose this)
What is impedance?
-
The opposition to AC current flow (0% chose this)
-
The inverse of resistance (0% chose this)
-
The inverse of reactance (0% chose this)
-
The power handling capability of a component (0% chose this)
What formula is used to calculate current in a circuit?
-
I = E x R (0% chose this)
-
I = E / R (0% chose this)
-
I = E² x R (0% chose this)
-
I = E² / R (0% chose this)
What formula is used to calculate voltage in a circuit?
-
E = I x R (0% chose this)
-
E = I / R (0% chose this)
-
E = I² x R (0% chose this)
-
E = I² / R (0% chose this)
What formula is used to calculate resistance in a circuit?
-
R = E x I (0% chose this)
-
R = E / I (0% chose this)
-
R = E + I (0% chose this)
-
R = E - I (0% chose this)
What is the resistance of a circuit in which a current of 3 amperes flows when connected to 90 volts?
-
3 ohms (0% chose this)
-
30 ohms (0% chose this)
-
1/30 ohm (0% chose this)
-
270 ohms (0% chose this)
What is the resistance of a circuit for which the applied voltage is 12 volts and the current flow is 1.5 amperes?
-
18 ohms (0% chose this)
-
0.125 ohms (0% chose this)
-
8 ohms (0% chose this)
-
13.5 ohms (0% chose this)
What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source?
-
3 ohms (0% chose this)
-
16 ohms (0% chose this)
-
48 ohms (0% chose this)
-
8 ohms (0% chose this)
What is the current in a circuit with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a resistance of 80 ohms?
-
9600 amperes (0% chose this)
-
200 amperes (0% chose this)
-
0.667 amperes (0% chose this)
-
1.5 amperes (0% chose this)
What is the current through a 100-ohm resistor connected across 200 volts?
-
20,000 amperes (0% chose this)
-
0.5 amperes (0% chose this)
-
2 amperes (0% chose this)
-
100 amperes (0% chose this)
What is the current through a 24-ohm resistor connected across 240 volts?
-
2400 amperes (0% chose this)
-
0.1 amperes (0% chose this)
-
10 amperes (0% chose this)
-
5760 amperes (0% chose this)
What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows through it?
-
1 volt (0% chose this)
-
0.25 volts (0% chose this)
-
2.5 volts (0% chose this)
-
1.5 volts (0% chose this)
What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 1 ampere flows through it?
-
1 volt (0% chose this)
-
10 volts (0% chose this)
-
11 volts (0% chose this)
-
9 volts (0% chose this)
What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 2 amperes flows through it?
-
8 volts (0% chose this)
-
0.2 volts (0% chose this)
-
12 volts (0% chose this)
-
20 volts (0% chose this)
In which type of circuit is the current always the same through all components?
-
Series (0% chose this)
-
Parallel (0% chose this)
-
Resonant (0% chose this)
-
Branch (0% chose this)
In which type of circuit is the voltage always the same across all components?
-
Series (0% chose this)
-
Parallel (0% chose this)
-
Resonant (0% chose this)
-
Branch (0% chose this)
What electrical component opposes the flow of current in a DC circuit?
-
Inductor (0% chose this)
-
Resistor (0% chose this)
-
Inverter (0% chose this)
-
Transformer (0% chose this)
What type of component is often used as an adjustable volume control?
-
Fixed resistor (0% chose this)
-
Power resistor (0% chose this)
-
Potentiometer (0% chose this)
-
Transformer (0% chose this)
What electrical parameter is controlled by a potentiometer?
-
Inductance (0% chose this)
-
Resistance (0% chose this)
-
Capacitance (0% chose this)
-
Field strength (0% chose this)
What electrical component stores energy in an electric field?
-
Resistor (0% chose this)
-
Capacitor (0% chose this)
-
Inductor (0% chose this)
-
Diode (0% chose this)
What type of electrical component consists of conductive surfaces separated by an insulator?
-
Resistor (0% chose this)
-
Potentiometer (0% chose this)
-
Oscillator (0% chose this)
-
Capacitor (0% chose this)
What type of electrical component stores energy in a magnetic field?
-
Resistor (0% chose this)
-
Capacitor (0% chose this)
-
Inductor (0% chose this)
-
Diode (0% chose this)
What electrical component is typically constructed as a coil of wire?
-
Transistor (0% chose this)
-
Capacitor (0% chose this)
-
Diode (0% chose this)
-
Inductor (0% chose this)
What is the function of an SPDT switch?
-
A single circuit is opened or closed (0% chose this)
-
Two circuits are opened or closed (0% chose this)
-
A single circuit is switched between one of two other circuits (0% chose this)
-
Two circuits are each switched between one of two other circuits (0% chose this)
What type of switch is represented by component 3 in figure T-2?
-
Single-pole single-throw (0% chose this)
-
Single-pole double-throw (0% chose this)
-
Double-pole single-throw (0% chose this)
-
Double-pole double-throw (0% chose this)
Which of the following battery chemistries is rechargeable?
-
Nickel-metal hydride (0% chose this)
-
Lithium-ion (0% chose this)
-
Lead-acid (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Which of the following battery chemistries is not rechargeable?
-
Nickel-cadmium (0% chose this)
-
Carbon-zinc (0% chose this)
-
Lead-acid (0% chose this)
-
Lithium-ion (0% chose this)
Which is true about forward voltage drop in a diode?
-
It is lower in some diode types than in others (0% chose this)
-
It is proportional to peak inverse voltage (0% chose this)
-
It indicates that the diode is defective (0% chose this)
-
It has no impact on the voltage delivered to the load (0% chose this)
What electronic component allows current to flow in only one direction?
-
Resistor (0% chose this)
-
Fuse (0% chose this)
-
Diode (0% chose this)
-
Driven element (0% chose this)
Which of these components can be used as an electronic switch?
-
Varistor (0% chose this)
-
Potentiometer (0% chose this)
-
Transistor (0% chose this)
-
Thermistor (0% chose this)
Which of the following components can consist of three regions of semiconductor material?
-
Alternator (0% chose this)
-
Transistor (0% chose this)
-
Triode (0% chose this)
-
Pentode (0% chose this)
What type of transistor has a gate, drain, and source?
-
Varistor (0% chose this)
-
Field-effect (0% chose this)
-
Hall-effect (0% chose this)
-
Bipolar junction (0% chose this)
How is the cathode lead of a semiconductor diode often marked on the package?
-
With the word "cathode" (0% chose this)
-
With a stripe (0% chose this)
-
With the letter C (0% chose this)
-
With the letter K (0% chose this)
What causes a light-emitting diode (LED) to emit light?
-
Forward current (0% chose this)
-
Reverse current (0% chose this)
-
Capacitively-coupled RF signal (0% chose this)
-
Inductively-coupled RF signal (0% chose this)
What does the abbreviation FET stand for?
-
Frequency Emission Transmitter (0% chose this)
-
Fast Electron Transistor (0% chose this)
-
Free Electron Transmitter (0% chose this)
-
Field Effect Transistor (0% chose this)
What are the names for the electrodes of a diode?
-
Plus and minus (0% chose this)
-
Source and drain (0% chose this)
-
Anode and cathode (0% chose this)
-
Gate and base (0% chose this)
Which of the following can provide power gain?
-
Transformer (0% chose this)
-
Transistor (0% chose this)
-
Reactor (0% chose this)
-
Resistor (0% chose this)
What does the term gain mean in amplifiers?
-
The output signal voltage relative to the input signal voltage (0% chose this)
-
The output signal current relative to the input signal current (0% chose this)
-
The output signal power relative to the input signal power (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What are the names of the electrodes of a bipolar junction transistor?
-
Signal, bias, power (0% chose this)
-
Emitter, base, collector (0% chose this)
-
Input, output, supply (0% chose this)
-
Pole one, pole two, output (0% chose this)
What is an electrical diagram using standard component symbols called?
-
Connection chart (0% chose this)
-
Instrumentation system (0% chose this)
-
Schematic (0% chose this)
-
Flow chart (0% chose this)
What is component 1 in figure T-1?
-
Resistor (0% chose this)
-
Transistor (0% chose this)
-
Battery (0% chose this)
-
Connector (0% chose this)
What is component 2 in figure T-1?
-
Resistor (0% chose this)
-
Transistor (0% chose this)
-
Indicator lamp (0% chose this)
-
Connector (0% chose this)
What is component 3 in figure T-1?
-
Resistor (0% chose this)
-
Transistor (0% chose this)
-
Lamp (0% chose this)
-
Ground symbol (0% chose this)
What is component 4 in figure T-1?
-
Resistor (0% chose this)
-
Transistor (0% chose this)
-
Ground symbol (0% chose this)
-
Battery (0% chose this)
What is component 6 in figure T-2?
-
Resistor (0% chose this)
-
Capacitor (0% chose this)
-
Regulator IC (0% chose this)
-
Transistor (0% chose this)
What is component 8 in figure T-2?
-
Resistor (0% chose this)
-
Inductor (0% chose this)
-
Regulator IC (0% chose this)
-
Light emitting diode (0% chose this)
What is component 9 in figure T-2?
-
Variable capacitor (0% chose this)
-
Variable inductor (0% chose this)
-
Variable resistor (0% chose this)
-
Variable transformer (0% chose this)
What is component 4 in figure T-2?
-
Variable inductor (0% chose this)
-
Double-pole switch (0% chose this)
-
Potentiometer (0% chose this)
-
Transformer (0% chose this)
What is component 3 in figure T-3?
-
Connector (0% chose this)
-
Meter (0% chose this)
-
Variable capacitor (0% chose this)
-
Variable inductor (0% chose this)
What is component 4 in figure T-3?
-
Antenna (0% chose this)
-
Transmitter (0% chose this)
-
Dummy load (0% chose this)
-
Ground (0% chose this)
Which of the following is accurately represented in electrical schematics?
-
Wire lengths (0% chose this)
-
Physical appearance of components (0% chose this)
-
Component connections (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Which of the following devices or circuits changes an alternating current into a varying direct current signal?
-
Transformer (0% chose this)
-
Rectifier (0% chose this)
-
Amplifier (0% chose this)
-
Reflector (0% chose this)
What is a relay?
-
An electrically-controlled switch (0% chose this)
-
A current-controlled amplifier (0% chose this)
-
An inverting amplifier (0% chose this)
-
A pass transistor (0% chose this)
Which of the following is a reason to use shielded wire?
-
To decrease the resistance of DC power connections (0% chose this)
-
To increase the current carrying capability of the wire (0% chose this)
-
To prevent coupling of unwanted signals to or from the wire (0% chose this)
-
To reduce receiver overload (0% chose this)
Which of the following displays an electrical quantity as a numeric value?
-
Potentiometer (0% chose this)
-
Transistor (0% chose this)
-
Meter (0% chose this)
-
Relay (0% chose this)
What type of circuit controls the amount of voltage from a power supply?
-
Regulator (0% chose this)
-
Oscillator (0% chose this)
-
Filter (0% chose this)
-
Phase inverter (0% chose this)
What component changes 120 V AC power to a lower AC voltage for other uses?
-
Variable capacitor (0% chose this)
-
Transformer (0% chose this)
-
Transistor (0% chose this)
-
Diode (0% chose this)
Which of the following is commonly used as a visual indicator?
-
LED (0% chose this)
-
FET (0% chose this)
-
Zener diode (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Which of the following is combined with an inductor to make a resonant circuit?
-
Resistor (0% chose this)
-
Zener diode (0% chose this)
-
Potentiometer (0% chose this)
-
Capacitor (0% chose this)
What is the name of a device that combines several semiconductors and other components into one package?
-
Transducer (0% chose this)
-
Multi-pole relay (0% chose this)
-
Integrated circuit (0% chose this)
-
Transformer (0% chose this)
What is the function of component 2 in figure T-1?
-
Give off light when current flows through it (0% chose this)
-
Supply electrical energy (0% chose this)
-
Control the flow of current (0% chose this)
-
Convert electrical energy into radio waves (0% chose this)
Which of the following is a resonant or tuned circuit?
-
An inductor and a capacitor in series or parallel (0% chose this)
-
A linear voltage regulator (0% chose this)
-
A resistor circuit used for reducing standing wave ratio (0% chose this)
-
A circuit designed to provide high-fidelity audio (0% chose this)
Which term describes the ability of a receiver to detect the presence of a signal?
-
RF gain (0% chose this)
-
Sensitivity (0% chose this)
-
Selectivity (0% chose this)
-
Total Harmonic Distortion (0% chose this)
What is a transceiver?
-
A device that combines a receiver and transmitter (0% chose this)
-
A device for matching feed line impedance to 50 ohms (0% chose this)
-
A device for automatically sending and decoding Morse code (0% chose this)
-
A device for converting receiver and transmitter frequencies to another band (0% chose this)
Which of the following is used to convert a signal from one frequency to another?
-
Phase splitter (0% chose this)
-
Mixer (0% chose this)
-
Inverter (0% chose this)
-
Amplifier (0% chose this)
Which term describes the ability of a receiver to discriminate between multiple signals?
-
Discrimination ratio (0% chose this)
-
Sensitivity (0% chose this)
-
Selectivity (0% chose this)
-
Harmonic distortion (0% chose this)
What is the name of a circuit that generates a signal at a specific frequency?
-
Reactance modulator (0% chose this)
-
Phase modulator (0% chose this)
-
Low-pass filter (0% chose this)
-
Oscillator (0% chose this)
What device converts the RF input and output of a transceiver to another band?
-
High-pass filter (0% chose this)
-
Low-pass filter (0% chose this)
-
Transverter (0% chose this)
-
Phase converter (0% chose this)
What is the function of a transceiver’s PTT input?
-
Input for a key used to send CW (0% chose this)
-
Switches transceiver from receive to transmit when grounded (0% chose this)
-
Provides a transmit tuning tone when grounded (0% chose this)
-
Input for a preamplifier tuning tone (0% chose this)
Which of the following describes combining speech with an RF carrier signal?
-
Impedance matching (0% chose this)
-
Oscillation (0% chose this)
-
Modulation (0% chose this)
-
Low-pass filtering (0% chose this)
What is the function of the switch which selects either SSB or CW-FM on a VHF power amplifier?
-
Change the mode of the transmitted signal (0% chose this)
-
Set the amplifier for proper operation in the selected mode (0% chose this)
-
Change the frequency range of the amplifier to operate in the proper segment of the band (0% chose this)
-
Reduce the received signal noise (0% chose this)
What can be added to the output of a transceiver to increase the transmitted output power?
-
A potentiometer (0% chose this)
-
An RF power amplifier (0% chose this)
-
An impedance multiplier (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What is the function of the Variable Frequency Oscillator (VFO) circuit in a transceiver?
-
Set the receive and transmit frequency (0% chose this)
-
Provide automatic frequency control (0% chose this)
-
Inject a variable frequency to allow CW reception (0% chose this)
-
Generate and demodulate single sideband signals (0% chose this)
What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or mobile transceiver is over-deviating?
-
Talk louder into the microphone (0% chose this)
-
Let the transceiver cool off (0% chose this)
-
Change to a higher power level (0% chose this)
-
Talk farther away from the microphone (0% chose this)
What would cause a broadcast AM or FM radio to receive an amateur radio transmission unintentionally?
-
The receiver is unable to reject strong signals outside the AM or FM band (0% chose this)
-
The microphone gain of the transmitter is turned up too high (0% chose this)
-
The audio amplifier of the transmitter is overloaded (0% chose this)
-
The deviation of an FM transmitter is set too low (0% chose this)
Which of the following can cause radio frequency interference?
-
Fundamental overload (0% chose this)
-
Harmonics (0% chose this)
-
Spurious emissions (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Which of the following might be the cause of low RF power output from a solid-state transceiver?
-
Poor amplifier noise figure (0% chose this)
-
Poor amplifier linearity (0% chose this)
-
Low SWR (0% chose this)
-
High SWR (0% chose this)
Which of the following might reduce interference by an amateur station to a non-amateur over-the-air radio receiver?
-
Block the amateur signal with a filter at the antenna input of the affected receiver (0% chose this)
-
Block the interfering signal with a filter on the amateur transmitter (0% chose this)
-
Switch the transmitter from FM to SSB (0% chose this)
-
Switch the transmitter to a narrow-band mode (0% chose this)
Which of the following actions should you take if a neighbor tells you that your station’s transmissions are interfering with their radio or TV reception?
-
Make sure that your station is functioning properly and that it does not cause interference to your own radio or television when it is tuned to the same channel (0% chose this)
-
Immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the nearest FCC office for assistance (0% chose this)
-
Install a harmonic doubler on the output of your transmitter and tune it until the interference is eliminated (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Which of the following can reduce interference to a 2-meter band transceiver from a nearby commercial FM station?
-
Installing an RF preamplifier (0% chose this)
-
Using double-shielded coaxial cable (0% chose this)
-
Installing bypass capacitors on the microphone cable (0% chose this)
-
Installing a band-reject filter (0% chose this)
What should you do if something in a neighbor’s home is causing harmful interference to your amateur station?
-
Work with your neighbor to identify the offending device (0% chose this)
-
Politely inform your neighbor that FCC rules prohibit the use of devices that cause interference (0% chose this)
-
Make sure your station meets the standards of good amateur practice (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What should be the first step to resolve non-fiber optic cable TV interference caused by your amateur radio transmission?
-
Add a low-pass filter to the TV antenna input (0% chose this)
-
Add a high-pass filter to the TV antenna input (0% chose this)
-
Add a preamplifier to the TV antenna input (0% chose this)
-
Be sure all TV feed line coaxial connectors are installed properly (0% chose this)
What might be a problem if you receive a report that your audio signal through an FM repeater is distorted or unintelligible?
-
Your transmitter is slightly off frequency (0% chose this)
-
You are speaking too loudly or too close to the microphone (0% chose this)
-
You are in a bad location (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Which of the following can eliminate distorted voice transmissions?
-
Adding extra feedline to the antenna to lower SWR (0% chose this)
-
Turning the radio on and off to reset the computer-controlled circuitry (0% chose this)
-
Adding a clip-on ferrite “choke” to the microphone cable to prevent the transmitted signal from feeding back into the transmitter (0% chose this)
-
Turning the squelch control fully clockwise to prevent the transmitted signal from triggering the squelch circuit (0% chose this)
What is the primary purpose of a dummy load?
-
To prevent transmitting signals over the air when making tests (0% chose this)
-
To prevent over-modulation of a transmitter (0% chose this)
-
To improve the efficiency of an antenna (0% chose this)
-
To improve the signal-to-noise ratio of a receiver (0% chose this)
Which of the following is used to determine if an antenna is resonant at the desired operating frequency?
-
A VTVM (0% chose this)
-
An antenna analyzer (0% chose this)
-
A Q meter (0% chose this)
-
A frequency counter (0% chose this)
What does a typical RF dummy load consist of?
-
A low-voltage power supply and an AC relay (0% chose this)
-
A 50-ohm non-inductive resistor mounted on a heat sink (0% chose this)
-
A low-voltage power supply and a DC relay (0% chose this)
-
A 50-ohm inductive reactance mounted in a shielded enclosure (0% chose this)
What reading on an SWR meter indicates a perfect impedance match between the antenna and the feed line?
-
50:50 (0% chose this)
-
Zero (0% chose this)
-
1:1 (0% chose this)
-
Full Scale (0% chose this)
Why do most solid-state transmitters reduce output power as SWR increases beyond a certain level?
-
To protect the RF output amplifier transistors (0% chose this)
-
To comply with FCC rules on spectral purity (0% chose this)
-
Because power supplies cannot supply enough current at high SWR (0% chose this)
-
To lower the SWR on the transmission line (0% chose this)
What does an SWR reading of 4:1 indicate?
-
Loss of -4 dB (0% chose this)
-
Good impedance match (0% chose this)
-
Gain of +4 dB (0% chose this)
-
Impedance mismatch (0% chose this)
What happens to power lost in a feed line?
-
It increases the SWR (0% chose this)
-
It is radiated as harmonics (0% chose this)
-
It is converted into heat (0% chose this)
-
It distorts the signal (0% chose this)
Which instrument can be used to determine SWR?
-
Voltmeter (0% chose this)
-
Ohmmeter (0% chose this)
-
Iambic pentameter (0% chose this)
-
Directional wattmeter (0% chose this)
Which of the following causes failure of coaxial cables?
-
Moisture contamination (0% chose this)
-
Solder flux contamination (0% chose this)
-
Rapid fluctuation in transmitter output power (0% chose this)
-
Operation at 100% duty cycle for an extended period (0% chose this)
Why should the outer jacket of coaxial cable be resistant to ultraviolet light?
-
Ultraviolet light can increase the resistance of the conductors (0% chose this)
-
Ultraviolet light can increase losses in the cable’s jacket (0% chose this)
-
Ultraviolet and RF signals can mix, causing interference (0% chose this)
-
Ultraviolet light can damage the jacket and allow water to enter the cable (0% chose this)
What is an advantage of foam-dielectric versus solid-dielectric coaxial cable?
-
It is more resistant to moisture contamination (0% chose this)
-
It has higher voltage breakdown (0% chose this)
-
It has less loss per foot (0% chose this)
-
It has a better impedance match to 50 ohms (0% chose this)
Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential?
-
An ammeter (0% chose this)
-
A voltmeter (0% chose this)
-
A potentiometer (0% chose this)
-
An ohmmeter (0% chose this)
How is a voltmeter connected to a component to measure applied voltage?
-
In series (0% chose this)
-
In parallel (0% chose this)
-
In quadrature (0% chose this)
-
In phase (0% chose this)
When configured to measure current, how is a multimeter connected to a component?
-
In series (0% chose this)
-
In parallel (0% chose this)
-
In quadrature (0% chose this)
-
In phase (0% chose this)
Which instrument is used to measure electric current?
-
An ohmmeter (0% chose this)
-
An electrometer (0% chose this)
-
A voltmeter (0% chose this)
-
An ammeter (0% chose this)
How does an ohmmeter measure the resistance of a circuit or component?
-
By applying a small current and measuring the resulting voltage (0% chose this)
-
By placing a variable resistor in parallel with the circuit (0% chose this)
-
By placing a variable resistor in series with the circuit (0% chose this)
-
By applying a variable voltage and measuring the resulting current change (0% chose this)
Which of the following can damage a multimeter?
-
Attempting to measure resistance using the voltage setting (0% chose this)
-
Failing to connect one of the probes to ground (0% chose this)
-
Attempting to measure voltage when using the resistance setting (0% chose this)
-
Not allowing it to warm up properly (0% chose this)
Which of the following measurements are made using a multimeter?
-
Signal strength and noise (0% chose this)
-
Impedance and reactance (0% chose this)
-
Voltage and resistance (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Which of the following types of solder should not be used for radio and electronic applications?
-
Acid-core solder (0% chose this)
-
Lead-tin solder (0% chose this)
-
Rosin-core solder (0% chose this)
-
Tin-copper solder (0% chose this)
What is the characteristic appearance of a cold tin-lead solder joint?
-
Dark black spots (0% chose this)
-
A bright or shiny surface (0% chose this)
-
A rough or lumpy surface (0% chose this)
-
A greenish tinge (0% chose this)
What reading indicates that an ohmmeter is connected across a large, discharged capacitor?
-
Increasing resistance with time (0% chose this)
-
Decreasing resistance with time (0% chose this)
-
Steady full-scale reading (0% chose this)
-
Alternating between open and short circuit (0% chose this)
Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring in-circuit resistance with an ohmmeter?
-
Ensure that the applied voltages are correct (0% chose this)
-
Ensure that the circuit is not powered (0% chose this)
-
Ensure that the circuit is grounded (0% chose this)
-
Ensure that the circuit is operating at the correct frequency (0% chose this)
Which of the following is a form of amplitude modulation?
-
Spread spectrum (0% chose this)
-
Packet radio (0% chose this)
-
Single sideband (0% chose this)
-
Phase shift keying (PSK) (0% chose this)
What type of modulation is commonly used for VHF packet radio transmissions?
-
FM or PM (0% chose this)
-
SSB (0% chose this)
-
AM (0% chose this)
-
PSK (0% chose this)
Which type of voice mode is often used for long-distance (weak signal) contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?
-
FM (0% chose this)
-
DRM (0% chose this)
-
SSB (0% chose this)
-
PM (0% chose this)
Which type of modulation is commonly used for VHF and UHF voice repeaters?
-
AM (0% chose this)
-
SSB (0% chose this)
-
PSK (0% chose this)
-
FM or PM (0% chose this)
Which of the following signal types has the narrowest bandwidth?
-
FM voice (0% chose this)
-
SSB voice (0% chose this)
-
CW (0% chose this)
-
Slow-scan TV (0% chose this)
Which sideband is normally used for 10-meter HF, VHF, and UHF single-sideband communications?
-
Upper sideband (0% chose this)
-
Lower sideband (0% chose this)
-
Suppressed sideband (0% chose this)
-
Inverted sideband (0% chose this)
What is one characteristic of single sideband (SSB) compared to FM?
-
SSB signals are easier to tune in correctly (0% chose this)
-
SSB signals are less susceptible to interference (0% chose this)
-
SSB signals have narrower bandwidth (0% chose this)
-
SSB signals are less susceptible to high SWR (0% chose this)
What is the approximate bandwidth of a typical single sideband (SSB) voice signal?
-
1 kHz (0% chose this)
-
3 kHz (0% chose this)
-
6 kHz (0% chose this)
-
15 kHz (0% chose this)
What is the approximate bandwidth of an FM voice signal on VHF repeaters?
-
Less than 500 Hz (0% chose this)
-
About 150 kHz (0% chose this)
-
Between 10 and 15 kHz (0% chose this)
-
Between 50 and 125 kHz (0% chose this)
What is the approximate bandwidth of AM fast-scan TV transmissions?
-
More than 10 MHz (0% chose this)
-
About 6 MHz (0% chose this)
-
About 3 MHz (0% chose this)
-
About 1 MHz (0% chose this)
What is the approximate bandwidth required to transmit a CW signal?
-
2.4 kHz (0% chose this)
-
150 Hz (0% chose this)
-
1000 Hz (0% chose this)
-
15 kHz (0% chose this)
Which of the following is a disadvantage of FM compared with single sideband?
-
Voice quality is poorer (0% chose this)
-
Only one signal can be received at a time (0% chose this)
-
FM signals are harder to tune (0% chose this)
-
FM signals are more susceptible to high SWR (0% chose this)
What telemetry information is typically transmitted by satellite beacons?
-
The signal strength of received signals (0% chose this)
-
Time of day accurate to plus or minus 1/10 second (0% chose this)
-
Health and status of the satellite (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What is the impact of using excessive effective radiated power on a satellite uplink?
-
Possibility of commanding the satellite to an improper mode (0% chose this)
-
Blocking access by other users (0% chose this)
-
Overloading the satellite batteries (0% chose this)
-
Possibility of rebooting the satellite control computer (0% chose this)
Which of the following are provided by satellite tracking programs?
-
Maps showing the real-time position of the satellite track over Earth (0% chose this)
-
The time, azimuth, and elevation of the start, maximum altitude, and end of a pass (0% chose this)
-
The apparent frequency of the satellite transmission, including effects of Doppler shift (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What mode of transmission is commonly used by amateur radio satellites?
-
SSB (0% chose this)
-
FM (0% chose this)
-
CW/data (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What is a satellite beacon?
-
The primary transmit antenna on the satellite (0% chose this)
-
An indicator light that shows where to point your antenna (0% chose this)
-
A reflective surface on the satellite (0% chose this)
-
A transmission from a satellite that contains status information (0% chose this)
Which of the following are inputs to a satellite tracking program?
-
The satellite transmitted power (0% chose this)
-
The Keplerian elements (0% chose this)
-
The last observed time of zero Doppler shift (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What is Doppler shift in reference to satellite communications?
-
A change in the satellite orbit (0% chose this)
-
A mode where the satellite receives signals on one band and transmits on another (0% chose this)
-
An observed change in signal frequency caused by relative motion between the satellite and Earth station (0% chose this)
-
A special digital communications mode for some satellites (0% chose this)
What does it mean if a satellite is operating in U/V mode?
-
The satellite uplink is in the 15-meter band and the downlink is in the 10-meter band (0% chose this)
-
The satellite uplink is in the 70-centimeter band and the downlink is in the 2-meter band (0% chose this)
-
The satellite operates using ultraviolet frequencies (0% chose this)
-
The satellite frequencies are usually variable (0% chose this)
What causes spin fading of satellite signals?
-
Circular polarized noise interference radiated from the sun (0% chose this)
-
Rotation of the satellite and its antennas (0% chose this)
-
Doppler shift of the received signal (0% chose this)
-
Interfering signals within the satellite uplink band (0% chose this)
What does the term LEO mean in reference to communication satellites?
-
Low Energy Orbit, which conserves battery power (0% chose this)
-
Low Elevation Orbit, which appears close to the horizon from the earth station (0% chose this)
-
Low Equilibrium Orbit, which has a slightly unstable period (0% chose this)
-
Low Earth Orbit, which has a period of around 100 minutes (0% chose this)
Who is permitted to receive telemetry from an amateur radio satellite?
-
Anyone (0% chose this)
-
Only the satellite control operator (0% chose this)
-
Only the control operator or a licensed radio amateur who has received the encryption key from the control operator (0% chose this)
-
Only a licensed radio amateur who has received the encryption key from AMSAT (0% chose this)
Which of the following is a way to determine whether your satellite uplink power into a linear transponder satellite is neither too low nor too high?
-
Check your signal strength report in the telemetry data (0% chose this)
-
Listen for distortion on your downlink signal (0% chose this)
-
Your signal strength on the downlink should be about the same as the beacon (0% chose this)
-
Compare your signal to others on the downlink using an internet SDR receiver (0% chose this)
Which of the following methods is used to locate sources of noise interference or jamming?
-
Echolocation (0% chose this)
-
Doppler radar (0% chose this)
-
Radio direction finding (0% chose this)
-
Phase locking (0% chose this)
Which of these items would be useful for a hidden transmitter hunt?
-
Calibrated SWR meter (0% chose this)
-
A directional antenna (0% chose this)
-
A directional wattmeter (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What operating activity involves contacting as many stations as possible during a specified period?
-
Simulated emergency exercises (0% chose this)
-
Net operations (0% chose this)
-
Hidden transmitter hunts (0% chose this)
-
Contesting (0% chose this)
Which of the following is good practice when contacting another station in a contest?
-
Signing only the last two letters of your call if there are many other stations calling (0% chose this)
-
Contacting the station twice to be sure that you are in his log (0% chose this)
-
Sending only the minimum information needed for proper identification and the contest exchange (0% chose this)
-
Adding “Please copy” before your exchange (0% chose this)
What is a grid locator?
-
A letter-number designator assigned to a geographic location (0% chose this)
-
A letter-number designator assigned to an azimuth and elevation (0% chose this)
-
An instrument for locating faults in power amplifiers (0% chose this)
-
An instrument for radio direction finding (0% chose this)
How is over the air access to Internet Radio Linking Project (IRLP) nodes accomplished?
-
By obtaining a password that is sent via voice to the node (0% chose this)
-
By using Dual-Tone Multi-Frequency (DTMF) signals (0% chose this)
-
By entering the proper internet password (0% chose this)
-
By using Continuous Tone-Coded Squelch System (CTCSS) tone codes (0% chose this)
What is Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?
-
A set of rules specifying how to identify your station when linked over the internet to another station (0% chose this)
-
A technique employed to “spot” DX stations via the internet (0% chose this)
-
A technique for measuring the modulation quality of a transmitter using remote sites monitored via the internet (0% chose this)
-
A method of delivering voice communications over the internet using digital techniques (0% chose this)
What is the Internet Radio Linking Project (IRLP)?
-
A technique to connect amateur radio systems, such as repeaters, via the internet (0% chose this)
-
A system for providing access to websites via amateur radio (0% chose this)
-
A system for informing amateurs in real time of the frequency of active DX stations (0% chose this)
-
A technique for measuring signal strength of an amateur transmitter via the internet (0% chose this)
Which of the following protocols enables an amateur station to transmit through a repeater without using a radio to initiate the transmission?
-
IRLP (0% chose this)
-
D-STAR (0% chose this)
-
DMR (0% chose this)
-
EchoLink (0% chose this)
What is required before using the EchoLink system?
-
Complete the required EchoLink training (0% chose this)
-
Purchase a license to use the EchoLink software (0% chose this)
-
Register your call sign and provide proof of license (0% chose this)
-
At least a General Class license (0% chose this)
What is an amateur radio station that connects other amateur stations to the internet?
-
A gateway (0% chose this)
-
A repeater (0% chose this)
-
A digipeater (0% chose this)
-
A beacon (0% chose this)
Which of the following is a digital communications mode?
-
Packet radio (0% chose this)
-
IEEE 802.11 (0% chose this)
-
FT8 (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What is FT8?
-
A wideband FM voice mode (0% chose this)
-
A digital mode capable of low signal-to-noise operation (0% chose this)
-
An eight-channel multiplex mode for FM repeaters (0% chose this)
-
A digital slow-scan TV mode with forward error correction and automatic color compensation (0% chose this)
What kind of data can be transmitted by APRS?
-
GPS position data (0% chose this)
-
Text messages (0% chose this)
-
Weather data (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What is meant by the term "NTSC?"
-
A digital transmission standard for encrypting data (0% chose this)
-
A special mode for satellite uplink (0% chose this)
-
An analog fast-scan color TV signal (0% chose this)
-
A frame compression scheme for TV signals (0% chose this)
Which of the following is an application of APRS?
-
Providing real-time tactical digital communications in conjunction with a map showing the locations of stations (0% chose this)
-
Automatically showing the number of packets transmitted via PACTOR during a specific time interval (0% chose this)
-
Providing voice over internet connection between repeaters (0% chose this)
-
Providing information on the number of stations signed into a repeater (0% chose this)
What does the abbreviation "PSK" mean?
-
Pulse Shift Keying (0% chose this)
-
Phase Shift Keying (0% chose this)
-
Packet Sampled Keying (0% chose this)
-
Power Sampled Keying (0% chose this)
Which of the following describes DMR?
-
A technique for time-multiplexing two digital voice signals on a single 12.5 kHz repeater channel (0% chose this)
-
An automatic position tracking mode for FM mobiles communicating through repeaters (0% chose this)
-
An automatic computer logging technique for hands-off logging when communicating while operating a vehicle (0% chose this)
-
A digital technique for transmitting on two repeater inputs simultaneously for automatic error correction (0% chose this)
Which of the following is included in packet radio transmissions?
-
A checksum that permits error detection (0% chose this)
-
A header that contains the call sign of the station to which the information is being sent (0% chose this)
-
Automatic repeat request in case of error (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What is CW?
-
A type of electromagnetic propagation (0% chose this)
-
A digital mode used primarily on 2-meter FM (0% chose this)
-
Error correction for digital transmission using code words (0% chose this)
-
Another name for a Morse code transmission (0% chose this)
Which of the following operating activities is supported by digital mode software in the WSJT-X software suite?
-
Earth-Moon-Earth (0% chose this)
-
Weak signal propagation beacons (0% chose this)
-
Meteor scatter (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What is the role of ARQ in a transmission system?
-
A special transmission format limited to video signals (0% chose this)
-
A system used to encrypt command signals to an amateur radio satellite (0% chose this)
-
An error correction method in which the receiving station detects errors and sends a request for retransmission (0% chose this)
-
A method of compressing data using autonomous reiterative Q codes prior to final encoding (0% chose this)
Which of the following best describes an amateur radio mesh network?
-
An amateur-radio data network using commercial Wi-Fi equipment with modified firmware (0% chose this)
-
A wide-bandwidth digital voice mode employing DMR protocols (0% chose this)
-
An amateur-radio satellite communications network using modified commercial satellite TV hardware (0% chose this)
-
An internet linking protocol allowing communication through repeaters around the world (0% chose this)
What is a beam antenna?
-
An antenna built from square aluminum beams (0% chose this)
-
An omnidirectional antenna invented by Clarence Beam (0% chose this)
-
An antenna that concentrates signals in one direction (0% chose this)
-
An antenna that focuses the signal into two intense rays (0% chose this)
Which of the following describes a type of antenna loading?
-
Electrically lengthening by inserting inductors in radiating elements (0% chose this)
-
Inserting a resistor in the radiating portion of the antenna to make it resonant (0% chose this)
-
Installing a spring in the base of a mobile vertical antenna to make it more flexible (0% chose this)
-
Strengthening the radiating elements of a beam antenna to better resist wind damage (0% chose this)
How is the polarization of an antenna described?
-
By the shape of the driven element (0% chose this)
-
By the orientation of the electric field (0% chose this)
-
By the orientation of the magnetic field (0% chose this)
-
By the direction of radiation (0% chose this)
What is a disadvantage of a handheld radio transceiver’s short flexible antenna compared to a full-sized quarter-wave antenna?
-
It has low efficiency (0% chose this)
-
It transmits only circularly polarized signals (0% chose this)
-
It is more susceptible to receiver desensitization (0% chose this)
-
It only works on analog signals, not digital ones (0% chose this)
Which of the following increases the resonant frequency of a dipole antenna?
-
Lengthening it (0% chose this)
-
Inserting coils in series with radiating wires (0% chose this)
-
Shortening it (0% chose this)
-
Adding capacitive loading to the ends of the radiating wires (0% chose this)
Which of the following types of antennas offers the greatest gain?
-
5/8 wave vertical (0% chose this)
-
Isotropic (0% chose this)
-
J pole (0% chose this)
-
Yagi (0% chose this)
What is a potential drawback of using a handheld VHF transceiver inside a vehicle that lacks an externally mounted antenna?
-
Signal strength is reduced due to the shielding effect of the vehicle (0% chose this)
-
The bandwidth of the antenna will decrease, increasing SWR (0% chose this)
-
The SWR might decrease, decreasing the signal strength (0% chose this)
-
The handheld will overheat due to reflected power in the vehicle (0% chose this)
Why is a 19-inch-long vertical antenna often used on 2 meters?
-
It has high gain (0% chose this)
-
It is a resonant half-wave (0% chose this)
-
It is a resonant quarter-wave (0% chose this)
-
It has low RF radiation exposure (0% chose this)
What is an advantage of a 5/8-wavelength whip antenna for VHF or UHF mobile service compared to a 1/4-wave antenna?
-
It has more gain (0% chose this)
-
It radiates at a higher angle (0% chose this)
-
It has lower SWR (0% chose this)
-
It has lower impedance (0% chose this)
In which direction does a half-wave dipole antenna radiate the strongest signal?
-
Equally in all directions (0% chose this)
-
Off the ends of the antenna (0% chose this)
-
In the direction of the feed line (0% chose this)
-
Broadside to the antenna (0% chose this)
What is antenna gain?
-
The additional power that is added to the transmitter power (0% chose this)
-
The additional power that is required in the antenna when transmitting on a higher frequency (0% chose this)
-
The increase in signal strength in a specified direction compared to a reference antenna (0% chose this)
-
The increase in impedance on receive or transmit compared to a reference antenna (0% chose this)
Which of the following connectors should be carefully taped for weather protection when used outdoors?
-
PL259 (0% chose this)
-
BNC (0% chose this)
-
Type N (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What is the most common impedance of coaxial cables used in amateur radio?
-
8 ohms (0% chose this)
-
50 ohms (0% chose this)
-
600 ohms (0% chose this)
-
12 ohms (0% chose this)
Why is coaxial cable the most common feed line for amateur radio antenna systems?
-
It is easy to use and requires few special installation considerations (0% chose this)
-
It has less loss than any other type of feed line (0% chose this)
-
It can handle more power than any other type of feed line (0% chose this)
-
It is less expensive than any other type of feed line (0% chose this)
What is the major function of an antenna tuner (antenna coupler)?
-
It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver's output impedance (0% chose this)
-
It helps a receiver automatically tune in weak stations (0% chose this)
-
It allows an antenna to be used on both transmit and receive (0% chose this)
-
It automatically selects the proper antenna for the frequency band being used (0% chose this)
What happens as the frequency of a signal in coaxial cable is increased?
-
The characteristic impedance decreases (0% chose this)
-
The loss decreases (0% chose this)
-
The characteristic impedance increases (0% chose this)
-
The loss increases (0% chose this)
Which of the following connector types is most suitable as an RF connector for frequencies above 400 MHz?
-
PL-259 (0% chose this)
-
Type N (0% chose this)
-
RS-213 (0% chose this)
-
DB-25 (0% chose this)
Which of the following is true of PL-259 type coax connectors?
-
They are preferred for microwave operation (0% chose this)
-
They are watertight (0% chose this)
-
They are commonly used at HF and VHF frequencies (0% chose this)
-
They are a bayonet-type connector (0% chose this)
Which of the following is a source of loss in coaxial feed line?
-
Water intrusion into coaxial connectors (0% chose this)
-
High SWR (0% chose this)
-
Multiple connectors in the line (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What can cause erratic changes in SWR?
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Local thunderstorm (0% chose this)
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Loose connection in the antenna or feed line (0% chose this)
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Over-modulation (0% chose this)
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Overload from a strong local station (0% chose this)
What is the electrical difference between RG-58 and RG-213 coaxial cable?
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There is no significant difference between the two types (0% chose this)
-
RG-58 cable has two shields (0% chose this)
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RG-213 cable has less loss at a given frequency (0% chose this)
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RG-58 cable can handle higher power levels (0% chose this)
Which of the following types of feed line has the lowest loss?
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50-ohm flexible coax (0% chose this)
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Multi-conductor unbalanced cable (0% chose this)
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Air-insulated hardline (0% chose this)
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75-ohm flexible coax (0% chose this)
What is standing wave ratio (SWR)?
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A measure of how well a load is matched to a transmission line (0% chose this)
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The ratio of amplifier power output to input (0% chose this)
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The transmitter efficiency ratio (0% chose this)
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An indication of the quality of your station’s ground connection (0% chose this)
Which of the following is a safety hazard of a 12-volt storage battery that lacks internal protection circuitry?
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Touching both terminals with your hands can cause electrical shock (0% chose this)
-
Shorting the terminals can cause burns, fire, or an explosion (0% chose this)
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RF emissions from a nearby transmitter can cause the electrolyte to emit poison gas (0% chose this)
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All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What health hazard is posed by electrical current flowing through the body?
-
It may cause injury by heating body tissue (0% chose this)
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It may disrupt the electrical functions of cells (0% chose this)
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It may cause involuntary muscle contractions (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
In the United States, what circuit does black wire insulation indicate in a three-wire 120 V AC cable?
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Neutral (0% chose this)
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Hot (0% chose this)
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Equipment ground (0% chose this)
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Negative (0% chose this)
What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit?
-
To prevent power supply ripple from damaging a component (0% chose this)
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To remove power in case of an overload (0% chose this)
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To limit current and prevent shocks (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Why should a 5-ampere fuse never be replaced with a 20-ampere fuse?
-
The larger fuse would be likely to blow because it is rated for higher current (0% chose this)
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The power supply ripple would greatly increase (0% chose this)
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Excessive current could cause a fire (0% chose this)
-
Voltage drop in the higher current fuse could result in excessively low voltage to the device (0% chose this)
What is a good way to guard against electrical shock at your station?
-
Use three-wire cords and plugs for all AC powered equipment (0% chose this)
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Connect all AC powered station equipment to a common safety ground (0% chose this)
-
Ensure all capacitors used for high-voltage DC are fully discharged before working inside equipment (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Where should a lightning arrester be installed in a coaxial feed line?
-
At the output connector of a transceiver (0% chose this)
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At the antenna feed point (0% chose this)
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At the AC power service panel (0% chose this)
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On a grounded panel near where feed lines enter the building (0% chose this)
Where should a fuse or circuit breaker be installed in a 120V AC power circuit?
-
In series with the hot conductor only (0% chose this)
-
In series with the hot and neutral conductors (0% chose this)
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In parallel with the hot conductor only (0% chose this)
-
In parallel with the hot and neutral conductors (0% chose this)
What should be done to all external ground rods or earth connections?
-
Waterproof them with silicone caulk or electrical tape (0% chose this)
-
Keep them as far apart as possible (0% chose this)
-
Bond them together with heavy wire or conductive strap (0% chose this)
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Tune them for resonance on the lowest frequency of operation (0% chose this)
What hazard occurs when rapidly charging or discharging an unprotected battery?
-
Overheating or out-gassing (0% chose this)
-
Excess output ripple (0% chose this)
-
Electric shock (0% chose this)
-
Overvoltage (0% chose this)
What hazard exists in a power supply immediately after turning it off?
-
Circulating currents in the dc filter (0% chose this)
-
Leakage flux in the power transformer (0% chose this)
-
Voltage transients from kickback diodes (0% chose this)
-
Charge stored in filter capacitors (0% chose this)
Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring high voltages with a voltmeter?
-
Ensure that the voltmeter has very low impedance (0% chose this)
-
Ensure that the voltmeter and its leads are rated for use at the voltages being measured (0% chose this)
-
Ensure that the circuit is grounded through the voltmeter (0% chose this)
-
Ensure that the voltmeter is set to the correct frequency (0% chose this)
Which of the following is good practice when installing ground wires on a tower for lightning protection?
-
Put a drip loop in the ground connection to prevent water damage to the ground system (0% chose this)
-
Make sure all ground wire bends are right angles (0% chose this)
-
Ensure that connections are short and direct (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What is required when climbing an antenna tower?
-
Have sufficient training on safe tower climbing techniques (0% chose this)
-
Use appropriate tie-off to the tower at all times (0% chose this)
-
Always wear an approved climbing harness (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Under what circumstances is it safe to climb a tower without a helper or observer?
-
When no electrical work is being performed (0% chose this)
-
When no mechanical work is being performed (0% chose this)
-
When the work being done is not more than 20 feet above the ground (0% chose this)
-
Never (0% chose this)
Which of the following is an important safety precaution to observe when putting up an antenna tower?
-
Wear a ground strap connected to your wrist at all times (0% chose this)
-
Insulate the base of the tower to avoid lightning strikes (0% chose this)
-
Look for and stay clear of any overhead electrical wires (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What is the purpose of a safety wire through a turnbuckle used to tension guy lines?
-
Secure the guy line if the turnbuckle breaks (0% chose this)
-
Prevent loosening of the turnbuckle from vibration (0% chose this)
-
Provide a ground path for lightning strikes (0% chose this)
-
Provide an ability to measure for proper tensioning (0% chose this)
What is the minimum safe distance from a power line to allow when installing an antenna?
-
Add the height of the antenna to the height of the power line and multiply by a factor of 1.5 (0% chose this)
-
The height of the power line above ground (0% chose this)
-
1/2 wavelength at the operating frequency (0% chose this)
-
Enough so that if the antenna falls, no part of it can come within 10 feet of the power wires (0% chose this)
Which of the following is an important safety rule to remember when using a crank-up tower?
-
This type of tower must never be painted (0% chose this)
-
This type of tower must never be grounded (0% chose this)
-
This type of tower must not be climbed unless it is retracted, or mechanical safety locking devices have been installed (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Which is a proper grounding method for a tower?
-
A single four-foot ground rod, driven into the ground no more than 12 inches from the base (0% chose this)
-
A ferrite-core RF choke connected between the tower and ground (0% chose this)
-
A connection between the tower base and a cold-water pipe (0% chose this)
-
Separate eight-foot ground rods for each tower leg, bonded to the tower and each other (0% chose this)
Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole?
-
The antenna will not work properly because of induced voltages (0% chose this)
-
The antenna may unbalance the power transformer, causing power fluctuations (0% chose this)
-
The antenna could contact high-voltage power lines (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Which of the following is true when installing grounding conductors used for lightning protection?
-
Use only non-insulated wire (0% chose this)
-
Wires must be carefully routed with precise right-angle bends (0% chose this)
-
Sharp bends must be avoided (0% chose this)
-
Common grounds must be avoided (0% chose this)
Which of the following establishes grounding requirements for an amateur radio tower or antenna?
-
FCC Part 97 rules (0% chose this)
-
Local electrical codes (0% chose this)
-
FAA tower lighting regulations (0% chose this)
-
UL recommended practices (0% chose this)
What type of radiation are radio signals?
-
Gamma radiation (0% chose this)
-
Ionizing radiation (0% chose this)
-
Alpha radiation (0% chose this)
-
Non-ionizing radiation (0% chose this)
Which of the following bands has the lowest maximum permissible exposure for RF safety?
-
3.5 MHz (0% chose this)
-
50 MHz (0% chose this)
-
440 MHz (0% chose this)
-
1296 MHz (0% chose this)
How does the allowable power density for RF safety change if duty cycle changes from 100 percent to 50 percent?
-
It increases by a factor of 3 (0% chose this)
-
It decreases by 50 percent (0% chose this)
-
It increases by a factor of 2 (0% chose this)
-
There is no adjustment allowed for lower duty cycle (0% chose this)
What factors affect the RF exposure of people near an amateur station antenna?
-
Frequency and power level of the RF field (0% chose this)
-
Distance from the antenna to a person (0% chose this)
-
Radiation pattern of the antenna (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Why do exposure limits vary with frequency?
-
Lower frequency RF fields have more energy than higher frequency fields (0% chose this)
-
Lower frequency RF fields do not penetrate the human body (0% chose this)
-
Higher frequency RF fields are transient in nature (0% chose this)
-
The human body absorbs more RF energy at some frequencies than at others (0% chose this)
Which of the following is an acceptable method to determine whether your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?
-
By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65 (0% chose this)
-
By calculation based on computer modeling (0% chose this)
-
By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
What hazard is created by touching an antenna during a transmission?
-
Electrocution (0% chose this)
-
RF burn to skin (0% chose this)
-
Exposure to ionizing radiation (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
Which of the following actions can reduce exposure to RF radiation?
-
Relocate antennas (0% chose this)
-
Relocate the transmitter (0% chose this)
-
Increase the duty cycle (0% chose this)
-
All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
How can you make sure your station stays in compliance with RF safety regulations?
-
By informing the FCC of any changes made in your station (0% chose this)
-
By re-evaluating the station whenever an item in the transmitter or antenna system is changed (0% chose this)
-
By making sure your antennas have low SWR (0% chose this)
-
By using only Underwriter Laboratories approved transmitting equipment (0% chose this)
Why is duty cycle one of the factors used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels?
-
It affects the average exposure to radiation (0% chose this)
-
It affects the peak exposure to radiation (0% chose this)
-
It takes into account the antenna feed line loss (0% chose this)
-
It takes into account the thermal effects of the final amplifier (0% chose this)
What is the definition of duty cycle during the averaging time for RF exposure?
-
The difference between the lowest and highest power output of a transmitter (0% chose this)
-
The difference between the PEP and the average power output of a transmitter (0% chose this)
-
The percentage of time that a transmitter is transmitting (0% chose this)
-
The percentage of time that a transmitter is not transmitting (0% chose this)
How does RF radiation differ from ionizing radiation (radioactivity)?
-
RF radiation does not have sufficient energy to cause chemical changes in cells and damage DNA (0% chose this)
-
RF radiation can only be detected with an RF dosimeter (0% chose this)
-
RF radiation is limited in range to a few feet (0% chose this)
-
RF radiation is perfectly safe (0% chose this)
Who is responsible for ensuring that no person is exposed to RF energy above the FCC exposure limits?
-
The FCC (0% chose this)
-
The station licensee (0% chose this)
-
Anyone who is near an antenna (0% chose this)
-
The local zoning board (0% chose this)
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