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2022 Technician pool
410 / 411 questions need explanations
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Which of the following is part of the Basis and Purpose of the Amateur Radio Service?
  • Providing personal radio communications for as many citizens as possible (0% chose this)
  • Providing communications for international non-profit organizations (0% chose this)
  • Advancing skills in the technical and communication phases of the radio art (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which agency regulates and enforces the rules for the Amateur Radio Service in the United States?
  • FEMA (0% chose this)
  • Homeland Security (0% chose this)
  • The FCC (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What do the FCC rules state regarding the use of a phonetic alphabet for station identification in the Amateur Radio Service?
  • It is required when transmitting emergency messages (0% chose this)
  • It is encouraged (0% chose this)
  • It is required when in contact with foreign stations (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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How many operator/primary station license grants may be held by any one person?
  • One (0% chose this)
  • No more than two (0% chose this)
  • One for each band on which the person plans to operate (0% chose this)
  • One for each permanent station location from which the person plans to operate (0% chose this)
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What proves that the FCC has issued an operator/primary license grant?
  • A printed copy of the certificate of successful completion of examination (0% chose this)
  • An email notification from the NCVEC granting the license (0% chose this)
  • The license appears in the FCC ULS database (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a beacon?
  • A government transmitter marking the amateur radio band edges (0% chose this)
  • A bulletin sent by the FCC to announce a national emergency (0% chose this)
  • A continuous transmission of weather information authorized in the amateur bands by the National Weather Service (0% chose this)
  • An amateur station transmitting communications for the purposes of observing propagation or related experimental activities (0% chose this)
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What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a space station?
  • Any satellite orbiting Earth (0% chose this)
  • A manned satellite orbiting Earth (0% chose this)
  • An amateur station located more than 50 km above Earth's surface (0% chose this)
  • An amateur station using amateur radio satellites for relay of signals (0% chose this)
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Which of the following entities recommends transmit/receive channels and other parameters for auxiliary and repeater stations?
  • Frequency Spectrum Manager appointed by the FCC (0% chose this)
  • Volunteer Frequency Coordinator recognized by local amateurs (0% chose this)
  • FCC Regional Field Office (0% chose this)
  • International Telecommunication Union (0% chose this)
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Who selects a Frequency Coordinator?
  • The FCC Office of Spectrum Management and Coordination Policy (0% chose this)
  • The local chapter of the Office of National Council of Independent Frequency Coordinators (0% chose this)
  • Amateur operators in a local or regional area whose stations are eligible to be repeater or auxiliary stations (0% chose this)
  • FCC Regional Field Office (0% chose this)
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What is the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)?
  • A radio service using amateur frequencies for emergency management or civil defense communications (0% chose this)
  • A radio service using amateur stations for emergency management or civil defense communications (0% chose this)
  • An emergency service using amateur operators certified by a civil defense organization as being enrolled in that organization (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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When is willful interference to other amateur radio stations permitted?
  • To stop another amateur station that is breaking the FCC rules (0% chose this)
  • At no time (0% chose this)
  • When making short test transmissions (0% chose this)
  • At any time, stations in the Amateur Radio Service are not protected from willful interference (0% chose this)
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Which of the following frequency ranges are available for phone operation by Technician licensees?
  • 28.050 MHz to 28.150 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 28.100 MHz to 28.300 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 28.300 MHz to 28.500 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 28.500 MHz to 28.600 MHz (0% chose this)
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Which amateurs may contact the International Space Station (ISS) on VHF bands?
  • Any amateur holding a General class or higher license (0% chose this)
  • Any amateur holding a Technician class or higher license (0% chose this)
  • Any amateur holding a General class or higher license who has applied for and received approval from NASA (0% chose this)
  • Any amateur holding a Technician class or higher license who has applied for and received approval from NASA (0% chose this)
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Which frequency is in the 6 meter amateur band?
  • 49.00 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 52.525 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 28.50 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 222.15 MHz (0% chose this)
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Which amateur band includes 146.52 MHz?
  • 6 meters (0% chose this)
  • 20 meters (0% chose this)
  • 70 centimeters (0% chose this)
  • 2 meters (0% chose this)
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How may amateurs use the 219 to 220 MHz segment of 1.25 meter band?
  • Spread spectrum only (0% chose this)
  • Fast-scan television only (0% chose this)
  • Emergency traffic only (0% chose this)
  • Fixed digital message forwarding systems only (0% chose this)
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On which HF bands does a Technician class operator have phone privileges?
  • None (0% chose this)
  • 10 meter band only (0% chose this)
  • 80 meter, 40 meter, 15 meter, and 10 meter bands (0% chose this)
  • 30 meter band only (0% chose this)
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Which of the following VHF/UHF band segments are limited to CW only?
  • 50.0 MHz to 50.1 MHz and 144.0 MHz to 144.1 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 219 MHz to 220 MHz and 420.0 MHz to 420.1 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 902.0 MHz to 902.1 MHz (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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How are US amateurs restricted in segments of bands where the Amateur Radio Service is secondary?
  • U.S. amateurs may find non-amateur stations in those segments, and must avoid interfering with them (0% chose this)
  • U.S. amateurs must give foreign amateur stations priority in those segments (0% chose this)
  • International communications are not permitted in those segments (0% chose this)
  • Digital transmissions are not permitted in those segments (0% chose this)
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Why should you not set your transmit frequency to be exactly at the edge of an amateur band or sub-band?
  • To allow for calibration error in the transmitter frequency display (0% chose this)
  • So that modulation sidebands do not extend beyond the band edge (0% chose this)
  • To allow for transmitter frequency drift (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Where may SSB phone be used in amateur bands above 50 MHz?
  • Only in sub-bands allocated to General class or higher licensees (0% chose this)
  • Only on repeaters (0% chose this)
  • In at least some segment of all these bands (0% chose this)
  • On any band if the power is limited to 25 watts (0% chose this)
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What is the maximum peak envelope power output for Technician class operators in their HF band segments?
  • 200 watts (0% chose this)
  • 100 watts (0% chose this)
  • 50 watts (0% chose this)
  • 10 watts (0% chose this)
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Except for some specific restrictions, what is the maximum peak envelope power output for Technician class operators using frequencies above 30 MHz?
  • 50 watts (0% chose this)
  • 100 watts (0% chose this)
  • 500 watts (0% chose this)
  • 1500 watts (0% chose this)
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For which license classes are new licenses currently available from the FCC?
  • Novice, Technician, General, Amateur Extra (0% chose this)
  • Technician, Technician Plus, General, Amateur Extra (0% chose this)
  • Novice, Technician Plus, General, Advanced (0% chose this)
  • Technician, General, Amateur Extra (0% chose this)
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Who may select a desired call sign under the vanity call sign rules?
  • Only a licensed amateur with a General or Amateur Extra Class license (0% chose this)
  • Only a licensed amateur with an Amateur Extra Class license (0% chose this)
  • Only a licensed amateur who has been licensed continuously for more than 10 years (0% chose this)
  • Any licensed amateur (0% chose this)
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What types of international communications are an FCC-licensed amateur radio station permitted to make?
  • Communications incidental to the purposes of the Amateur Radio Service and remarks of a personal character (0% chose this)
  • Communications incidental to conducting business or remarks of a personal nature (0% chose this)
  • Only communications incidental to contest exchanges; all other communications are prohibited (0% chose this)
  • Any communications that would be permitted by an international broadcast station (0% chose this)
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What may happen if the FCC is unable to reach you by email?
  • Fine and suspension of operator license (0% chose this)
  • Revocation of the station license or suspension of the operator license (0% chose this)
  • Revocation of access to the license record in the FCC system (0% chose this)
  • Nothing; there is no such requirement (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a valid Technician class call sign format?
  • KF1XXX (0% chose this)
  • KA1X (0% chose this)
  • W1XX (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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From which of the following locations may an FCC-licensed amateur station transmit?
  • From within any country that belongs to the International Telecommunication Union (0% chose this)
  • From within any country that is a member of the United Nations (0% chose this)
  • From anywhere within International Telecommunication Union (ITU) Regions 2 and 3 (0% chose this)
  • From any vessel or craft located in international waters and documented or registered in the United States (0% chose this)
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Which of the following can result in revocation of the station license or suspension of the operator license?
  • Failure to inform the FCC of any changes in the amateur station following performance of an RF safety environmental evaluation (0% chose this)
  • Failure to provide and maintain a correct email address with the FCC (0% chose this)
  • Failure to obtain FCC type acceptance prior to using a home-built transmitter (0% chose this)
  • Failure to have a copy of your license available at your station (0% chose this)
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What is the normal term for an FCC-issued amateur radio license?
  • Five years (0% chose this)
  • Life (0% chose this)
  • Ten years (0% chose this)
  • Eight years (0% chose this)
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What is the grace period for renewal if an amateur license expires?
  • Two years (0% chose this)
  • Three years (0% chose this)
  • Five years (0% chose this)
  • Ten years (0% chose this)
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How soon after passing the examination for your first amateur radio license may you transmit on the amateur radio bands?
  • Immediately on receiving your Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) (0% chose this)
  • As soon as your operator/station license grant appears on the ARRL website (0% chose this)
  • As soon as your operator/station license grant appears in the FCC’s license database (0% chose this)
  • As soon as you receive your license in the mail from the FCC (0% chose this)
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If your license has expired and is still within the allowable grace period, may you continue to transmit on the amateur radio bands?
  • Yes, for up to two years (0% chose this)
  • Yes, as soon as you apply for renewal (0% chose this)
  • Yes, for up to one year (0% chose this)
  • No, you must wait until the license has been renewed (0% chose this)
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With which countries are FCC-licensed amateur radio stations prohibited from exchanging communications?
  • Any country whose administration has notified the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) that it objects to such communications (0% chose this)
  • Any country whose administration has notified the American Radio Relay League (ARRL) that it objects to such communications (0% chose this)
  • Any country banned from such communications by the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU) (0% chose this)
  • Any country banned from making such communications by the American Radio Relay League (ARRL) (0% chose this)
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Under which of the following circumstances are one-way transmissions by an amateur station prohibited?
  • In all circumstances (0% chose this)
  • Broadcasting (0% chose this)
  • International Morse Code Practice (0% chose this)
  • Telecommand or transmissions of telemetry (0% chose this)
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When is it permissible to transmit messages encoded to obscure their meaning?
  • Only during contests (0% chose this)
  • Only when transmitting certain approved digital codes (0% chose this)
  • Only when transmitting control commands to space stations or radio control craft (0% chose this)
  • Never (0% chose this)
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Under what conditions is an amateur station authorized to transmit music using a phone emission?
  • When incidental to an authorized retransmission of manned spacecraft communications (0% chose this)
  • When the music produces no spurious emissions (0% chose this)
  • When transmissions are limited to less than three minutes per hour (0% chose this)
  • When the music is transmitted above 1280 MHz (0% chose this)
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When may amateur radio operators use their stations to notify other amateurs of the availability of equipment for sale or trade?
  • Never (0% chose this)
  • When the equipment is not the personal property of either the station licensee, or the control operator, or their close relatives (0% chose this)
  • When no profit is made on the sale (0% chose this)
  • When selling amateur radio equipment and not on a regular basis (0% chose this)
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What, if any, are the restrictions concerning transmission of language that may be considered indecent or obscene?
  • The FCC maintains a list of words that are not permitted to be used on amateur frequencies (0% chose this)
  • Any such language is prohibited (0% chose this)
  • The ITU maintains a list of words that are not permitted to be used on amateur frequencies (0% chose this)
  • There is no such prohibition (0% chose this)
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What types of amateur stations can automatically retransmit the signals of other amateur stations?
  • Auxiliary, beacon, or Earth stations (0% chose this)
  • Earth, repeater, or space stations (0% chose this)
  • Beacon, repeater, or space stations (0% chose this)
  • Repeater, auxiliary, or space stations (0% chose this)
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In which of the following circumstances may the control operator of an amateur station receive compensation for operating that station?
  • When the communication is related to the sale of amateur equipment by the control operator's employer (0% chose this)
  • When the communication is incidental to classroom instruction at an educational institution (0% chose this)
  • When the communication is made to obtain emergency information for a local broadcast station (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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When may amateur stations transmit information in support of broadcasting, program production, or news gathering, assuming no other means is available?
  • When such communications are directly related to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property (0% chose this)
  • When broadcasting communications to or from the space shuttle (0% chose this)
  • Where noncommercial programming is gathered and supplied exclusively to the National Public Radio network (0% chose this)
  • Never (0% chose this)
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How does the FCC define broadcasting for the Amateur Radio Service?
  • Two-way transmissions by amateur stations (0% chose this)
  • Any transmission made by the licensed station (0% chose this)
  • Transmission of messages directed only to amateur operators (0% chose this)
  • Transmissions intended for reception by the general public (0% chose this)
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When may an amateur station transmit without identifying on the air?
  • When the transmissions are of a brief nature to make station adjustments (0% chose this)
  • When the transmissions are unmodulated (0% chose this)
  • When the transmitted power level is below 1 watt (0% chose this)
  • When transmitting signals to control model craft (0% chose this)
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When may an amateur station transmit without a control operator?
  • When using automatic control, such as in the case of a repeater (0% chose this)
  • When the station licensee is away and another licensed amateur is using the station (0% chose this)
  • When the transmitting station is an auxiliary station (0% chose this)
  • Never (0% chose this)
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Who may be the control operator of a station communicating through an amateur satellite or space station?
  • Only an Amateur Extra Class operator (0% chose this)
  • A General class or higher licensee with a satellite operator certification (0% chose this)
  • Only an Amateur Extra Class operator who is also an AMSAT member (0% chose this)
  • Any amateur allowed to transmit on the satellite uplink frequency (0% chose this)
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Who must designate the station control operator?
  • The station licensee (0% chose this)
  • The FCC (0% chose this)
  • The frequency coordinator (0% chose this)
  • Any licensed operator (0% chose this)
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What determines the transmitting frequency privileges of an amateur station?
  • The frequency authorized by the frequency coordinator (0% chose this)
  • The frequencies printed on the license grant (0% chose this)
  • The highest class of operator license held by anyone on the premises (0% chose this)
  • The class of operator license held by the control operator (0% chose this)
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What is an amateur station’s control point?
  • The location of the station’s transmitting antenna (0% chose this)
  • The location of the station’s transmitting apparatus (0% chose this)
  • The location at which the control operator function is performed (0% chose this)
  • The mailing address of the station licensee (0% chose this)
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When, under normal circumstances, may a Technician class licensee be the control operator of a station operating in an Amateur Extra Class band segment?
  • At no time (0% chose this)
  • When designated as the control operator by an Amateur Extra Class licensee (0% chose this)
  • As part of a multi-operator contest team (0% chose this)
  • When using a club station whose trustee holds an Amateur Extra Class license (0% chose this)
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When the control operator is not the station licensee, who is responsible for the proper operation of the station?
  • All licensed amateurs who are present at the operation (0% chose this)
  • Only the station licensee (0% chose this)
  • Only the control operator (0% chose this)
  • The control operator and the station licensee (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is an example of automatic control?
  • Repeater operation (0% chose this)
  • Controlling a station over the internet (0% chose this)
  • Using a computer or other device to send CW automatically (0% chose this)
  • Using a computer or other device to identify automatically (0% chose this)
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Which of the following are required for remote control operation?
  • The control operator must be at the control point (0% chose this)
  • A control operator is required at all times (0% chose this)
  • The control operator must indirectly manipulate the controls (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is an example of remote control as defined in Part 97?
  • Repeater operation (0% chose this)
  • Operating the station over the internet (0% chose this)
  • Controlling a model aircraft, boat, or car by amateur radio (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Who does the FCC presume to be the control operator of an amateur station, unless documentation to the contrary is in the station records?
  • The station custodian (0% chose this)
  • The third party participant (0% chose this)
  • The person operating the station equipment (0% chose this)
  • The station licensee (0% chose this)
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When must the station and its records be available for FCC inspection?
  • At any time ten days after notification by the FCC of such an inspection (0% chose this)
  • At any time upon request by an FCC representative (0% chose this)
  • At any time after written notification by the FCC of such inspection (0% chose this)
  • Only when presented with a valid warrant by an FCC official or government agent (0% chose this)
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How often must you identify with your FCC-assigned call sign when using tactical call signs such as “Race Headquarters”?
  • Never, the tactical call is sufficient (0% chose this)
  • Once during every hour (0% chose this)
  • At the end of each communication and every ten minutes during a communication (0% chose this)
  • At the end of every transmission (0% chose this)
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When are you required to transmit your assigned call sign?
  • At the beginning of each contact, and every 10 minutes thereafter (0% chose this)
  • At least once during each transmission (0% chose this)
  • At least every 15 minutes during and at the end of a communication (0% chose this)
  • At least every 10 minutes during and at the end of a communication (0% chose this)
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What language may you use for identification when operating in a phone sub-band?
  • Any language recognized by the United Nations (0% chose this)
  • Any language recognized by the ITU (0% chose this)
  • English (0% chose this)
  • English, French, or Spanish (0% chose this)
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What method of call sign identification is required for a station transmitting phone signals?
  • Send the call sign followed by the indicator RPT (0% chose this)
  • Send the call sign using a CW or phone emission (0% chose this)
  • Send the call sign followed by the indicator R (0% chose this)
  • Send the call sign using only a phone emission (0% chose this)
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Which of the following self-assigned indicators are acceptable when using a phone transmission?
  • KL7CC stroke W3 (0% chose this)
  • KL7CC slant W3 (0% chose this)
  • KL7CC slash W3 (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following restrictions apply when a non-licensed person is allowed to speak to a foreign station using a station under the control of a licensed amateur operator?
  • The person must be a U.S. citizen (0% chose this)
  • The foreign station must be in a country with which the U.S. has a third party agreement (0% chose this)
  • The licensed control operator must do the station identification (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is the definition of third party communications?
  • A message from a control operator to another amateur station control operator on behalf of another person (0% chose this)
  • Amateur radio communications where three stations are in communications with one another (0% chose this)
  • Operation when the transmitting equipment is licensed to a person other than the control operator (0% chose this)
  • Temporary authorization for an unlicensed person to transmit on the amateur bands for technical experiments (0% chose this)
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What type of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signal of another amateur station on a different channel or channels?
  • Beacon station (0% chose this)
  • Earth station (0% chose this)
  • Repeater station (0% chose this)
  • Message forwarding station (0% chose this)
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Who is accountable if a repeater inadvertently retransmits communications that violate the FCC rules?
  • The control operator of the originating station (0% chose this)
  • The control operator of the repeater (0% chose this)
  • The owner of the repeater (0% chose this)
  • Both the originating station and the repeater owner (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a requirement for the issuance of a club station license grant?
  • The trustee must have an Amateur Extra Class operator license grant (0% chose this)
  • The club must have at least four members (0% chose this)
  • The club must be registered with the American Radio Relay League (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is a common repeater frequency offset in the 2 meter band?
  • Plus or minus 5 MHz (0% chose this)
  • Plus or minus 600 kHz (0% chose this)
  • Plus or minus 500 kHz (0% chose this)
  • Plus or minus 1 MHz (0% chose this)
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What is the national calling frequency for FM simplex operations in the 2 meter band?
  • 146.520 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 145.000 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 432.100 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 446.000 MHz (0% chose this)
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What is a common repeater frequency offset in the 70 cm band?
  • Plus or minus 5 MHz (0% chose this)
  • Plus or minus 600 kHz (0% chose this)
  • Plus or minus 500 kHz (0% chose this)
  • Plus or minus 1 MHz (0% chose this)
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What is an appropriate way to call another station on a repeater if you know the other station's call sign?
  • Say "break, break," then say the station's call sign (0% chose this)
  • Say the station's call sign, then identify with your call sign (0% chose this)
  • Say "CQ" three times, then the other station's call sign (0% chose this)
  • Wait for the station to call CQ, then answer (0% chose this)
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How should you respond to a station calling CQ?
  • Transmit "CQ" followed by the other station’s call sign (0% chose this)
  • Transmit your call sign followed by the other station’s call sign (0% chose this)
  • Transmit the other station’s call sign followed by your call sign (0% chose this)
  • Transmit a signal report followed by your call sign (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is required when making on-the-air test transmissions?
  • Identify the transmitting station (0% chose this)
  • Conduct tests only between 10 p.m. and 6 a.m. local time (0% chose this)
  • Notify the FCC of the transmissions (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is meant by "repeater offset”?
  • The difference between a repeater’s transmit and receive frequencies (0% chose this)
  • The repeater has a time delay to prevent interference (0% chose this)
  • The repeater station identification is done on a separate frequency (0% chose this)
  • The number of simultaneous transmit frequencies used by a repeater (0% chose this)
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What is the meaning of the procedural signal “CQ”?
  • Call on the quarter hour (0% chose this)
  • Test transmission, no reply expected (0% chose this)
  • Only the called station should transmit (0% chose this)
  • Calling any station (0% chose this)
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Which of the following indicates that a station is listening on a repeater and looking for a contact?
  • “CQ CQ” followed by the repeater’s call sign (0% chose this)
  • The station’s call sign followed by the word “monitoring” (0% chose this)
  • The repeater call sign followed by the station’s call sign (0% chose this)
  • “QSY” followed by your call sign (0% chose this)
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What is a band plan, beyond the privileges established by the FCC?
  • A voluntary guideline for using different modes or activities within an amateur band (0% chose this)
  • A list of operating schedules (0% chose this)
  • A list of available net frequencies (0% chose this)
  • A plan devised by a club to indicate frequency band usage (0% chose this)
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What term describes an amateur station that is transmitting and receiving on the same frequency?
  • Full duplex (0% chose this)
  • Diplex (0% chose this)
  • Simplex (0% chose this)
  • Multiplex (0% chose this)
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What should you do before calling CQ?
  • Listen first to be sure that no one else is using the frequency (0% chose this)
  • Ask if the frequency is in use (0% chose this)
  • Make sure you are authorized to use that frequency (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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How is a VHF/UHF transceiver’s “reverse” function used?
  • To reduce power output (0% chose this)
  • To increase power output (0% chose this)
  • To listen on a repeater’s input frequency (0% chose this)
  • To listen on a repeater’s output frequency (0% chose this)
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What term describes the use of a sub-audible tone transmitted along with normal voice audio to open the squelch of a receiver?
  • Carrier squelch (0% chose this)
  • Tone burst (0% chose this)
  • DTMF (0% chose this)
  • CTCSS (0% chose this)
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Which of the following describes a linked repeater network?
  • A network of repeaters in which signals received by one repeater are transmitted by all the repeaters in the network (0% chose this)
  • A single repeater with more than one receiver (0% chose this)
  • Multiple repeaters with the same control operator (0% chose this)
  • A system of repeaters linked by APRS (0% chose this)
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Which of the following could be the reason you are unable to access a repeater whose output you can hear?
  • Improper transceiver offset (0% chose this)
  • You are using the wrong CTCSS tone (0% chose this)
  • You are using the wrong DCS code (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What would cause your FM transmission audio to be distorted on voice peaks?
  • Your repeater offset is inverted (0% chose this)
  • You need to talk louder (0% chose this)
  • You are talking too loudly (0% chose this)
  • Your transmit power is too high (0% chose this)
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What type of signaling uses pairs of audio tones?
  • DTMF (0% chose this)
  • CTCSS (0% chose this)
  • GPRS (0% chose this)
  • D-STAR (0% chose this)
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How can you join a digital repeater’s “talkgroup”?
  • Register your radio with the local FCC office (0% chose this)
  • Join the repeater owner’s club (0% chose this)
  • Program your radio with the group’s ID or code (0% chose this)
  • Sign your call after the courtesy tone (0% chose this)
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Which of the following applies when two stations transmitting on the same frequency interfere with each other?
  • The stations should negotiate continued use of the frequency (0% chose this)
  • Both stations should choose another frequency to avoid conflict (0% chose this)
  • Interference is inevitable, so no action is required (0% chose this)
  • Use subaudible tones so both stations can share the frequency (0% chose this)
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Why are simplex channels designated in the VHF/UHF band plans?
  • So stations within range of each other can communicate without tying up a repeater (0% chose this)
  • For contest operation (0% chose this)
  • For working DX only (0% chose this)
  • So stations with simple transmitters can access the repeater without automated offset (0% chose this)
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Which Q signal indicates that you are receiving interference from other stations?
  • QRM (0% chose this)
  • QRN (0% chose this)
  • QTH (0% chose this)
  • QSB (0% chose this)
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Which Q signal indicates that you are changing frequency?
  • QRU (0% chose this)
  • QSY (0% chose this)
  • QSL (0% chose this)
  • QRZ (0% chose this)
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What is the purpose of the color code used on DMR repeater systems?
  • Must match the repeater color code for access (0% chose this)
  • Defines the frequency pair to use (0% chose this)
  • Identifies the codec used (0% chose this)
  • Defines the minimum signal level required for access (0% chose this)
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What is the purpose of a squelch function?
  • Reduce a CW transmitter's key clicks (0% chose this)
  • Mute the receiver audio when a signal is not present (0% chose this)
  • Eliminate parasitic oscillations in an RF amplifier (0% chose this)
  • Reduce interference from impulse noise (0% chose this)
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When do FCC rules NOT apply to the operation of an amateur station?
  • When operating a RACES station (0% chose this)
  • When operating under special FEMA rules (0% chose this)
  • When operating under special ARES rules (0% chose this)
  • FCC rules always apply (0% chose this)
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Which of the following are typical duties of a Net Control Station?
  • Choose the regular net meeting time and frequency (0% chose this)
  • Ensure that all stations checking into the net are properly licensed for operation on the net frequency (0% chose this)
  • Call the net to order and direct communications between stations checking in (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What technique is used to ensure that voice messages containing unusual words are received correctly?
  • Send the words by voice and Morse code (0% chose this)
  • Speak very loudly into the microphone (0% chose this)
  • Spell the words using a standard phonetic alphabet (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is RACES?
  • An emergency organization combining amateur radio and citizens band operators and frequencies (0% chose this)
  • An international radio experimentation society (0% chose this)
  • A radio contest held in a short period, sometimes called a “sprint” (0% chose this)
  • An FCC part 97 amateur radio service for civil defense communications during national emergencies (0% chose this)
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What does the term “traffic” refer to in net operation?
  • Messages exchanged by net stations (0% chose this)
  • The number of stations checking in and out of a net (0% chose this)
  • Operation by mobile or portable stations (0% chose this)
  • Requests to activate the net by a served agency (0% chose this)
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What is the Amateur Radio Emergency Service (ARES)?
  • A group of licensed amateurs who have voluntarily registered their qualifications and equipment for communications duty in the public service (0% chose this)
  • A group of licensed amateurs who are members of the military and who voluntarily agreed to provide message handling services in the case of an emergency (0% chose this)
  • A training program that provides licensing courses for those interested in obtaining an amateur license to use during emergencies (0% chose this)
  • A training program that certifies amateur operators for membership in the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is standard practice when you participate in a net?
  • When first responding to the net control station, transmit your call sign, name, and address as in the FCC database (0% chose this)
  • Record the time of each of your transmissions (0% chose this)
  • Unless you are reporting an emergency, transmit only when directed by the net control station (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a characteristic of good traffic handling?
  • Passing messages exactly as received (0% chose this)
  • Making decisions as to whether messages are worthy of relay or delivery (0% chose this)
  • Ensuring that any newsworthy messages are relayed to the news media (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Are amateur station control operators ever permitted to operate outside the frequency privileges of their license class?
  • No (0% chose this)
  • Yes, but only when part of a FEMA emergency plan (0% chose this)
  • Yes, but only when part of a RACES emergency plan (0% chose this)
  • Yes, but only in situations involving the immediate safety of human life or protection of property (0% chose this)
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What information is contained in the preamble of a formal traffic message?
  • The email address of the originating station (0% chose this)
  • The address of the intended recipient (0% chose this)
  • The telephone number of the addressee (0% chose this)
  • Information needed to track the message (0% chose this)
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What is meant by “check” in a radiogram header?
  • The number of words or word equivalents in the text portion of the message (0% chose this)
  • The call sign of the originating station (0% chose this)
  • A list of stations that have relayed the message (0% chose this)
  • A box on the message form that indicates that the message was received and/or relayed (0% chose this)
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Why do VHF signal strengths sometimes vary greatly when the antenna is moved only a few feet?
  • The signal path encounters different concentrations of water vapor (0% chose this)
  • VHF ionospheric propagation is very sensitive to path length (0% chose this)
  • Multipath propagation cancels or reinforces signals (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is the effect of vegetation on UHF and microwave signals?
  • Knife-edge diffraction (0% chose this)
  • Absorption (0% chose this)
  • Amplification (0% chose this)
  • Polarization rotation (0% chose this)
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What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance CW and SSB contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?
  • Right-hand circular (0% chose this)
  • Left-hand circular (0% chose this)
  • Horizontal (0% chose this)
  • Vertical (0% chose this)
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What happens when antennas at opposite ends of a VHF or UHF line of sight radio link are not using the same polarization?
  • The modulation sidebands might become inverted (0% chose this)
  • Received signal strength is reduced (0% chose this)
  • Signals have an echo effect (0% chose this)
  • Nothing significant will happen (0% chose this)
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When using a directional antenna, how might your station be able to communicate with a distant repeater if buildings or obstructions are blocking the direct line of sight path?
  • Change from vertical to horizontal polarization (0% chose this)
  • Try to find a path that reflects signals to the repeater (0% chose this)
  • Try the long path (0% chose this)
  • Increase the antenna SWR (0% chose this)
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What is the meaning of the term “picket fencing”?
  • Alternating transmissions during a net operation (0% chose this)
  • Rapid flutter on mobile signals due to multipath propagation (0% chose this)
  • A type of ground system used with vertical antennas (0% chose this)
  • Local vs long-distance communications (0% chose this)
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What weather condition might decrease range at microwave frequencies?
  • High winds (0% chose this)
  • Low barometric pressure (0% chose this)
  • Precipitation (0% chose this)
  • Colder temperatures (0% chose this)
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What is a likely cause of irregular fading of signals propagated by the ionosphere?
  • Frequency shift due to Faraday rotation (0% chose this)
  • Interference from thunderstorms (0% chose this)
  • Intermodulation distortion (0% chose this)
  • Random combining of signals arriving via different paths (0% chose this)
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Which of the following results from the fact that signals propagated by the ionosphere are elliptically polarized?
  • Digital modes are unusable (0% chose this)
  • Either vertically or horizontally polarized antennas may be used for transmission or reception (0% chose this)
  • FM voice is unusable (0% chose this)
  • Both the transmitting and receiving antennas must be of the same polarization (0% chose this)
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What effect does multi-path propagation have on data transmissions?
  • Transmission rates must be increased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed (0% chose this)
  • Transmission rates must be decreased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed (0% chose this)
  • No significant changes will occur if the signals are transmitted using FM (0% chose this)
  • Error rates are likely to increase (0% chose this)
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Which region of the atmosphere can refract or bend HF and VHF radio waves?
  • The stratosphere (0% chose this)
  • The troposphere (0% chose this)
  • The ionosphere (0% chose this)
  • The mesosphere (0% chose this)
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What is the effect of fog and rain on signals in the 10 meter and 6 meter bands?
  • Absorption (0% chose this)
  • There is little effect (0% chose this)
  • Deflection (0% chose this)
  • Range increase (0% chose this)
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What is the relationship between the electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave?
  • They travel at different speeds (0% chose this)
  • They are in parallel (0% chose this)
  • They revolve in opposite directions (0% chose this)
  • They are at right angles (0% chose this)
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What property of a radio wave defines its polarization?
  • The orientation of the electric field (0% chose this)
  • The orientation of the magnetic field (0% chose this)
  • The ratio of the energy in the magnetic field to the energy in the electric field (0% chose this)
  • The ratio of the velocity to the wavelength (0% chose this)
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What are the two components of a radio wave?
  • Impedance and reactance (0% chose this)
  • Voltage and current (0% chose this)
  • Electric and magnetic fields (0% chose this)
  • Ionizing and non-ionizing radiation (0% chose this)
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What is the velocity of a radio wave traveling through free space?
  • Speed of light (0% chose this)
  • Speed of sound (0% chose this)
  • Speed inversely proportional to its wavelength (0% chose this)
  • Speed that increases as the frequency increases (0% chose this)
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What is the relationship between wavelength and frequency?
  • Wavelength gets longer as frequency increases (0% chose this)
  • Wavelength gets shorter as frequency increases (0% chose this)
  • Wavelength and frequency are unrelated (0% chose this)
  • Wavelength and frequency increase as path length increases (0% chose this)
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What is the formula for converting frequency to approximate wavelength in meters?
  • Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz multiplied by 300 (0% chose this)
  • Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz divided by 300 (0% chose this)
  • Wavelength in meters equals frequency in megahertz divided by 300 (0% chose this)
  • Wavelength in meters equals 300 divided by frequency in megahertz (0% chose this)
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In addition to frequency, which of the following is used to identify amateur radio bands?
  • The approximate wavelength in meters (0% chose this)
  • Traditional letter/number designators (0% chose this)
  • Channel numbers (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What frequency range is referred to as VHF?
  • 30 kHz to 300 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 30 MHz to 300 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 300 kHz to 3000 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 300 MHz to 3000 MHz (0% chose this)
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What frequency range is referred to as UHF?
  • 30 to 300 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 30 to 300 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 300 to 3000 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 300 to 3000 MHz (0% chose this)
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What frequency range is referred to as HF?
  • 300 to 3000 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 30 to 300 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 3 to 30 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 300 to 3000 kHz (0% chose this)
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What is the approximate velocity of a radio wave in free space?
  • 150,000 meters per second (0% chose this)
  • 300,000,000 meters per second (0% chose this)
  • 300,000,000 miles per hour (0% chose this)
  • 150,000 miles per hour (0% chose this)
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Why are simplex UHF signals rarely heard beyond their radio horizon?
  • They are too weak to go very far (0% chose this)
  • FCC regulations prohibit them from going more than 50 miles (0% chose this)
  • UHF signals are usually not propagated by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
  • UHF signals are absorbed by the ionospheric D region (0% chose this)
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What is a characteristic of HF communication compared with communications on VHF and higher frequencies?
  • HF antennas are generally smaller (0% chose this)
  • HF accommodates wider bandwidth signals (0% chose this)
  • Long-distance ionospheric propagation is far more common on HF (0% chose this)
  • There is less atmospheric interference (static) on HF (0% chose this)
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What is a characteristic of VHF signals received via auroral backscatter?
  • They are often received from 10,000 miles or more (0% chose this)
  • They are distorted and signal strength varies considerably (0% chose this)
  • They occur only during winter nighttime hours (0% chose this)
  • They are generally strongest when your antenna is aimed west (0% chose this)
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Which of the following types of propagation is most commonly associated with occasional strong signals on the 10, 6, and 2 meter bands from beyond the radio horizon?
  • Backscatter (0% chose this)
  • Sporadic E (0% chose this)
  • D region absorption (0% chose this)
  • Gray-line propagation (0% chose this)
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Which of the following effects may allow radio signals to travel beyond obstructions between the transmitting and receiving stations?
  • Knife-edge diffraction (0% chose this)
  • Faraday rotation (0% chose this)
  • Quantum tunneling (0% chose this)
  • Doppler shift (0% chose this)
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What type of propagation is responsible for allowing over-the-horizon VHF and UHF communications to ranges of approximately 300 miles on a regular basis?
  • Tropospheric ducting (0% chose this)
  • D region refraction (0% chose this)
  • F2 region refraction (0% chose this)
  • Faraday rotation (0% chose this)
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What band is best suited for communicating via meteor scatter?
  • 33 centimeters (0% chose this)
  • 6 meters (0% chose this)
  • 2 meters (0% chose this)
  • 70 centimeters (0% chose this)
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What causes tropospheric ducting?
  • Discharges of lightning during electrical storms (0% chose this)
  • Sunspots and solar flares (0% chose this)
  • Updrafts from hurricanes and tornadoes (0% chose this)
  • Temperature inversions in the atmosphere (0% chose this)
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What is generally the best time for long-distance 10 meter band propagation via the F region?
  • From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of high sunspot activity (0% chose this)
  • From shortly after sunset to dawn during periods of high sunspot activity (0% chose this)
  • From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of low sunspot activity (0% chose this)
  • From shortly after sunset to dawn during periods of low sunspot activity (0% chose this)
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Which of the following bands may provide long-distance communications via the ionosphere’s F region during the peak of the sunspot cycle?
  • 6 and 10 meters (0% chose this)
  • 23 centimeters (0% chose this)
  • 70 centimeters and 1.25 meters (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Why is the radio horizon for VHF and UHF signals more distant than the visual horizon?
  • Radio signals move somewhat faster than the speed of light (0% chose this)
  • Radio waves are not blocked by dust particles (0% chose this)
  • The atmosphere refracts radio waves slightly (0% chose this)
  • Radio waves are blocked by dust particles (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is an appropriate power supply rating for a typical 50 watt output mobile FM transceiver?
  • 24.0 volts at 4 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 13.8 volts at 4 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 24.0 volts at 12 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 13.8 volts at 12 amperes (0% chose this)
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Which of the following should be considered when selecting an accessory SWR meter?
  • The frequency and power level at which the measurements will be made (0% chose this)
  • The distance that the meter will be located from the antenna (0% chose this)
  • The types of modulation being used at the station (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Why are short, heavy-gauge wires used for a transceiver’s DC power connection?
  • To minimize voltage drop when transmitting (0% chose this)
  • To provide a good counterpoise for the antenna (0% chose this)
  • To avoid RF interference (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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How are the transceiver audio input and output connected in a station configured to operate using FT8?
  • To a computer running a terminal program and connected to a terminal node controller unit (0% chose this)
  • To the audio input and output of a computer running WSJT-X software (0% chose this)
  • To an FT8 conversion unit, a keyboard, and a computer monitor (0% chose this)
  • To a computer connected to the FT8converter.com website (0% chose this)
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Where should an RF power meter be installed?
  • In the feed line, between the transmitter and antenna (0% chose this)
  • At the power supply output (0% chose this)
  • In parallel with the push-to-talk line and the antenna (0% chose this)
  • In the power supply cable, as close as possible to the radio (0% chose this)
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What signals are used in a computer-radio interface for digital mode operation?
  • Receive and transmit mode, status, and location (0% chose this)
  • Antenna and RF power (0% chose this)
  • Receive audio, transmit audio, and transmitter keying (0% chose this)
  • NMEA GPS location and DC power (0% chose this)
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Which of the following connections is made between a computer and a transceiver to use computer software when operating digital modes?
  • Computer “line out” to transceiver push-to-talk (0% chose this)
  • Computer “line in” to transceiver push-to-talk (0% chose this)
  • Computer “line in” to transceiver speaker connector (0% chose this)
  • Computer “line out” to transceiver speaker connector (0% chose this)
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Which of the following conductors is preferred for bonding at RF?
  • Copper braid removed from coaxial cable (0% chose this)
  • Steel wire (0% chose this)
  • Twisted-pair cable (0% chose this)
  • Flat copper strap (0% chose this)
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How can you determine the length of time that equipment can be powered from a battery?
  • Divide the watt-hour rating of the battery by the peak power consumption of the equipment (0% chose this)
  • Divide the battery ampere-hour rating by the average current draw of the equipment (0% chose this)
  • Multiply the watts per hour consumed by the equipment by the battery power rating (0% chose this)
  • Multiply the square of the current rating of the battery by the input resistance of the equipment (0% chose this)
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What function is performed with a transceiver and a digital mode hot spot?
  • Communication using digital voice or data systems via the internet (0% chose this)
  • FT8 digital communications via AFSK (0% chose this)
  • RTTY encoding and decoding without a computer (0% chose this)
  • High-speed digital communications for meteor scatter (0% chose this)
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Where should the negative power return of a mobile transceiver be connected in a vehicle?
  • At the 12 volt battery chassis ground (0% chose this)
  • At the antenna mount (0% chose this)
  • To any metal part of the vehicle (0% chose this)
  • Through the transceiver’s mounting bracket (0% chose this)
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What is an electronic keyer?
  • A device for switching antennas from transmit to receive (0% chose this)
  • A device for voice activated switching from receive to transmit (0% chose this)
  • A device that assists in manual sending of Morse code (0% chose this)
  • An interlock to prevent unauthorized use of a radio (0% chose this)
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What is the effect of excessive microphone gain on SSB transmissions?
  • Frequency instability (0% chose this)
  • Distorted transmitted audio (0% chose this)
  • Increased SWR (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following can be used to enter a transceiver’s operating frequency?
  • The keypad or VFO knob (0% chose this)
  • The CTCSS or DTMF encoder (0% chose this)
  • The Automatic Frequency Control (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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How is squelch adjusted so that a weak FM signal can be heard?
  • Set the squelch threshold so that receiver output audio is on all the time (0% chose this)
  • Turn up the audio level until it overcomes the squelch threshold (0% chose this)
  • Turn on the anti-squelch function (0% chose this)
  • Enable squelch enhancement (0% chose this)
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What is a way to enable quick access to a favorite frequency or channel on your transceiver?
  • Enable the frequency offset (0% chose this)
  • Store it in a memory channel (0% chose this)
  • Enable the VOX (0% chose this)
  • Use the scan mode to select the desired frequency (0% chose this)
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What does the scanning function of an FM transceiver do?
  • Checks incoming signal deviation (0% chose this)
  • Prevents interference to nearby repeaters (0% chose this)
  • Tunes through a range of frequencies to check for activity (0% chose this)
  • Checks for messages left on a digital bulletin board (0% chose this)
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Which of the following controls could be used if the voice pitch of a single-sideband signal returning to your CQ call seems too high or low?
  • The AGC or limiter (0% chose this)
  • The bandwidth selection (0% chose this)
  • The tone squelch (0% chose this)
  • The RIT or Clarifier (0% chose this)
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What does a DMR “code plug” contain?
  • Your call sign in CW for automatic identification (0% chose this)
  • Access information for repeaters and talkgroups (0% chose this)
  • The codec for digitizing audio (0% chose this)
  • The DMR software version (0% chose this)
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What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver?
  • Permits monitoring several modes at once by selecting a separate filter for each mode (0% chose this)
  • Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the mode (0% chose this)
  • Increases the number of frequencies that can be stored in memory (0% chose this)
  • Increases the amount of offset between receive and transmit frequencies (0% chose this)
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How is a specific group of stations selected on a digital voice transceiver?
  • By retrieving the frequencies from transceiver memory (0% chose this)
  • By enabling the group’s CTCSS tone (0% chose this)
  • By entering the group’s identification code (0% chose this)
  • By activating automatic identification (0% chose this)
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Which of the following receiver filter bandwidths provides the best signal-to-noise ratio for SSB reception?
  • 500 Hz (0% chose this)
  • 1000 Hz (0% chose this)
  • 2400 Hz (0% chose this)
  • 5000 Hz (0% chose this)
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Which of the following must be programmed into a D-STAR digital transceiver before transmitting?
  • Your call sign (0% chose this)
  • Your output power (0% chose this)
  • The codec type being used (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is the result of tuning an FM receiver above or below a signal’s frequency?
  • Change in audio pitch (0% chose this)
  • Sideband inversion (0% chose this)
  • Generation of a heterodyne tone (0% chose this)
  • Distortion of the signal’s audio (0% chose this)
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Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?
  • Volts (0% chose this)
  • Watts (0% chose this)
  • Ohms (0% chose this)
  • Amperes (0% chose this)
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Electrical power is measured in which of the following units?
  • Volts (0% chose this)
  • Watts (0% chose this)
  • Watt-hours (0% chose this)
  • Amperes (0% chose this)
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What is the name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?
  • Voltage (0% chose this)
  • Resistance (0% chose this)
  • Capacitance (0% chose this)
  • Current (0% chose this)
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What are the units of electrical resistance?
  • Siemens (0% chose this)
  • Mhos (0% chose this)
  • Ohms (0% chose this)
  • Coulombs (0% chose this)
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What is the electrical term for the force that causes electron flow?
  • Voltage (0% chose this)
  • Ampere-hours (0% chose this)
  • Capacitance (0% chose this)
  • Inductance (0% chose this)
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What is the unit of frequency?
  • Hertz (0% chose this)
  • Henry (0% chose this)
  • Farad (0% chose this)
  • Tesla (0% chose this)
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Why are metals generally good conductors of electricity?
  • They have relatively high density (0% chose this)
  • They have many free electrons (0% chose this)
  • They have many free protons (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a good electrical insulator?
  • Copper (0% chose this)
  • Glass (0% chose this)
  • Aluminum (0% chose this)
  • Mercury (0% chose this)
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Which of the following describes alternating current?
  • Current that alternates between a positive direction and zero (0% chose this)
  • Current that alternates between a negative direction and zero (0% chose this)
  • Current that alternates between positive and negative directions (0% chose this)
  • All these answers are correct (0% chose this)
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Which term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used?
  • Resistance (0% chose this)
  • Current (0% chose this)
  • Power (0% chose this)
  • Voltage (0% chose this)
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What type of current flow is opposed by resistance?
  • Direct current (0% chose this)
  • Alternating current (0% chose this)
  • RF current (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What describes the number of times per second that an alternating current makes a complete cycle?
  • Pulse rate (0% chose this)
  • Speed (0% chose this)
  • Wavelength (0% chose this)
  • Frequency (0% chose this)
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How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes?
  • 15 milliamperes (0% chose this)
  • 150 milliamperes (0% chose this)
  • 1500 milliamperes (0% chose this)
  • 15,000 milliamperes (0% chose this)
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Which is equal to 1,500,000 hertz?
  • 1500 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 1500 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 15 GHz (0% chose this)
  • 150 kHz (0% chose this)
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Which is equal to one kilovolt?
  • One one-thousandth of a volt (0% chose this)
  • One hundred volts (0% chose this)
  • One thousand volts (0% chose this)
  • One million volts (0% chose this)
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Which is equal to one microvolt?
  • One one-millionth of a volt (0% chose this)
  • One million volts (0% chose this)
  • One thousand kilovolts (0% chose this)
  • One one-thousandth of a volt (0% chose this)
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Which is equal to 500 milliwatts?
  • 0.02 watts (0% chose this)
  • 0.5 watts (0% chose this)
  • 5 watts (0% chose this)
  • 50 watts (0% chose this)
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Which is equal to 3000 milliamperes?
  • 0.003 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 0.3 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 3,000,000 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 3 amperes (0% chose this)
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Which is equal to 3.525 MHz?
  • 0.003525 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 35.25 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 3525 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 3,525,000 kHz (0% chose this)
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Which is equal to 1,000,000 picofarads?
  • 0.001 microfarads (0% chose this)
  • 1 microfarad (0% chose this)
  • 1000 microfarads (0% chose this)
  • 1,000,000,000 microfarads (0% chose this)
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Which decibel value most closely represents a power increase from 5 watts to 10 watts?
  • 2 dB (0% chose this)
  • 3 dB (0% chose this)
  • 5 dB (0% chose this)
  • 10 dB (0% chose this)
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Which decibel value most closely represents a power decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts?
  • -1 dB (0% chose this)
  • -3 dB (0% chose this)
  • -6 dB (0% chose this)
  • -9 dB (0% chose this)
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Which decibel value represents a power increase from 20 watts to 200 watts?
  • 10 dB (0% chose this)
  • 12 dB (0% chose this)
  • 18 dB (0% chose this)
  • 28 dB (0% chose this)
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Which is equal to 28400 kHz?
  • 28.400 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 2.800 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 284.00 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 28.400 MHz (0% chose this)
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Which is equal to 2425 MHz?
  • 0.002425 GHz (0% chose this)
  • 24.25 GHz (0% chose this)
  • 2.425 GHz (0% chose this)
  • 2425 GHz (0% chose this)
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What describes the ability to store energy in an electric field?
  • Inductance (0% chose this)
  • Resistance (0% chose this)
  • Tolerance (0% chose this)
  • Capacitance (0% chose this)
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What is the unit of capacitance?
  • The farad (0% chose this)
  • The ohm (0% chose this)
  • The volt (0% chose this)
  • The henry (0% chose this)
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What describes the ability to store energy in a magnetic field?
  • Admittance (0% chose this)
  • Capacitance (0% chose this)
  • Resistance (0% chose this)
  • Inductance (0% chose this)
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What is the unit of inductance?
  • The coulomb (0% chose this)
  • The farad (0% chose this)
  • The henry (0% chose this)
  • The ohm (0% chose this)
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What is the unit of impedance?
  • The volt (0% chose this)
  • The ampere (0% chose this)
  • The coulomb (0% chose this)
  • The ohm (0% chose this)
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What does the abbreviation “RF” mean?
  • Radio frequency signals of all types (0% chose this)
  • The resonant frequency of a tuned circuit (0% chose this)
  • The real frequency transmitted as opposed to the apparent frequency (0% chose this)
  • Reflective force in antenna transmission lines (0% chose this)
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What is the abbreviation for megahertz?
  • MH (0% chose this)
  • mh (0% chose this)
  • Mhz (0% chose this)
  • MHz (0% chose this)
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What is the formula used to calculate electrical power (P) in a DC circuit?
  • P = I × E (0% chose this)
  • P = E / I (0% chose this)
  • P = E - I (0% chose this)
  • P = I + E (0% chose this)
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How much power is delivered by a voltage of 13.8 volts DC and a current of 10 amperes?
  • 138 watts (0% chose this)
  • 0.7 watts (0% chose this)
  • 23.8 watts (0% chose this)
  • 3.8 watts (0% chose this)
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How much power is delivered by a voltage of 12 volts DC and a current of 2.5 amperes?
  • 4.8 watts (0% chose this)
  • 30 watts (0% chose this)
  • 14.5 watts (0% chose this)
  • 0.208 watts (0% chose this)
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How much current is required to deliver 120 watts at a voltage of 12 volts DC?
  • 0.1 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 10 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 12 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 132 amperes (0% chose this)
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What is impedance?
  • The opposition to AC current flow (0% chose this)
  • The inverse of resistance (0% chose this)
  • The Q or Quality Factor of a component (0% chose this)
  • The power handling capability of a component (0% chose this)
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What is the abbreviation for kilohertz?
  • KHZ (0% chose this)
  • khz (0% chose this)
  • khZ (0% chose this)
  • kHz (0% chose this)
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What formula is used to calculate current in a circuit?
  • I = E × R (0% chose this)
  • I = E / R (0% chose this)
  • I = E + R (0% chose this)
  • I = E - R (0% chose this)
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What formula is used to calculate voltage in a circuit?
  • E = I × R (0% chose this)
  • E = I / R (0% chose this)
  • E = I + R (0% chose this)
  • E = I - R (0% chose this)
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What formula is used to calculate resistance in a circuit?
  • R = E × I (0% chose this)
  • R = E / I (0% chose this)
  • R = E + I (0% chose this)
  • R = E - I (0% chose this)
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What is the resistance of a circuit in which a current of 3 amperes flows when connected to 90 volts?
  • 3 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 30 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 93 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 270 ohms (0% chose this)
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What is the resistance of a circuit for which the applied voltage is 12 volts and the current flow is 1.5 amperes?
  • 18 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 0.125 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 8 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 13.5 ohms (0% chose this)
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What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source?
  • 3 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 16 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 48 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 8 ohms (0% chose this)
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What is the current in a circuit with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a resistance of 80 ohms?
  • 9600 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 200 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 0.667 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 1.5 amperes (0% chose this)
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What is the current through a 100-ohm resistor connected across 200 volts?
  • 20,000 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 0.5 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 2 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 100 amperes (0% chose this)
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What is the current through a 24-ohm resistor connected across 240 volts?
  • 24,000 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 0.1 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 10 amperes (0% chose this)
  • 216 amperes (0% chose this)
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What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows through it?
  • 1 volt (0% chose this)
  • 0.25 volts (0% chose this)
  • 2.5 volts (0% chose this)
  • 1.5 volts (0% chose this)
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What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 1 ampere flows through it?
  • 1 volt (0% chose this)
  • 10 volts (0% chose this)
  • 11 volts (0% chose this)
  • 9 volts (0% chose this)
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What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 2 amperes flows through it?
  • 8 volts (0% chose this)
  • 0.2 volts (0% chose this)
  • 12 volts (0% chose this)
  • 20 volts (0% chose this)
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In which type of circuit is DC current the same through all components?
  • Series (0% chose this)
  • Parallel (0% chose this)
  • Resonant (0% chose this)
  • Branch (0% chose this)
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In which type of circuit is voltage the same across all components?
  • Series (0% chose this)
  • Parallel (0% chose this)
  • Resonant (0% chose this)
  • Branch (0% chose this)
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What electrical component opposes the flow of current in a DC circuit?
  • Inductor (0% chose this)
  • Resistor (0% chose this)
  • Inverter (0% chose this)
  • Transformer (0% chose this)
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What type of component is often used as an adjustable volume control?
  • Fixed resistor (0% chose this)
  • Power resistor (0% chose this)
  • Potentiometer (0% chose this)
  • Transformer (0% chose this)
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What electrical parameter is controlled by a potentiometer?
  • Inductance (0% chose this)
  • Resistance (0% chose this)
  • Capacitance (0% chose this)
  • Field strength (0% chose this)
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What electrical component stores energy in an electric field?
  • Varistor (0% chose this)
  • Capacitor (0% chose this)
  • Inductor (0% chose this)
  • Diode (0% chose this)
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What type of electrical component consists of conductive surfaces separated by an insulator?
  • Resistor (0% chose this)
  • Potentiometer (0% chose this)
  • Oscillator (0% chose this)
  • Capacitor (0% chose this)
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What type of electrical component stores energy in a magnetic field?
  • Varistor (0% chose this)
  • Capacitor (0% chose this)
  • Inductor (0% chose this)
  • Diode (0% chose this)
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What electrical component is typically constructed as a coil of wire?
  • Switch (0% chose this)
  • Capacitor (0% chose this)
  • Diode (0% chose this)
  • Inductor (0% chose this)
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What is the function of an SPDT switch?
  • A single circuit is opened or closed (0% chose this)
  • Two circuits are opened or closed (0% chose this)
  • A single circuit is switched between one of two other circuits (0% chose this)
  • Two circuits are each switched between one of two other circuits (0% chose this)
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What electrical component is used to protect other circuit components from current overloads?
  • Fuse (0% chose this)
  • Thyratron (0% chose this)
  • Varactor (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following battery chemistries is rechargeable?
  • Nickel-metal hydride (0% chose this)
  • Lithium-ion (0% chose this)
  • Lead-acid (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following battery chemistries is not rechargeable?
  • Nickel-cadmium (0% chose this)
  • Carbon-zinc (0% chose this)
  • Lead-acid (0% chose this)
  • Lithium-ion (0% chose this)
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What type of switch is represented by component 3 in figure T-2?
  • Single-pole single-throw (0% chose this)
  • Single-pole double-throw (0% chose this)
  • Double-pole single-throw (0% chose this)
  • Double-pole double-throw (0% chose this)
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Which is true about forward voltage drop in a diode?
  • It is lower in some diode types than in others (0% chose this)
  • It is proportional to peak inverse voltage (0% chose this)
  • It indicates that the diode is defective (0% chose this)
  • It has no impact on the voltage delivered to the load (0% chose this)
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What electronic component allows current to flow in only one direction?
  • Resistor (0% chose this)
  • Fuse (0% chose this)
  • Diode (0% chose this)
  • Driven element (0% chose this)
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Which of these components can be used as an electronic switch?
  • Varistor (0% chose this)
  • Potentiometer (0% chose this)
  • Transistor (0% chose this)
  • Thermistor (0% chose this)
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Which of the following components can consist of three regions of semiconductor material?
  • Alternator (0% chose this)
  • Transistor (0% chose this)
  • Triode (0% chose this)
  • Pentagrid converter (0% chose this)
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What type of transistor has a gate, drain, and source?
  • Varistor (0% chose this)
  • Field-effect (0% chose this)
  • Tesla-effect (0% chose this)
  • Bipolar junction (0% chose this)
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How is the cathode lead of a semiconductor diode often marked on the package?
  • With the word "cathode" (0% chose this)
  • With a stripe (0% chose this)
  • With the letter C (0% chose this)
  • With the letter K (0% chose this)
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What causes a light-emitting diode (LED) to emit light?
  • Forward current (0% chose this)
  • Reverse current (0% chose this)
  • Capacitively-coupled RF signal (0% chose this)
  • Inductively-coupled RF signal (0% chose this)
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What does the abbreviation FET stand for?
  • Frequency Emission Transmitter (0% chose this)
  • Fast Electron Transistor (0% chose this)
  • Free Electron Transmitter (0% chose this)
  • Field Effect Transistor (0% chose this)
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What are the names for the electrodes of a diode?
  • Plus and minus (0% chose this)
  • Source and drain (0% chose this)
  • Anode and cathode (0% chose this)
  • Gate and base (0% chose this)
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Which of the following can provide power gain?
  • Transformer (0% chose this)
  • Transistor (0% chose this)
  • Reactor (0% chose this)
  • Resistor (0% chose this)
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What is the term that describes a device's ability to amplify a signal?
  • Gain (0% chose this)
  • Forward resistance (0% chose this)
  • Forward voltage drop (0% chose this)
  • On resistance (0% chose this)
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What are the names of the electrodes of a bipolar junction transistor?
  • Signal, bias, power (0% chose this)
  • Emitter, base, collector (0% chose this)
  • Input, output, supply (0% chose this)
  • Pole one, pole two, output (0% chose this)
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What is the name of an electrical wiring diagram that uses standard component symbols?
  • Bill of materials (0% chose this)
  • Connector pinout (0% chose this)
  • Schematic (0% chose this)
  • Flow chart (0% chose this)
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What is component 1 in figure T-1?
  • Resistor (0% chose this)
  • Transistor (0% chose this)
  • Battery (0% chose this)
  • Connector (0% chose this)
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What is component 2 in figure T-1?
  • Resistor (0% chose this)
  • Transistor (0% chose this)
  • Indicator lamp (0% chose this)
  • Connector (0% chose this)
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What is component 3 in figure T-1?
  • Resistor (0% chose this)
  • Transistor (0% chose this)
  • Lamp (0% chose this)
  • Ground symbol (0% chose this)
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What is component 4 in figure T-1?
  • Resistor (0% chose this)
  • Transistor (0% chose this)
  • Ground symbol (0% chose this)
  • Battery (0% chose this)
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What is component 6 in figure T-2?
  • Resistor (0% chose this)
  • Capacitor (0% chose this)
  • Regulator IC (0% chose this)
  • Transistor (0% chose this)
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What is component 8 in figure T-2?
  • Resistor (0% chose this)
  • Inductor (0% chose this)
  • Regulator IC (0% chose this)
  • Light emitting diode (0% chose this)
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What is component 9 in figure T-2?
  • Variable capacitor (0% chose this)
  • Variable inductor (0% chose this)
  • Variable resistor (0% chose this)
  • Variable transformer (0% chose this)
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What is component 4 in figure T-2?
  • Variable inductor (0% chose this)
  • Double-pole switch (0% chose this)
  • Potentiometer (0% chose this)
  • Transformer (0% chose this)
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What is component 3 in figure T-3?
  • Connector (0% chose this)
  • Meter (0% chose this)
  • Variable capacitor (0% chose this)
  • Variable inductor (0% chose this)
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What is component 4 in figure T-3?
  • Antenna (0% chose this)
  • Transmitter (0% chose this)
  • Dummy load (0% chose this)
  • Ground (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is accurately represented in electrical schematics?
  • Wire lengths (0% chose this)
  • Physical appearance of components (0% chose this)
  • Component connections (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following devices or circuits changes an alternating current into a varying direct current signal?
  • Transformer (0% chose this)
  • Rectifier (0% chose this)
  • Amplifier (0% chose this)
  • Reflector (0% chose this)
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What is a relay?
  • An electrically-controlled switch (0% chose this)
  • A current controlled amplifier (0% chose this)
  • An inverting amplifier (0% chose this)
  • A pass transistor (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a reason to use shielded wire?
  • To decrease the resistance of DC power connections (0% chose this)
  • To increase the current carrying capability of the wire (0% chose this)
  • To prevent coupling of unwanted signals to or from the wire (0% chose this)
  • To couple the wire to other signals (0% chose this)
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Which of the following displays an electrical quantity as a numeric value?
  • Potentiometer (0% chose this)
  • Transistor (0% chose this)
  • Meter (0% chose this)
  • Relay (0% chose this)
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What type of circuit controls the amount of voltage from a power supply?
  • Regulator (0% chose this)
  • Oscillator (0% chose this)
  • Filter (0% chose this)
  • Phase inverter (0% chose this)
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What component changes 120 V AC power to a lower AC voltage for other uses?
  • Variable capacitor (0% chose this)
  • Transformer (0% chose this)
  • Transistor (0% chose this)
  • Diode (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is commonly used as a visual indicator?
  • LED (0% chose this)
  • FET (0% chose this)
  • Zener diode (0% chose this)
  • Bipolar transistor (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is combined with an inductor to make a resonant circuit?
  • Resistor (0% chose this)
  • Zener diode (0% chose this)
  • Potentiometer (0% chose this)
  • Capacitor (0% chose this)
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What is the name of a device that combines several semiconductors and other components into one package?
  • Transducer (0% chose this)
  • Multi-pole relay (0% chose this)
  • Integrated circuit (0% chose this)
  • Transformer (0% chose this)
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What is the function of component 2 in figure T-1?
  • Give off light when current flows through it (0% chose this)
  • Supply electrical energy (0% chose this)
  • Control the flow of current (0% chose this)
  • Convert electrical energy into radio waves (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a resonant or tuned circuit?
  • An inductor and a capacitor in series or parallel (0% chose this)
  • A linear voltage regulator (0% chose this)
  • A resistor circuit used for reducing standing wave ratio (0% chose this)
  • A circuit designed to provide high-fidelity audio (0% chose this)
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Which term describes the ability of a receiver to detect the presence of a signal?
  • Linearity (0% chose this)
  • Sensitivity (0% chose this)
  • Selectivity (0% chose this)
  • Total Harmonic Distortion (0% chose this)
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What is a transceiver?
  • A device that combines a receiver and transmitter (0% chose this)
  • A device for matching feed line impedance to 50 ohms (0% chose this)
  • A device for automatically sending and decoding Morse code (0% chose this)
  • A device for converting receiver and transmitter frequencies to another band (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is used to convert a signal from one frequency to another?
  • Phase splitter (0% chose this)
  • Mixer (0% chose this)
  • Inverter (0% chose this)
  • Amplifier (0% chose this)
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Which term describes the ability of a receiver to discriminate between multiple signals?
  • Discrimination ratio (0% chose this)
  • Sensitivity (0% chose this)
  • Selectivity (0% chose this)
  • Harmonic distortion (0% chose this)
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What is the name of a circuit that generates a signal at a specific frequency?
  • Reactance modulator (0% chose this)
  • Phase modulator (0% chose this)
  • Low-pass filter (0% chose this)
  • Oscillator (0% chose this)
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What device converts the RF input and output of a transceiver to another band?
  • High-pass filter (0% chose this)
  • Low-pass filter (0% chose this)
  • Transverter (0% chose this)
  • Phase converter (0% chose this)
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What is the function of a transceiver’s PTT input?
  • Input for a key used to send CW (0% chose this)
  • Switches transceiver from receive to transmit when grounded (0% chose this)
  • Provides a transmit tuning tone when grounded (0% chose this)
  • Input for a preamplifier tuning tone (0% chose this)
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Which of the following describes combining speech with an RF carrier signal?
  • Impedance matching (0% chose this)
  • Oscillation (0% chose this)
  • Modulation (0% chose this)
  • Low-pass filtering (0% chose this)
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What is the function of the SSB/CW-FM switch on a VHF power amplifier?
  • Change the mode of the transmitted signal (0% chose this)
  • Set the amplifier for proper operation in the selected mode (0% chose this)
  • Change the frequency range of the amplifier to operate in the proper segment of the band (0% chose this)
  • Reduce the received signal noise (0% chose this)
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What device increases the transmitted output power from a transceiver?
  • A voltage divider (0% chose this)
  • An RF power amplifier (0% chose this)
  • An impedance network (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Where is an RF preamplifier installed?
  • Between the antenna and receiver (0% chose this)
  • At the output of the transmitter power amplifier (0% chose this)
  • Between the transmitter and the antenna tuner (0% chose this)
  • At the output of the receiver audio amplifier (0% chose this)
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What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or mobile transceiver is over-deviating?
  • Talk louder into the microphone (0% chose this)
  • Let the transceiver cool off (0% chose this)
  • Change to a higher power level (0% chose this)
  • Talk farther away from the microphone (0% chose this)
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What would cause a broadcast AM or FM radio to receive an amateur radio transmission unintentionally?
  • The receiver is unable to reject strong signals outside the AM or FM band (0% chose this)
  • The microphone gain of the transmitter is turned up too high (0% chose this)
  • The audio amplifier of the transmitter is overloaded (0% chose this)
  • The deviation of an FM transmitter is set too low (0% chose this)
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Which of the following can cause radio frequency interference?
  • Fundamental overload (0% chose this)
  • Harmonics (0% chose this)
  • Spurious emissions (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following could you use to cure distorted audio caused by RF current on the shield of a microphone cable?
  • Band-pass filter (0% chose this)
  • Low-pass filter (0% chose this)
  • Preamplifier (0% chose this)
  • Ferrite choke (0% chose this)
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How can fundamental overload of a non-amateur radio or TV receiver by an amateur signal be reduced or eliminated?
  • Block the amateur signal with a filter at the antenna input of the affected receiver (0% chose this)
  • Block the interfering signal with a filter on the amateur transmitter (0% chose this)
  • Switch the transmitter from FM to SSB (0% chose this)
  • Switch the transmitter to a narrow-band mode (0% chose this)
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Which of the following actions should you take if a neighbor tells you that your station’s transmissions are interfering with their radio or TV reception?
  • Make sure that your station is functioning properly and that it does not cause interference to your own radio or television when it is tuned to the same channel (0% chose this)
  • Immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the nearest FCC office for assistance (0% chose this)
  • Install a harmonic doubler on the output of your transmitter and tune it until the interference is eliminated (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following can reduce overload of a VHF transceiver by a nearby commercial FM station?
  • Installing an RF preamplifier (0% chose this)
  • Using double-shielded coaxial cable (0% chose this)
  • Installing bypass capacitors on the microphone cable (0% chose this)
  • Installing a band-reject filter (0% chose this)
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What should you do if something in a neighbor’s home is causing harmful interference to your amateur station?
  • Work with your neighbor to identify the offending device (0% chose this)
  • Politely inform your neighbor that FCC rules prohibit the use of devices that cause interference (0% chose this)
  • Make sure your station meets the standards of good amateur practice (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What should be the first step to resolve non-fiber optic cable TV interference caused by your amateur radio transmission?
  • Add a low-pass filter to the TV antenna input (0% chose this)
  • Add a high-pass filter to the TV antenna input (0% chose this)
  • Add a preamplifier to the TV antenna input (0% chose this)
  • Be sure all TV feed line coaxial connectors are installed properly (0% chose this)
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What might be a problem if you receive a report that your audio signal through an FM repeater is distorted or unintelligible?
  • Your transmitter is slightly off frequency (0% chose this)
  • Your batteries are running low (0% chose this)
  • You are in a bad location (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is a symptom of RF feedback in a transmitter or transceiver?
  • Excessive SWR at the antenna connection (0% chose this)
  • The transmitter will not stay on the desired frequency (0% chose this)
  • Reports of garbled, distorted, or unintelligible voice transmissions (0% chose this)
  • Frequent blowing of power supply fuses (0% chose this)
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What is the primary purpose of a dummy load?
  • To prevent transmitting signals over the air when making tests (0% chose this)
  • To prevent over-modulation of a transmitter (0% chose this)
  • To improve the efficiency of an antenna (0% chose this)
  • To improve the signal-to-noise ratio of a receiver (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is used to determine if an antenna is resonant at the desired operating frequency?
  • A VTVM (0% chose this)
  • An antenna analyzer (0% chose this)
  • A Q meter (0% chose this)
  • A frequency counter (0% chose this)
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What does a dummy load consist of?
  • A high-gain amplifier and a TR switch (0% chose this)
  • A non-inductive resistor mounted on a heat sink (0% chose this)
  • A low-voltage power supply and a DC relay (0% chose this)
  • A 50-ohm reactance used to terminate a transmission line (0% chose this)
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What reading on an SWR meter indicates a perfect impedance match between the antenna and the feed line?
  • 50:50 (0% chose this)
  • Zero (0% chose this)
  • 1:1 (0% chose this)
  • Full Scale (0% chose this)
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Why do most solid-state transmitters reduce output power as SWR increases beyond a certain level?
  • To protect the output amplifier transistors (0% chose this)
  • To comply with FCC rules on spectral purity (0% chose this)
  • Because power supplies cannot supply enough current at high SWR (0% chose this)
  • To lower the SWR on the transmission line (0% chose this)
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What does an SWR reading of 4:1 indicate?
  • Loss of -4 dB (0% chose this)
  • Good impedance match (0% chose this)
  • Gain of +4 dB (0% chose this)
  • Impedance mismatch (0% chose this)
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What happens to power lost in a feed line?
  • It increases the SWR (0% chose this)
  • It is radiated as harmonics (0% chose this)
  • It is converted into heat (0% chose this)
  • It distorts the signal (0% chose this)
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Which instrument can be used to determine SWR?
  • Voltmeter (0% chose this)
  • Ohmmeter (0% chose this)
  • Iambic pentameter (0% chose this)
  • Directional wattmeter (0% chose this)
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Which of the following causes failure of coaxial cables?
  • Moisture contamination (0% chose this)
  • Solder flux contamination (0% chose this)
  • Rapid fluctuation in transmitter output power (0% chose this)
  • Operation at 100% duty cycle for an extended period (0% chose this)
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Why should the outer jacket of coaxial cable be resistant to ultraviolet light?
  • Ultraviolet resistant jackets prevent harmonic radiation (0% chose this)
  • Ultraviolet light can increase losses in the cable’s jacket (0% chose this)
  • Ultraviolet and RF signals can mix, causing interference (0% chose this)
  • Ultraviolet light can damage the jacket and allow water to enter the cable (0% chose this)
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What is a disadvantage of air core coaxial cable when compared to foam or solid dielectric types?
  • It has more loss per foot (0% chose this)
  • It cannot be used for VHF or UHF antennas (0% chose this)
  • It requires special techniques to prevent moisture in the cable (0% chose this)
  • It cannot be used at below freezing temperatures (0% chose this)
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Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential?
  • An ammeter (0% chose this)
  • A voltmeter (0% chose this)
  • A wavemeter (0% chose this)
  • An ohmmeter (0% chose this)
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How is a voltmeter connected to a component to measure applied voltage?
  • In series (0% chose this)
  • In parallel (0% chose this)
  • In quadrature (0% chose this)
  • In phase (0% chose this)
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When configured to measure current, how is a multimeter connected to a component?
  • In series (0% chose this)
  • In parallel (0% chose this)
  • In quadrature (0% chose this)
  • In phase (0% chose this)
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Which instrument is used to measure electric current?
  • An ohmmeter (0% chose this)
  • An electrometer (0% chose this)
  • A voltmeter (0% chose this)
  • An ammeter (0% chose this)
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Which of the following can damage a multimeter?
  • Attempting to measure resistance using the voltage setting (0% chose this)
  • Failing to connect one of the probes to ground (0% chose this)
  • Attempting to measure voltage when using the resistance setting (0% chose this)
  • Not allowing it to warm up properly (0% chose this)
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Which of the following measurements are made using a multimeter?
  • Signal strength and noise (0% chose this)
  • Impedance and reactance (0% chose this)
  • Voltage and resistance (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following types of solder should not be used for radio and electronic applications?
  • Acid-core solder (0% chose this)
  • Lead-tin solder (0% chose this)
  • Rosin-core solder (0% chose this)
  • Tin-copper solder (0% chose this)
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What is the characteristic appearance of a cold tin-lead solder joint?
  • Dark black spots (0% chose this)
  • A bright or shiny surface (0% chose this)
  • A rough or lumpy surface (0% chose this)
  • Excessive solder (0% chose this)
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What reading indicates that an ohmmeter is connected across a large, discharged capacitor?
  • Increasing resistance with time (0% chose this)
  • Decreasing resistance with time (0% chose this)
  • Steady full-scale reading (0% chose this)
  • Alternating between open and short circuit (0% chose this)
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Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring in-circuit resistance with an ohmmeter?
  • Ensure that the applied voltages are correct (0% chose this)
  • Ensure that the circuit is not powered (0% chose this)
  • Ensure that the circuit is grounded (0% chose this)
  • Ensure that the circuit is operating at the correct frequency (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a form of amplitude modulation?
  • Spread spectrum (0% chose this)
  • Packet radio (0% chose this)
  • Single sideband (0% chose this)
  • Phase shift keying (PSK) (0% chose this)
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What type of modulation is commonly used for VHF packet radio transmissions?
  • FM or PM (0% chose this)
  • SSB (0% chose this)
  • AM (0% chose this)
  • PSK (0% chose this)
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Which type of voice mode is often used for long-distance (weak signal) contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?
  • FM (0% chose this)
  • DRM (0% chose this)
  • SSB (0% chose this)
  • PM (0% chose this)
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Which type of modulation is commonly used for VHF and UHF voice repeaters?
  • AM (0% chose this)
  • SSB (0% chose this)
  • PSK (0% chose this)
  • FM or PM (0% chose this)
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Which of the following types of signal has the narrowest bandwidth?
  • FM voice (0% chose this)
  • SSB voice (0% chose this)
  • CW (0% chose this)
  • Slow-scan TV (0% chose this)
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Which sideband is normally used for 10 meter HF, VHF, and UHF single-sideband communications?
  • Upper sideband (0% chose this)
  • Lower sideband (0% chose this)
  • Suppressed sideband (0% chose this)
  • Inverted sideband (0% chose this)
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What is a characteristic of single sideband (SSB) compared to FM?
  • SSB signals are easier to tune in correctly (0% chose this)
  • SSB signals are less susceptible to interference (0% chose this)
  • SSB signals have narrower bandwidth (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is the approximate bandwidth of a typical single sideband (SSB) voice signal?
  • 1 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 3 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 6 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 15 kHz (0% chose this)
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What is the approximate bandwidth of a VHF repeater FM voice signal?
  • Less than 500 Hz (0% chose this)
  • About 150 kHz (0% chose this)
  • Between 10 and 15 kHz (0% chose this)
  • Between 50 and 125 kHz (0% chose this)
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What is the approximate bandwidth of AM fast-scan TV transmissions?
  • More than 10 MHz (0% chose this)
  • About 6 MHz (0% chose this)
  • About 3 MHz (0% chose this)
  • About 1 MHz (0% chose this)
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What is the approximate bandwidth required to transmit a CW signal?
  • 2.4 kHz (0% chose this)
  • 150 Hz (0% chose this)
  • 1000 Hz (0% chose this)
  • 15 kHz (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a disadvantage of FM compared with single sideband?
  • Voice quality is poorer (0% chose this)
  • Only one signal can be received at a time (0% chose this)
  • FM signals are harder to tune (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What telemetry information is typically transmitted by satellite beacons?
  • The signal strength of received signals (0% chose this)
  • Time of day accurate to plus or minus 1/10 second (0% chose this)
  • Health and status of the satellite (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is the impact of using excessive effective radiated power on a satellite uplink?
  • Possibility of commanding the satellite to an improper mode (0% chose this)
  • Blocking access by other users (0% chose this)
  • Overloading the satellite batteries (0% chose this)
  • Possibility of rebooting the satellite control computer (0% chose this)
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Which of the following are provided by satellite tracking programs?
  • Maps showing the real-time position of the satellite track over Earth (0% chose this)
  • The time, azimuth, and elevation of the start, maximum altitude, and end of a pass (0% chose this)
  • The apparent frequency of the satellite transmission, including effects of Doppler shift (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What mode of transmission is commonly used by amateur radio satellites?
  • SSB (0% chose this)
  • FM (0% chose this)
  • CW/data (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is a satellite beacon?
  • The primary transmit antenna on the satellite (0% chose this)
  • An indicator light that shows where to point your antenna (0% chose this)
  • A reflective surface on the satellite (0% chose this)
  • A transmission from a satellite that contains status information (0% chose this)
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Which of the following are inputs to a satellite tracking program?
  • The satellite transmitted power (0% chose this)
  • The Keplerian elements (0% chose this)
  • The last observed time of zero Doppler shift (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is Doppler shift in reference to satellite communications?
  • A change in the satellite orbit (0% chose this)
  • A mode where the satellite receives signals on one band and transmits on another (0% chose this)
  • An observed change in signal frequency caused by relative motion between the satellite and Earth station (0% chose this)
  • A special digital communications mode for some satellites (0% chose this)
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What is meant by the statement that a satellite is operating in U/V mode?
  • The satellite uplink is in the 15 meter band and the downlink is in the 10 meter band (0% chose this)
  • The satellite uplink is in the 70 centimeter band and the downlink is in the 2 meter band (0% chose this)
  • The satellite operates using ultraviolet frequencies (0% chose this)
  • The satellite frequencies are usually variable (0% chose this)
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What causes spin fading of satellite signals?
  • Circular polarized noise interference radiated from the sun (0% chose this)
  • Rotation of the satellite and its antennas (0% chose this)
  • Doppler shift of the received signal (0% chose this)
  • Interfering signals within the satellite uplink band (0% chose this)
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What is a LEO satellite?
  • A sun synchronous satellite (0% chose this)
  • A highly elliptical orbit satellite (0% chose this)
  • A satellite in low energy operation mode (0% chose this)
  • A satellite in low earth orbit (0% chose this)
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Who may receive telemetry from a space station?
  • Anyone (0% chose this)
  • A licensed radio amateur with a transmitter equipped for interrogating the satellite (0% chose this)
  • A licensed radio amateur who has been certified by the protocol developer (0% chose this)
  • A licensed radio amateur who has registered for an access code from AMSAT (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a way to determine whether your satellite uplink power is neither too low nor too high?
  • Check your signal strength report in the telemetry data (0% chose this)
  • Listen for distortion on your downlink signal (0% chose this)
  • Your signal strength on the downlink should be about the same as the beacon (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following methods is used to locate sources of noise interference or jamming?
  • Echolocation (0% chose this)
  • Doppler radar (0% chose this)
  • Radio direction finding (0% chose this)
  • Phase locking (0% chose this)
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Which of these items would be useful for a hidden transmitter hunt?
  • Calibrated SWR meter (0% chose this)
  • A directional antenna (0% chose this)
  • A calibrated noise bridge (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What operating activity involves contacting as many stations as possible during a specified period?
  • Simulated emergency exercises (0% chose this)
  • Net operations (0% chose this)
  • Public service events (0% chose this)
  • Contesting (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is good procedure when contacting another station in a contest?
  • Sign only the last two letters of your call if there are many other stations calling (0% chose this)
  • Contact the station twice to be sure that you are in his log (0% chose this)
  • Send only the minimum information needed for proper identification and the contest exchange (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is a grid locator?
  • A letter-number designator assigned to a geographic location (0% chose this)
  • A letter-number designator assigned to an azimuth and elevation (0% chose this)
  • An instrument for neutralizing a final amplifier (0% chose this)
  • An instrument for radio direction finding (0% chose this)
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How is over the air access to IRLP nodes accomplished?
  • By obtaining a password that is sent via voice to the node (0% chose this)
  • By using DTMF signals (0% chose this)
  • By entering the proper internet password (0% chose this)
  • By using CTCSS tone codes (0% chose this)
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What is Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?
  • A set of rules specifying how to identify your station when linked over the internet to another station (0% chose this)
  • A technique employed to “spot” DX stations via the internet (0% chose this)
  • A technique for measuring the modulation quality of a transmitter using remote sites monitored via the internet (0% chose this)
  • A method of delivering voice communications over the internet using digital techniques (0% chose this)
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What is the Internet Radio Linking Project (IRLP)?
  • A technique to connect amateur radio systems, such as repeaters, via the internet using Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP) (0% chose this)
  • A system for providing access to websites via amateur radio (0% chose this)
  • A system for informing amateurs in real time of the frequency of active DX stations (0% chose this)
  • A technique for measuring signal strength of an amateur transmitter via the internet (0% chose this)
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Which of the following protocols enables an amateur station to transmit through a repeater without using a radio to initiate the transmission?
  • IRLP (0% chose this)
  • D-STAR (0% chose this)
  • DMR (0% chose this)
  • EchoLink (0% chose this)
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What is required before using the EchoLink system?
  • Complete the required EchoLink training (0% chose this)
  • Purchase a license to use the EchoLink software (0% chose this)
  • Register your call sign and provide proof of license (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is an amateur radio station that connects other amateur stations to the internet?
  • A gateway (0% chose this)
  • A repeater (0% chose this)
  • A digipeater (0% chose this)
  • A beacon (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a digital communications mode?
  • Packet radio (0% chose this)
  • IEEE 802.11 (0% chose this)
  • FT8 (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is a “talkgroup” on a DMR repeater?
  • A group of operators sharing common interests (0% chose this)
  • A way for groups of users to share a channel at different times without hearing other users on the channel (0% chose this)
  • A protocol that increases the signal-to-noise ratio when multiple repeaters are linked together (0% chose this)
  • A net that meets at a specified time (0% chose this)
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What kind of data can be transmitted by APRS?
  • GPS position data (0% chose this)
  • Text messages (0% chose this)
  • Weather data (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What type of transmission is indicated by the term "NTSC?"
  • A Normal Transmission mode in Static Circuit (0% chose this)
  • A special mode for satellite uplink (0% chose this)
  • An analog fast-scan color TV signal (0% chose this)
  • A frame compression scheme for TV signals (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is an application of APRS?
  • Providing real-time tactical digital communications in conjunction with a map showing the locations of stations (0% chose this)
  • Showing automatically the number of packets transmitted via PACTOR during a specific time interval (0% chose this)
  • Providing voice over internet connection between repeaters (0% chose this)
  • Providing information on the number of stations signed into a repeater (0% chose this)
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What does the abbreviation "PSK" mean?
  • Pulse Shift Keying (0% chose this)
  • Phase Shift Keying (0% chose this)
  • Packet Short Keying (0% chose this)
  • Phased Slide Keying (0% chose this)
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Which of the following describes DMR?
  • A technique for time-multiplexing two digital voice signals on a single 12.5 kHz repeater channel (0% chose this)
  • An automatic position tracking mode for FM mobiles communicating through repeaters (0% chose this)
  • An automatic computer logging technique for hands-off logging when communicating while operating a vehicle (0% chose this)
  • A digital technique for transmitting on two repeater inputs simultaneously for automatic error correction (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is included in packet radio transmissions?
  • A check sum that permits error detection (0% chose this)
  • A header that contains the call sign of the station to which the information is being sent (0% chose this)
  • Automatic repeat request in case of error (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is CW?
  • A type of electromagnetic propagation (0% chose this)
  • A digital mode used primarily on 2 meter FM (0% chose this)
  • A technique for coil winding (0% chose this)
  • Another name for a Morse code transmission (0% chose this)
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Which of the following operating activities is supported by digital mode software in the WSJT-X software suite?
  • Earth-Moon-Earth (0% chose this)
  • Weak signal propagation beacons (0% chose this)
  • Meteor scatter (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is an ARQ transmission system?
  • A special transmission format limited to video signals (0% chose this)
  • A system used to encrypt command signals to an amateur radio satellite (0% chose this)
  • An error correction method in which the receiving station detects errors and sends a request for retransmission (0% chose this)
  • A method of compressing data using autonomous reiterative Q codes prior to final encoding (0% chose this)
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Which of the following best describes an amateur radio mesh network?
  • An amateur-radio based data network using commercial Wi-Fi equipment with modified firmware (0% chose this)
  • A wide-bandwidth digital voice mode employing DMR protocols (0% chose this)
  • A satellite communications network using modified commercial satellite TV hardware (0% chose this)
  • An internet linking protocol used to network repeaters (0% chose this)
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What is FT8?
  • A wideband FM voice mode (0% chose this)
  • A digital mode capable of low signal-to-noise operation (0% chose this)
  • An eight channel multiplex mode for FM repeaters (0% chose this)
  • A digital slow-scan TV mode with forward error correction and automatic color compensation (0% chose this)
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What is a beam antenna?
  • An antenna built from aluminum I-beams (0% chose this)
  • An omnidirectional antenna invented by Clarence Beam (0% chose this)
  • An antenna that concentrates signals in one direction (0% chose this)
  • An antenna that reverses the phase of received signals (0% chose this)
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Which of the following describes a type of antenna loading?
  • Electrically lengthening by inserting inductors in radiating elements (0% chose this)
  • Inserting a resistor in the radiating portion of the antenna to make it resonant (0% chose this)
  • Installing a spring in the base of a mobile vertical antenna to make it more flexible (0% chose this)
  • Strengthening the radiating elements of a beam antenna to better resist wind damage (0% chose this)
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Which of the following describes a simple dipole oriented parallel to Earth's surface?
  • A ground-wave antenna (0% chose this)
  • A horizontally polarized antenna (0% chose this)
  • A travelling-wave antenna (0% chose this)
  • A vertically polarized antenna (0% chose this)
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What is a disadvantage of the short, flexible antenna supplied with most handheld radio transceivers, compared to a full-sized quarter-wave antenna?
  • It has low efficiency (0% chose this)
  • It transmits only circularly polarized signals (0% chose this)
  • It is mechanically fragile (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following increases the resonant frequency of a dipole antenna?
  • Lengthening it (0% chose this)
  • Inserting coils in series with radiating wires (0% chose this)
  • Shortening it (0% chose this)
  • Adding capacitive loading to the ends of the radiating wires (0% chose this)
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Which of the following types of antenna offers the greatest gain?
  • 5/8 wave vertical (0% chose this)
  • Isotropic (0% chose this)
  • J pole (0% chose this)
  • Yagi (0% chose this)
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What is a disadvantage of using a handheld VHF transceiver with a flexible antenna inside a vehicle?
  • Signal strength is reduced due to the shielding effect of the vehicle (0% chose this)
  • The bandwidth of the antenna will decrease, increasing SWR (0% chose this)
  • The SWR might decrease, decreasing the signal strength (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is the approximate length, in inches, of a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 146 MHz?
  • 112 (0% chose this)
  • 50 (0% chose this)
  • 19 (0% chose this)
  • 12 (0% chose this)
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What is the approximate length, in inches, of a half-wavelength 6 meter dipole antenna?
  • 6 (0% chose this)
  • 50 (0% chose this)
  • 112 (0% chose this)
  • 236 (0% chose this)
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In which direction does a half-wave dipole antenna radiate the strongest signal?
  • Equally in all directions (0% chose this)
  • Off the ends of the antenna (0% chose this)
  • In the direction of the feed line (0% chose this)
  • Broadside to the antenna (0% chose this)
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What is antenna gain?
  • The additional power that is added to the transmitter power (0% chose this)
  • The additional power that is required in the antenna when transmitting on a higher frequency (0% chose this)
  • The increase in signal strength in a specified direction compared to a reference antenna (0% chose this)
  • The increase in impedance on receive or transmit compared to a reference antenna (0% chose this)
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What is an advantage of a 5/8 wavelength whip antenna for VHF or UHF mobile service?
  • It has more gain than a 1/4-wavelength antenna (0% chose this)
  • It radiates at a very high angle (0% chose this)
  • It eliminates distortion caused by reflected signals (0% chose this)
  • It has 10 times the power gain of a 1/4 wavelength whip (0% chose this)
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What is a benefit of low SWR?
  • Reduced television interference (0% chose this)
  • Reduced signal loss (0% chose this)
  • Less antenna wear (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is the most common impedance of coaxial cables used in amateur radio?
  • 8 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 50 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 600 ohms (0% chose this)
  • 12 ohms (0% chose this)
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Why is coaxial cable the most common feed line for amateur radio antenna systems?
  • It is easy to use and requires few special installation considerations (0% chose this)
  • It has less loss than any other type of feed line (0% chose this)
  • It can handle more power than any other type of feed line (0% chose this)
  • It is less expensive than any other type of feed line (0% chose this)
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What is the major function of an antenna tuner (antenna coupler)?
  • It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver's output impedance (0% chose this)
  • It helps a receiver automatically tune in weak stations (0% chose this)
  • It allows an antenna to be used on both transmit and receive (0% chose this)
  • It automatically selects the proper antenna for the frequency band being used (0% chose this)
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What happens as the frequency of a signal in coaxial cable is increased?
  • The characteristic impedance decreases (0% chose this)
  • The loss decreases (0% chose this)
  • The characteristic impedance increases (0% chose this)
  • The loss increases (0% chose this)
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Which of the following RF connector types is most suitable for frequencies above 400 MHz?
  • UHF (PL-259/SO-239) (0% chose this)
  • Type N (0% chose this)
  • RS-213 (0% chose this)
  • DB-25 (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is true of PL-259 type coax connectors?
  • They are preferred for microwave operation (0% chose this)
  • They are watertight (0% chose this)
  • They are commonly used at HF and VHF frequencies (0% chose this)
  • They are a bayonet-type connector (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a source of loss in coaxial feed line?
  • Water intrusion into coaxial connectors (0% chose this)
  • High SWR (0% chose this)
  • Multiple connectors in the line (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What can cause erratic changes in SWR?
  • Local thunderstorm (0% chose this)
  • Loose connection in the antenna or feed line (0% chose this)
  • Over-modulation (0% chose this)
  • Overload from a strong local station (0% chose this)
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What is the electrical difference between RG-58 and RG-213 coaxial cable?
  • There is no significant difference between the two types (0% chose this)
  • RG-58 cable has two shields (0% chose this)
  • RG-213 cable has less loss at a given frequency (0% chose this)
  • RG-58 cable can handle higher power levels (0% chose this)
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Which of the following types of feed line has the lowest loss at VHF and UHF?
  • 50-ohm flexible coax (0% chose this)
  • Multi-conductor unbalanced cable (0% chose this)
  • Air-insulated hardline (0% chose this)
  • 75-ohm flexible coax (0% chose this)
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What is standing wave ratio (SWR)?
  • A measure of how well a load is matched to a transmission line (0% chose this)
  • The ratio of amplifier power output to input (0% chose this)
  • The transmitter efficiency ratio (0% chose this)
  • An indication of the quality of your station’s ground connection (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is a safety hazard of a 12-volt storage battery?
  • Touching both terminals with the hands can cause electrical shock (0% chose this)
  • Shorting the terminals can cause burns, fire, or an explosion (0% chose this)
  • RF emissions from a nearby transmitter can cause the electrolyte to emit poison gas (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What health hazard is presented by electrical current flowing through the body?
  • It may cause injury by heating tissue (0% chose this)
  • It may disrupt the electrical functions of cells (0% chose this)
  • It may cause involuntary muscle contractions (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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In the United States, what circuit does black wire insulation indicate in a three-wire 120 V cable?
  • Neutral (0% chose this)
  • Hot (0% chose this)
  • Equipment ground (0% chose this)
  • Black insulation is never used (0% chose this)
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What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit?
  • To prevent power supply ripple from damaging a component (0% chose this)
  • To remove power in case of overload (0% chose this)
  • To limit current to prevent shocks (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Why should a 5-ampere fuse never be replaced with a 20-ampere fuse?
  • The larger fuse would be likely to blow because it is rated for higher current (0% chose this)
  • The power supply ripple would greatly increase (0% chose this)
  • Excessive current could cause a fire (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is a good way to guard against electrical shock at your station?
  • Use three-wire cords and plugs for all AC powered equipment (0% chose this)
  • Connect all AC powered station equipment to a common safety ground (0% chose this)
  • Install mechanical interlocks in high-voltage circuits (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Where should a lightning arrester be installed in a coaxial feed line?
  • At the output connector of a transceiver (0% chose this)
  • At the antenna feed point (0% chose this)
  • At the ac power service panel (0% chose this)
  • On a grounded panel near where feed lines enter the building (0% chose this)
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Where should a fuse or circuit breaker be installed in a 120V AC power circuit?
  • In series with the hot conductor only (0% chose this)
  • In series with the hot and neutral conductors (0% chose this)
  • In parallel with the hot conductor only (0% chose this)
  • In parallel with the hot and neutral conductors (0% chose this)
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What should be done to all external ground rods or earth connections?
  • Waterproof them with silicone caulk or electrical tape (0% chose this)
  • Keep them as far apart as possible (0% chose this)
  • Bond them together with heavy wire or conductive strap (0% chose this)
  • Tune them for resonance on the lowest frequency of operation (0% chose this)
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What hazard is caused by charging or discharging a battery too quickly?
  • Overheating or out-gassing (0% chose this)
  • Excess output ripple (0% chose this)
  • Half-wave rectification (0% chose this)
  • Inverse memory effect (0% chose this)
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What hazard exists in a power supply immediately after turning it off?
  • Circulating currents in the dc filter (0% chose this)
  • Leakage flux in the power transformer (0% chose this)
  • Voltage transients from kickback diodes (0% chose this)
  • Charge stored in filter capacitors (0% chose this)
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Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring high voltages with a voltmeter?
  • Ensure that the voltmeter has very low impedance (0% chose this)
  • Ensure that the voltmeter and leads are rated for use at the voltages to be measured (0% chose this)
  • Ensure that the circuit is grounded through the voltmeter (0% chose this)
  • Ensure that the voltmeter is set to the correct frequency (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is good practice when installing ground wires on a tower for lightning protection?
  • Put a drip loop in the ground connection to prevent water damage to the ground system (0% chose this)
  • Make sure all ground wire bends are right angles (0% chose this)
  • Ensure that connections are short and direct (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What is required when climbing an antenna tower?
  • Have sufficient training on safe tower climbing techniques (0% chose this)
  • Use appropriate tie-off to the tower at all times (0% chose this)
  • Always wear an approved climbing harness (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Under what circumstances is it safe to climb a tower without a helper or observer?
  • When no electrical work is being performed (0% chose this)
  • When no mechanical work is being performed (0% chose this)
  • When the work being done is not more than 20 feet above the ground (0% chose this)
  • Never (0% chose this)
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What is the purpose of a safety wire through a turnbuckle used to tension guy lines?
  • Secure the guy line if the turnbuckle breaks (0% chose this)
  • Prevent loosening of the turnbuckle from vibration (0% chose this)
  • Provide a ground path for lightning strikes (0% chose this)
  • Provide an ability to measure for proper tensioning (0% chose this)
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What is the minimum safe distance from a power line to allow when installing an antenna?
  • Add the height of the antenna to the height of the power line and multiply by a factor of 1.5 (0% chose this)
  • The height of the power line above ground (0% chose this)
  • 1/2 wavelength at the operating frequency (0% chose this)
  • Enough so that if the antenna falls, no part of it can come closer than 10 feet to the power wires (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is an important safety rule to remember when using a crank-up tower?
  • This type of tower must never be painted (0% chose this)
  • This type of tower must never be grounded (0% chose this)
  • This type of tower must not be climbed unless it is retracted, or mechanical safety locking devices have been installed (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which is a proper grounding method for a tower?
  • A single four-foot ground rod, driven into the ground no more than 12 inches from the base (0% chose this)
  • A ferrite-core RF choke connected between the tower and ground (0% chose this)
  • A connection between the tower base and a cold water pipe (0% chose this)
  • Separate eight-foot ground rods for each tower leg, bonded to the tower and each other (0% chose this)
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Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole?
  • The antenna will not work properly because of induced voltages (0% chose this)
  • The 60 Hz radiations from the feed line may increase the SWR (0% chose this)
  • The antenna could contact high-voltage power lines (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is true when installing grounding conductors used for lightning protection?
  • Use only non-insulated wire (0% chose this)
  • Wires must be carefully routed with precise right-angle bends (0% chose this)
  • Sharp bends must be avoided (0% chose this)
  • Common grounds must be avoided (0% chose this)
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Which of the following establishes grounding requirements for an amateur radio tower or antenna?
  • FCC Part 97 rules (0% chose this)
  • Local electrical codes (0% chose this)
  • FAA tower lighting regulations (0% chose this)
  • UL recommended practices (0% chose this)
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What type of radiation are radio signals?
  • Gamma radiation (0% chose this)
  • Ionizing radiation (0% chose this)
  • Alpha radiation (0% chose this)
  • Non-ionizing radiation (0% chose this)
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At which of the following frequencies does maximum permissible exposure have the lowest value?
  • 3.5 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 50 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 440 MHz (0% chose this)
  • 1296 MHz (0% chose this)
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How does the allowable power density for RF safety change if duty cycle changes from 100 percent to 50 percent?
  • It increases by a factor of 3 (0% chose this)
  • It decreases by 50 percent (0% chose this)
  • It increases by a factor of 2 (0% chose this)
  • There is no adjustment allowed for lower duty cycle (0% chose this)
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What factors affect the RF exposure of people near an amateur station antenna?
  • Frequency and power level of the RF field (0% chose this)
  • Distance from the antenna to a person (0% chose this)
  • Radiation pattern of the antenna (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Why do exposure limits vary with frequency?
  • Lower frequency RF fields have more energy than higher frequency fields (0% chose this)
  • Lower frequency RF fields do not penetrate the human body (0% chose this)
  • Higher frequency RF fields are transient in nature (0% chose this)
  • The human body absorbs more RF energy at some frequencies than at others (0% chose this)
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Which of the following is an acceptable method to determine whether your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?
  • By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65 (0% chose this)
  • By calculation based on computer modeling (0% chose this)
  • By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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What hazard is created by touching an antenna during a transmission?
  • Electrocution (0% chose this)
  • RF burn to skin (0% chose this)
  • Radiation poisoning (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Which of the following actions can reduce exposure to RF radiation?
  • Relocate antennas (0% chose this)
  • Relocate the transmitter (0% chose this)
  • Increase the duty cycle (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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How can you make sure your station stays in compliance with RF safety regulations?
  • By informing the FCC of any changes made in your station (0% chose this)
  • By re-evaluating the station whenever an item in the transmitter or antenna system is changed (0% chose this)
  • By making sure your antennas have low SWR (0% chose this)
  • All these choices are correct (0% chose this)
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Why is duty cycle one of the factors used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels?
  • It affects the average exposure to radiation (0% chose this)
  • It affects the peak exposure to radiation (0% chose this)
  • It takes into account the antenna feed line loss (0% chose this)
  • It takes into account the thermal effects of the final amplifier (0% chose this)
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What is the definition of duty cycle during the averaging time for RF exposure?
  • The difference between the lowest power output and the highest power output of a transmitter (0% chose this)
  • The difference between the PEP and average power output of a transmitter (0% chose this)
  • The percentage of time that a transmitter is transmitting (0% chose this)
  • The percentage of time that a transmitter is not transmitting (0% chose this)
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How does RF radiation differ from ionizing radiation (radioactivity)?
  • RF radiation does not have sufficient energy to cause chemical changes in cells and damage DNA (0% chose this)
  • RF radiation can only be detected with an RF dosimeter (0% chose this)
  • RF radiation is limited in range to a few feet (0% chose this)
  • RF radiation is perfectly safe (0% chose this)
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Who is responsible for ensuring that no person is exposed to RF energy above the FCC exposure limits?
  • The FCC (0% chose this)
  • The station licensee (0% chose this)
  • Anyone who is near an antenna (0% chose this)
  • The local zoning board (0% chose this)
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