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2025 Basic Qualification pool

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B-001-001-001

Which document assigns the authority to make Canadian regulations governing radiocommunications?

A.
The Broadcasting Act (0% chose this)
B.
The Radiocommunication Act (0% chose this)
C.
The International Telecommunication Union's Radio Regulations (0% chose this)
D.
The Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service (0% chose this)

B-001-001-002

Which document assigns the authority to publish Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service in Canada?

A.
The Broadcasting Act (0% chose this)
B.
The Radiocommunication Act (0% chose this)
C.
The Radiocommunication Regulations (0% chose this)
D.
The International Telecommunication Union's Radio Regulations (0% chose this)

B-001-001-003

Which department is responsible for the administration of the Radiocommunication Act?

A.
National Defence (0% chose this)
B.
Communications Security Establishment Canada (0% chose this)
C.
Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
D.
Transport Canada (0% chose this)

B-001-001-004

Which document defines the Canadian "amateur radio service"?

A.
The Radio Systems Policies (0% chose this)
B.
The Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service (0% chose this)
C.
The Radiocommunication Act (0% chose this)
D.
The Radiocommunication Regulations (0% chose this)

B-001-002-001

What must you do within 30 days of a mailing address change?

A.
Inform Radio Amateurs of Canada (RAC) (0% chose this)
B.
Inform Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
C.
Inform your local amateur radio club (0% chose this)
D.
Inform an accredited examiner (0% chose this)

B-001-002-002

An Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is valid for:

A.
five years (0% chose this)
B.
life (0% chose this)
C.
three years (0% chose this)
D.
one year (0% chose this)

B-001-002-003

Whenever a change of address is made:

A.
you must not operate until a change of address card is forwarded to Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
B.
you must notify Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada within 30 days of a change of mailing address (0% chose this)
C.
you must notify Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada within 14 days of operation at the new address (0% chose this)
D.
within the same province, you do not need to notify Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)

B-001-002-004

The Amateur Radio Operator Certificate:

A.
must be kept in a safe place (0% chose this)
B.
must be kept on the person to whom it is issued (0% chose this)
C.
must be put on file (0% chose this)
D.
must be retained at the station (0% chose this)

B-001-002-005

A radio inspector asks to see your Amateur Radio Operator Certificate, or a copy thereof. Per the regulations, how many hours are you given to comply?

A.
12 (0% chose this)
B.
72 (0% chose this)
C.
24 (0% chose this)
D.
48 (0% chose this)

B-001-002-006

What is the fee for a first Amateur Radio Operator Certificate?

A.
$32 (0% chose this)
B.
Free (0% chose this)
C.
$24 (0% chose this)
D.
$10 (0% chose this)

B-001-002-007

The Amateur Radio Operator Certificate should be:

A.
retained on the holder's person (0% chose this)
B.
retained in the holder's vehicle (0% chose this)
C.
retained in a safety deposit box (0% chose this)
D.
retained at the address provided to Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)

B-001-002-008

What is the fee to issue a replacement call sign with a new prefix, due to a change in address to a new province or territory?

A.
$40 (0% chose this)
B.
$25 (0% chose this)
C.
Free (0% chose this)
D.
$60 (0% chose this)

B-001-002-009

What is the fee for changing an existing call sign (including changing to a two-letter call sign)?

A.
Free (0% chose this)
B.
$30 (0% chose this)
C.
$55 (0% chose this)
D.
$60 (0% chose this)

B-001-003-001

Transmissions outside of amateur radio bands:

A.
are permitted when using less than 1 watt (0% chose this)
B.
are prohibited and penalties could be assessed to the control operator (0% chose this)
C.
must be identified with your call sign (0% chose this)
D.
are permitted for short tests only (0% chose this)

B-001-003-002

What is the term in the regulations that defines if an amateur radio operator falsely transmits the word "MAYDAY" when there isn't an emergency?

A.
An emergency test transmission (0% chose this)
B.
An encrypted message (0% chose this)
C.
A privileged communication (0% chose this)
D.
A false or fraudulent message (0% chose this)

B-001-003-003

Transmitting a false or fraudulent distress signal or message is prohibited. The person found guilty is liable to what penalty?

A.
A fine of $10 000 (0% chose this)
B.
A fine not exceeding $1 000 (0% chose this)
C.
A prison term of two years (0% chose this)
D.
A fine, not exceeding $5 000, or a prison term not exceeding one year, or both (0% chose this)

B-001-003-004

Which government document states the offences and penalties relating to radiocommunications?

A.
The Radiocommunication Act (0% chose this)
B.
The Radio Systems Policies (0% chose this)
C.
The Radiocommunications Regulations (0% chose this)
D.
The Broadcasting Act (0% chose this)

B-001-003-005

Which of the following is NOT correct? The Minister of Innovation, Science and Industry may suspend an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate:

A.
where the holder has contravened the Radiocommunication Act, its regulations, or the terms and conditions of the certificate (0% chose this)
B.
with no notice, or opportunity to make representations thereto (0% chose this)
C.
where the holder has failed to comply with a request to pay fees or interest due (0% chose this)
D.
where the certificate was obtained through misrepresentation (0% chose this)

B-001-003-006

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A.
A radio inspector may enter a dwelling without the consent of the occupant and without a warrant (0% chose this)
B.
In executing a warrant, a radio inspector shall not use force, unless accompanied by a peace officer, and force is authorized (0% chose this)
C.
Where entry is refused, and is necessary to perform their duties under the Radiocommunication Act, a radio inspector may obtain a warrant (0% chose this)
D.
The person responsible for a dwelling entered by a radio inspector shall provide the inspector the requested information (0% chose this)

B-001-003-007

When is an amateur radio operator permitted to transmit false information?

A.
Transmitting false information is never permitted (0% chose this)
B.
To conceal their identity when responding to inappropriate on-air conduct (0% chose this)
C.
To exaggerate the scope of an emergency to obtain help more rapidly (0% chose this)
D.
To play a practical joke, for example, giving incorrect location of an amateur radio event (0% chose this)

B-001-003-008

Interfering with, or obstructing any radio communication, without lawful cause, is prohibited. The person found guilty is liable to what penalty?

A.
A fine, not exceeding $5 000, or a prison term not exceeding one year, or both (0% chose this)
B.
A fine not exceeding $1 000 (0% chose this)
C.
A prison term of two years (0% chose this)
D.
A fine of $10 000 (0% chose this)

B-001-004-001

How old must you be to hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic Qualification?

A.
14 years or older (0% chose this)
B.
18 years or older (0% chose this)
C.
70 years or younger (0% chose this)
D.
There are no age limits (0% chose this)

B-001-004-002

Which examination must be passed before an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is issued?

A.
A practical test (0% chose this)
B.
Basic Qualification (0% chose this)
C.
Advanced Qualification (0% chose this)
D.
Morse code (0% chose this)

B-001-004-003

Holders of which one of the following certificates may be issued an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate?

A.
Canadian Restricted Operator's Certificate - Maritime Commercial (ROC-MC) (0% chose this)
B.
Canadian Radiocommunication Operator General Certificate Maritime (RGMC) (0% chose this)
C.
Canadian Restricted Operator Certificate - Maritime (ROC-M) (0% chose this)
D.
Canadian Restricted Operator Certificate - Aeronautical (ROC-A) (0% chose this)

B-001-004-004

After an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic Qualification is issued, the holder may be examined for additional qualifications in the following order:

A.
Morse code after passing the Basic with Honours (0% chose this)
B.
Morse code after passing the Advanced (0% chose this)
C.
Advanced after passing Morse code (0% chose this)
D.
any order (0% chose this)

B-001-004-005

What sending and receiving speed, in words per minute (wpm), must you achieve to be granted the Morse code Qualification?

A.
5 wpm (0% chose this)
B.
7 wpm (0% chose this)
C.
12 wpm (0% chose this)
D.
15 wpm (0% chose this)

B-001-004-006

You hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Advanced Qualification. Besides the amateur radio service, in what other service does this authorization allow you to operate a station?

A.
Aeronautical service (0% chose this)
B.
No other service (0% chose this)
C.
Land mobile service (0% chose this)
D.
Maritime service (0% chose this)

B-001-004-007

What conditions must candidates for amateur radio certification meet?

A.
Be at least 14 years of age and a Canadian citizen or permanent resident (0% chose this)
B.
Be a Canadian citizen (0% chose this)
C.
Be a Canadian citizen or permanent resident (0% chose this)
D.
Have a valid address in Canada (0% chose this)

B-001-005-001

Under what circumstances can an amateur radio operator with an Advanced Qualification install, place in operation, modify or repair radio apparatus on behalf of another person?

A.
Pending the granting of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate if the apparatus covers amateur radio bands only (0% chose this)
B.
If the other person holds an authorization for this apparatus (0% chose this)
C.
Pending the granting of an authorization if the apparatus is certified and crystal controlled (0% chose this)
D.
Pending the granting of a radio authorization, if the apparatus covers amateur radio and commercial bands (0% chose this)

B-001-005-002

Under what circumstances can an amateur radio operator reprogram a land mobile transmitter on behalf of another person for use on 2 metres?

A.
Only if an amateur radio operator with an Advanced Qualification performs the modification (0% chose this)
B.
Only if the other person holds an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate (0% chose this)
C.
Only if the other person holds an Advanced Qualification (0% chose this)
D.
Only if the other person holds a Basic with Honours Qualification (0% chose this)

B-001-005-003

What regulatory requirement must be met to allow you to install an amateur radio transmitter on behalf of another person?

A.
Only the other person must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate (0% chose this)
B.
Both you and the other person must hold Amateur Radio Operator Certificates (0% chose this)
C.
Only you must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate (0% chose this)
D.
The other person must be enrolled in an amateur radio certification course (0% chose this)

B-001-005-004

An amateur radio operator with Basic and Morse code qualifications may install an amateur radio station for another person:

A.
only if the DC power input to the final stage does not exceed 200 watts (0% chose this)
B.
only if the final power input does not exceed 100 watts (0% chose this)
C.
only if the station is for use on one of the VHF bands (0% chose this)
D.
only if the other person is the holder of a valid Amateur Radio Operator Certificate (0% chose this)

B-001-005-005

What regulatory requirement must be met to allow you to repair an amateur radio transmitter on behalf of another person?

A.
Only you must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate (0% chose this)
B.
Both you and the other person must hold Amateur Radio Operator Certificates (0% chose this)
C.
The other person must be enrolled in an amateur radio certification course (0% chose this)
D.
Only the other person must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate (0% chose this)

B-001-005-006

What regulatory requirement must be met to allow you to place an amateur radio transmitter in service on behalf of another person?

A.
Only the other person must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate (0% chose this)
B.
Only you must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate (0% chose this)
C.
Both you and the other person must hold Amateur Radio Operator Certificates (0% chose this)
D.
The other person must be enrolled in an amateur radio certification course (0% chose this)

B-001-006-001

An amateur radio station with a maximum power output of 2 watts:

A.
is exempt from regulatory control (0% chose this)
B.
need not be authorized in isolated areas only (0% chose this)
C.
need not be authorized by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
D.
must be under the supervision of a person holding an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate and call sign (0% chose this)

B-001-006-002

An amateur radio station may be used to communicate with:

A.
any station transmitting in amateur radio bands (0% chose this)
B.
Armed Forces stations during contests and exercises (0% chose this)
C.
any stations which are identified for special contests (0% chose this)
D.
stations operated under similar authorizations (0% chose this)

B-001-006-003

Under what circumstances is an amateur radio operator permitted to use an amplifier to amplify the output of a licence-exempt transmitter?

A.
This is not permitted (0% chose this)
B.
When emissions will be outside amateur radio frequency allocations (0% chose this)
C.
Only for short test transmissions (0% chose this)
D.
When other users will not be interfered with (0% chose this)

B-001-006-004

When is it permissible to use amateur radio equipment, with or without modification, to transmit outside amateur radio bands?

A.
When the control operator holds an Advanced Qualification (0% chose this)
B.
When transmissions are limited to licence-exempt frequencies (0% chose this)
C.
When the operator already owns licensed equipment for such frequencies (0% chose this)
D.
Never, amateur radio equipment is not certified for operation outside amateur radio bands (0% chose this)

B-001-006-005

Which of the following statements is NOT correct? A person may operate radio apparatus, authorized in the amateur radio service:

A.
only if the apparatus is maintained to the performance standards set by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada regulations and policies (0% chose this)
B.
except for the amplification of the output power of licence-exempt radio apparatus operating outside authorized amateur radio service allocations (0% chose this)
C.
on aeronautical, marine or land mobile frequencies (0% chose this)
D.
only if the person complies with the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service (0% chose this)

B-001-006-006

Some VHF and UHF FM radios purchased for use in the amateur radio service can also be programmed to communicate on frequencies used for the land mobile service. Under what conditions is this permissible?

A.
The equipment is used in remote areas north of 60 degrees latitude (0% chose this)
B.
The equipment has an RF power output of 2 watts or less (0% chose this)
C.
The radio operator has a Restricted Operator's Certificate (0% chose this)
D.
The radio is certified and licensed for use in the land mobile service (0% chose this)

B-001-007-001

Which of the following topics is prohibited on an amateur radio club net?

A.
Recreation planning (0% chose this)
B.
Business planning (0% chose this)
C.
Emergency planning (0% chose this)
D.
Code practice planning (0% chose this)

B-001-007-002

When is an amateur radio operator allowed to broadcast information to the general public?

A.
Only when the broadcasts are of broad public interest (0% chose this)
B.
Only when the amateur radio operator is being paid (0% chose this)
C.
An amateur radio operator may never broadcast to the general public (0% chose this)
D.
Only when the broadcasts last less than 1 hour (0% chose this)

B-001-007-003

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A.
An amateur radio operator does not obscure the meaning of their transmissions (0% chose this)
B.
A courteous amateur radio operator refrains from using offensive language (0% chose this)
C.
An amateur radio operator may conduct occasional business on the air (0% chose this)
D.
A considerate amateur radio operator does not transmit unnecessary signals (0% chose this)

B-001-007-004

Which of the following one-way communications may NOT be transmitted in the amateur radio service?

A.
Brief transmissions to make adjustments to the station (0% chose this)
B.
Radio control commands to model craft (0% chose this)
C.
Broadcasts intended for the general public (0% chose this)
D.
Morse code practice (0% chose this)

B-001-007-005

Under what condition are you permitted to use a new digital encoding technique that you developed to transmit data over amateur radio bands?

A.
When it includes sending the amateur radio station's call sign (0% chose this)
B.
When it is used for commercial traffic (0% chose this)
C.
When it is published in the public domain (0% chose this)
D.
When it is used for music streaming content (0% chose this)

B-001-007-006

When may an amateur radio station transmit an encoded message?

A.
Only when transmitting above 450 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
Only during contests (0% chose this)
C.
Only when the encoding or cipher is not secret (0% chose this)
D.
Only during a declared communications emergency (0% chose this)

B-001-007-007

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur radio service?

A.
Only "10 codes" are permitted (0% chose this)
B.
They may be used if the signals or codes are not secret (0% chose this)
C.
There are no restrictions (0% chose this)
D.
They are not permitted because they obscure the meaning of a message to government monitoring stations (0% chose this)

B-001-007-008

What should you do to keep your amateur radio station from retransmitting music or signals from a non-amateur radio station?

A.
Adjust your transceiver noise blanker (0% chose this)
B.
Speak closer to the microphone to increase your signal strength (0% chose this)
C.
Turn up the volume of your transmitter (0% chose this)
D.
Turn down the volume of background audio (0% chose this)

B-001-007-009

The transmission of a secret code by the operator of an amateur radio station:

A.
is not permitted (0% chose this)
B.
is permitted for third-party traffic (0% chose this)
C.
is permitted for contests (0% chose this)
D.
must be approved by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)

B-001-007-010

An amateur radio operator may be engaged in communications including the transmission of:

A.
programming that originates from a broadcasting undertaking (0% chose this)
B.
Q codes (0% chose this)
C.
radiocommunication in support of industrial, business, or professional activities (0% chose this)
D.
commercially recorded material (0% chose this)

B-001-007-011

In the amateur radio service, business communications:

A.
are only permitted if they are for the safety of life or immediate protection of property (0% chose this)
B.
are not permitted under any circumstance (0% chose this)
C.
are permitted on some bands (0% chose this)
D.
are not prohibited by regulation (0% chose this)

B-001-008-001

Where may holders of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate operate an amateur radio station in Canada?

A.
Only within their province or territory (0% chose this)
B.
Anywhere in Canada (0% chose this)
C.
Only at the address shown on Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada records (0% chose this)
D.
Anywhere in Canada only during times of emergency (0% chose this)

B-001-008-002

Which type of station may transmit one-way communications?

A.
HF station (0% chose this)
B.
Repeater station (0% chose this)
C.
Beacon station (0% chose this)
D.
VHF station (0% chose this)

B-001-008-003

What minimum qualifications must an amateur radio operator hold to assemble commercially available transmitter kits of professional design?

A.
Basic and Advanced (0% chose this)
B.
Basic with Honours (0% chose this)
C.
Basic (0% chose this)
D.
Basic and Morse code (0% chose this)

B-001-008-004

What minimum qualifications must an amateur radio operator hold to install a repeater operating on a single band in a voice mode?

A.
Basic and Morse code (0% chose this)
B.
Basic and Advanced (0% chose this)
C.
Basic (0% chose this)
D.
Basic with Honours (0% chose this)

B-001-008-005

What minimum qualifications must an amateur radio operator hold to install an amateur radio club station?

A.
Basic and Advanced (0% chose this)
B.
Basic, Advanced and Morse code (0% chose this)
C.
Basic with Honours (0% chose this)
D.
Basic (0% chose this)

B-001-008-006

What minimum qualifications must an amateur radio operator hold to install or operate a transmitter or RF amplifier that is neither professionally designed nor commercially manufactured for use in the amateur radio service?

A.
Basic and Advanced (0% chose this)
B.
Basic, Advanced and Morse code (0% chose this)
C.
Basic with Honours (0% chose this)
D.
Basic and Morse code (0% chose this)

B-001-008-007

What minimum qualifications must an amateur radio operator hold to operate cross-band repeaters?

A.
Basic with Honours (0% chose this)
B.
Basic and Morse code (0% chose this)
C.
Basic (0% chose this)
D.
Basic and Advanced (0% chose this)

B-001-008-008

What minimum qualifications must an amateur radio operator hold to remotely operate a transmitter, including changing frequency, emission mode or output power?

A.
Basic and Advanced (0% chose this)
B.
Basic (0% chose this)
C.
Basic with Honours (0% chose this)
D.
Basic and Morse code (0% chose this)

B-001-009-001

Who is responsible for the operation of an amateur radio station?

A.
Only the station owner who is the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate (0% chose this)
B.
Only the control operator (0% chose this)
C.
The person who owns the station equipment (0% chose this)
D.
Both the control operator and the station owner (0% chose this)

B-001-009-002

If you transmit from another amateur radio station, who is responsible for its operation?

A.
The station owner, unless the station logbook shows you as the control operator (0% chose this)
B.
Both of you (0% chose this)
C.
You (0% chose this)
D.
The station owner (0% chose this)

B-001-009-003

What is your responsibility as a station owner?

A.
You must be present whenever the station is operated (0% chose this)
B.
You are responsible for the operation of the station in accordance with the regulations (0% chose this)
C.
You must allow another amateur radio operator to operate your station upon request (0% chose this)
D.
You must notify Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada if another amateur radio operator acts as the control operator (0% chose this)

B-001-009-004

Who may be the control operator of an amateur radio station?

A.
Any person over 21 years of age with Basic and Morse code qualifications (0% chose this)
B.
Any person over 21 years of age (0% chose this)
C.
Any person over 21 years of age with a Basic Qualification (0% chose this)
D.
Any qualified amateur radio operator chosen by the station owner (0% chose this)

B-001-009-005

When must an amateur radio station have a control operator?

A.
Only when training another amateur radio operator (0% chose this)
B.
A control operator is not needed (0% chose this)
C.
Whenever the station receiver is operated (0% chose this)
D.
Whenever the station is transmitting (0% chose this)

B-001-009-006

When an amateur radio station is transmitting, where must its control operator be?

A.
At the station's entrance, to control entry to the room (0% chose this)
B.
At the station's control point (0% chose this)
C.
Anywhere within 50 km of the station location (0% chose this)
D.
Anywhere in the same building as the transmitter (0% chose this)

B-001-009-007

Why can't family members without qualifications transmit using your amateur radio station if they are alone with your equipment?

A.
They must not use your equipment without your permission (0% chose this)
B.
They must first know the right frequencies and emission modes for transmitting (0% chose this)
C.
They must first know how to use the right abbreviations and Q signals (0% chose this)
D.
They must hold suitable amateur radio qualifications before they are allowed to be control operators (0% chose this)

B-001-009-008

The owner of an amateur radio station may:

A.
permit any person to operate the station under the supervision and in the presence of the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate (0% chose this)
B.
permit anyone to take part in communications only if prior written permission is received from Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
C.
permit anyone to use the station without restrictions (0% chose this)
D.
permit anyone to use the station and take part in communications (0% chose this)

B-001-009-009

Under what circumstances can a person who does NOT have an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate operate an amateur radio station?

A.
When the person is under supervision, and in the presence of, a person holding appropriate qualifications (0% chose this)
B.
When the person has been briefed over the telephone by a person holding appropriate qualifications (0% chose this)
C.
When the person is actively enrolled in an amateur radio course (0% chose this)
D.
When the person holds a valid licence in the land mobile or maritime services (0% chose this)

B-001-010-001

What is a transmission that disturbs other communications called?

A.
Unidentified transmissions (0% chose this)
B.
Interrupted CW (0% chose this)
C.
Harmful interference (0% chose this)
D.
Transponder signals (0% chose this)

B-001-010-002

When may you deliberately interfere with another amateur radio station's communications?

A.
Deliberate interference is never acceptable (0% chose this)
B.
Only if the station is operating illegally (0% chose this)
C.
Only if the station begins transmitting on a frequency you are using (0% chose this)
D.
Only when you are operating within crowded band conditions (0% chose this)

B-001-010-003

If the regulations say that the amateur radio service is a secondary user of a frequency band, and another service is a primary user, what does this mean?

A.
Amateur radio operators can only use the band briefly for radio testing and adjustment purposes (0% chose this)
B.
Amateur radio operators are only allowed to use the frequency band during emergencies (0% chose this)
C.
Nothing special: all users of a frequency band have equal rights to operate (0% chose this)
D.
Amateur radio operators are allowed to use the frequency band only if they do not cause interference to primary users (0% chose this)

B-001-010-004

What rule applies if two amateur radio operators want to use the same frequency?

A.
The station operator with a lesser qualification must yield the frequency to an operator of higher qualification (0% chose this)
B.
Both station operators have an equal right to operate on the frequency (0% chose this)
C.
Station operators in regions 1 and 3 of the International Telecommunication Union must yield the frequency to stations in region 2 (0% chose this)
D.
The station operator with a lower power output must yield the frequency to the station with a higher power output (0% chose this)

B-001-010-005

What name is given to a form of interference that seriously degrades, obstructs or repeatedly interrupts a radiocommunication service?

A.
Harmful interference (0% chose this)
B.
Disruptive interference (0% chose this)
C.
Intentional interference (0% chose this)
D.
Adjacent interference (0% chose this)

B-001-010-006

In the event the Minister of Innovation, Science and Industry determines that an amateur radio station causes harmful interference, what are the Minister's powers?

A.
Revoke the amateur radio operator's certificate without giving written notice (0% chose this)
B.
Order the station's operation to cease or change (0% chose this)
C.
Delegate the matter to the Canadian Radio-television and Telecommunications Commission (0% chose this)
D.
Convene the parties to arrive at a compromise solution (0% chose this)

B-001-010-007

Amateur radio operation must not cause interference to other radio services operating in which of the following bands?

A.
7.0 MHz to 7.1 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
14.0 MHz to 14.2 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
430.0 MHz to 450.0 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
144.0 MHz to 148.0 MHz (0% chose this)

B-001-010-008

Amateur radio operations are NOT protected from interference caused by another service operating in which of the following frequency bands?

A.
902 MHz to 928 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
222 MHz to 225 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
144 MHz to 148 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
50 MHz to 54 MHz (0% chose this)

B-001-010-009

Under what circumstances may the operator of an amateur radio station conduct test transmissions?

A.
When transmitting in designated sub-bands (0% chose this)
B.
When the transmission will not cause interference to stations in the amateur radio service or other services (0% chose this)
C.
After warning other stations who might be interfered with (0% chose this)
D.
Only between the hours of midnight and 8:00 AM (0% chose this)

B-001-010-010

Which of these amateur radio bands may be heavily occupied by licence-exempt devices?

A.
135.7 kHz to 137.8 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
3.5 MHz to 4.0 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
430 MHz to 450 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
902 MHz to 928 MHz (0% chose this)

B-001-011-001

Amateur radio stations may communicate:

A.
only with other amateur radio stations (0% chose this)
B.
with anyone who uses international Morse code (0% chose this)
C.
with any station involved in a real or simulated emergency (0% chose this)
D.
with non-amateur radio stations (0% chose this)

B-001-011-002

During relief operations in the days following a disaster, when may you use your amateur radio equipment to communicate on frequencies outside amateur radio bands?

A.
When messages are destined to agencies without amateur radio support (0% chose this)
B.
When relaying messages on behalf of government agencies (0% chose this)
C.
Using frequencies outside amateur radio bands is never permitted (0% chose this)
D.
When normal communication systems are overloaded, damaged or disrupted (0% chose this)

B-001-011-003

If you hear an unanswered distress signal on an amateur radio band where you do NOT have privileges to communicate:

A.
you may respond and offer assistance using international Morse code only (0% chose this)
B.
you may not respond nor offer assistance (0% chose this)
C.
you may respond and offer assistance (0% chose this)
D.
you may respond and offer assistance after obtaining permission from Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)

B-001-011-004

In the amateur radio service, it is permissible to broadcast:

A.
programming that originates from a broadcast undertaking (0% chose this)
B.
commercially recorded material (0% chose this)
C.
music that is picked up by your microphone (0% chose this)
D.
radio communications required for the safety of life and property (0% chose this)

B-001-011-005

An amateur radio operator in distress may:

A.
use any means of radiocommunication (0% chose this)
B.
only use bands for which the operator is authorized (0% chose this)
C.
only use Morse code communications on internationally recognized emergency channels (0% chose this)
D.
use any means of radiocommunication, but only on internationally recognized emergency channels (0% chose this)

B-001-011-006

During a disaster, when may an amateur radio station make transmissions necessary to meet essential communication needs and assist relief operations?

A.
Only when the local emergency net is activated (0% chose this)
B.
When normal communication systems are working but are not convenient (0% chose this)
C.
Never, only official emergency stations may transmit in a disaster (0% chose this)
D.
When normal communication systems are overloaded, damaged or disrupted (0% chose this)

B-001-011-007

What transmitter power limitations must be observed by an amateur radio operator in distress?

A.
750 watts carrier power (0% chose this)
B.
No limitations (0% chose this)
C.
2250 watts PEP (0% chose this)
D.
1000 watts DC input (0% chose this)

B-001-011-008

What is expected of operators NOT directly involved in a disaster relief net?

A.
Limit operation to narrow bandwidth digital modes (0% chose this)
B.
Avoid needless transmissions on or near the net frequency (0% chose this)
C.
Choose another band with a shorter distance reach (0% chose this)
D.
Defer communications until net activity is less intense (0% chose this)

B-001-011-009

When may amateur radio operators handle messages from recognized public service agencies?

A.
During peace time, civil emergencies and exercises (0% chose this)
B.
When data modes are used exclusively (0% chose this)
C.
When operators have an Advanced Qualification (0% chose this)
D.
When special authorization has been obtained from Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)

B-001-011-010

When are you permitted to interfere with another station's transmissions?

A.
When you both wish to contact the same station (0% chose this)
B.
When the other station is interfering with your transmission (0% chose this)
C.
When the other station is not operating in accordance with the Radiocommunication Regulations (0% chose this)
D.
When your station is directly involved with a distress situation (0% chose this)

B-001-012-001

What kind of payment is allowed for third-party messages sent by an amateur radio station?

A.
Donation of equipment repairs (0% chose this)
B.
Donation of amateur radio equipment (0% chose this)
C.
No payment of any kind is allowed (0% chose this)
D.
Any amount agreed upon in advance (0% chose this)

B-001-012-002

Radiocommunications transmitted by stations other than a broadcasting station may be divulged or used:

A.
if transmitted in English or French (0% chose this)
B.
if the other station is using digital means (0% chose this)
C.
if it is transmitted by an amateur radio station (0% chose this)
D.
during peacetime civil emergencies (0% chose this)

B-001-012-003

When may an amateur radio operator demand or accept remuneration for exchanging messages?

A.
When a gift or gratuity replaces remuneration (0% chose this)
B.
When the messages are exchanged outside a real emergency (0% chose this)
C.
When a non-governmental organization is involved (0% chose this)
D.
Never, it is expressly prohibited (0% chose this)

B-001-012-004

With regard to divulging the content of radiocommunications other than broadcasting, which of the following is an offence?

A.
Where it is on behalf of Canada, for the purpose of national defence or security (0% chose this)
B.
Where it is for the purpose of giving evidence in a criminal or civil court (0% chose this)
C.
Where it is for the purpose of answering questions from a media organization (0% chose this)
D.
Where it is for the purpose of protecting property or preventing harm (0% chose this)

B-001-013-001

Which of the following call signs is a valid Canadian amateur radio call sign?

A.
VA3RAC (0% chose this)
B.
SM2CAN (0% chose this)
C.
KA9OLS (0% chose this)
D.
BY7HY (0% chose this)

B-001-013-002

How often must an amateur radio station be identified?

A.
At the beginning and end of each transmission (0% chose this)
B.
At least once during each transmission (0% chose this)
C.
At the beginning of a contact and at least every thirty minutes after that (0% chose this)
D.
At least every thirty minutes, and at the beginning and at the end of a contact (0% chose this)

B-001-013-003

What do you transmit to identify your amateur radio station?

A.
Your full name (0% chose this)
B.
Your call sign (0% chose this)
C.
Your "handle" (0% chose this)
D.
Your first name and your location (0% chose this)

B-001-013-004

What identification, if any, is required when two amateur radio stations begin communications?

A.
No identification is required (0% chose this)
B.
One of the stations must give both stations' call signs (0% chose this)
C.
Both stations must transmit both call signs (0% chose this)
D.
Each station must transmit its own call sign (0% chose this)

B-001-013-005

What identification, if any, is required when two amateur radio stations end communications?

A.
No identification is required (0% chose this)
B.
Both stations must transmit both call signs (0% chose this)
C.
One of the stations must transmit both stations' call signs (0% chose this)
D.
Each station must transmit its own call sign (0% chose this)

B-001-013-006

What is the longest period of time an amateur radio station can transmit, without identifying by call sign?

A.
15 minutes (0% chose this)
B.
20 minutes (0% chose this)
C.
10 minutes (0% chose this)
D.
30 minutes (0% chose this)

B-001-013-007

When may an amateur radio operator transmit unidentified communications?

A.
Only to control a model craft (0% chose this)
B.
Only for two-way or third-party communications (0% chose this)
C.
Only if it does not interfere with others (0% chose this)
D.
Only for brief tests not meant as messages (0% chose this)

B-001-013-008

What language may you use when identifying your station?

A.
Any language of a country that is a member of the International Telecommunication Union (0% chose this)
B.
Any language being used for a contact, providing Canada has a third-party communications agreement with that country (0% chose this)
C.
English or French (0% chose this)
D.
Any language being used for a contact (0% chose this)

B-001-013-009

The call sign of an amateur radio station must be transmitted:

A.
at intervals not greater than three minutes when using voice communications (0% chose this)
B.
at the beginning and at the end of each contact and at intervals not greater than 30 minutes (0% chose this)
C.
when requested to do so by the station being called (0% chose this)
D.
at intervals not greater than ten minutes when using digital modes (0% chose this)

B-001-013-010

What are the station identification requirements for a test transmission?

A.
Identification is only needed on voice modes (0% chose this)
B.
Brief test transmissions need not be identified (0% chose this)
C.
Identification shall be transmitted at five-minute intervals (0% chose this)
D.
The rules are the same for a test or a radio contact (0% chose this)

B-001-013-011

The call sign of a Canadian amateur radio station would normally start with the letters:

A.
VA, VE, VO or VY (0% chose this)
B.
GA, GE, MO or VQ (0% chose this)
C.
A, K, N or W (0% chose this)
D.
EA, EI, RO or UY (0% chose this)

B-001-014-001

If a friend without amateur radio certification is using your station to talk to someone in Canada, and a foreign station breaks in to talk to your friend, what should you do?

A.
Take over the conversation with the Canadian and foreign station (0% chose this)
B.
Instruct your friend to ignore the foreign station (0% chose this)
C.
Stop all discussions and quickly sign off (0% chose this)
D.
Continue monitoring the communications of your friend (0% chose this)

B-001-014-002

In what circumstances can foreign amateur radio operators, other than United States citizens, operate while visiting Canada?

A.
Canada automatically grants privileges to visiting amateur radio operators (0% chose this)
B.
Amateur radio operators are automatically granted equivalent privileges in all member states of the International Telecommunication Union (0% chose this)
C.
The foreign amateur radio operator must submit an application to Radio Amateurs of Canada (RAC) (0% chose this)
D.
Their country has an agreement with Canada and the amateur radio operator has obtained the appropriate permit (0% chose this)

B-001-014-003

Canadian amateur radio operators may use their stations to transmit international communications on behalf of a third party:

A.
when it is permitted by the foreign country (0% chose this)
B.
because Canada does not prohibit international communications on behalf of third parties (0% chose this)
C.
when prior remuneration has been received (0% chose this)
D.
if the amateur radio station has received written authorization from Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)

B-001-014-004

What condition would preclude a Canadian amateur radio station from communicating with amateur radio stations in another country?

A.
The country is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU) (0% chose this)
B.
The conversation is not conducted totally in English or French (0% chose this)
C.
The country has filed an objection to such communications with the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) (0% chose this)
D.
It is prohibited by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)

B-001-014-005

Foreign amateur radio operators may operate in Canada if they qualify for a CEPT (European Conference of Postal and Telecommunications Administrations) Amateur Radio Licence. What operating privileges are they granted by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada?

A.
Advanced (0% chose this)
B.
Basic and Morse code (0% chose this)
C.
Basic with Honours (0% chose this)
D.
Basic (0% chose this)

B-001-014-006

Third-party communications are those conducted on behalf of a person without amateur radio certification. In the Canadian amateur radio service, what third-party communications are permissible?

A.
Only communications of a personal and non-commercial nature (0% chose this)
B.
Only communications where the third party is in a country approved by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
C.
Only communications routed through a digital network (0% chose this)
D.
Only communications conducted entirely within Canada (0% chose this)

B-001-014-007

International third-party amateur radio communication in case of emergencies or disaster relief is expressly permitted unless:

A.
satellite communication can be originated in the disaster area (0% chose this)
B.
specifically prohibited by the foreign administration concerned (0% chose this)
C.
internet service is working well in the foreign country involved (0% chose this)
D.
the foreign administration is in a declared state of war (0% chose this)

B-001-014-008

You and a foreign amateur radio operator both have a local friend without amateur radio certification engaged in radio communication. Who is considered a third party?

A.
The non-certified person at the Canadian station (0% chose this)
B.
Both non-certified persons (0% chose this)
C.
The foreign amateur radio operator and both non-certified persons (0% chose this)
D.
The foreign amateur radio operator and the other person at the foreign station (0% chose this)

B-001-014-009

While operating in Canada, what information must the holder of a United States-issued call sign indicate at least once during a contact?

A.
Location and output power (0% chose this)
B.
City and state of residence (0% chose this)
C.
Current grid square (0% chose this)
D.
Location by city and province (0% chose this)

B-001-014-010

While in Canada and operating in a voice mode, American amateur radio operators must identify with their call sign, the qualifier "mobile" or "portable" and what other information?

A.
The transmitting frequency being used (0% chose this)
B.
The Canadian call sign prefix for the geographic location of the station (0% chose this)
C.
The name of the nearest Canadian community (0% chose this)
D.
The name of the province or territory where the station is located (0% chose this)

B-001-014-011

Canadian amateur radio stations may provide communications on behalf of third parties:

A.
only in cases of emergencies or disaster relief (0% chose this)
B.
on frequencies assigned to the Canadian Forces Affiliate Radio Service (CFARS) (0% chose this)
C.
only with countries that have third-party traffic agreements with Canada (0% chose this)
D.
with any other amateur radio station (0% chose this)

B-001-015-001

If you let another amateur radio operator with additional qualifications than yours control your station and operate under your call sign, what operating privileges are allowed?

A.
Any privileges allowed by the additional qualifications (0% chose this)
B.
Only the privileges allowed by your qualifications (0% chose this)
C.
All the frequency privileges of the additional qualifications, but only the emission privileges of your qualifications (0% chose this)
D.
All the emission privileges of the additional qualifications, but only the frequency privileges of your qualifications (0% chose this)

B-001-015-002

If you are the control operator at the station of another amateur radio operator who has more certificate qualifications than you, what operating privileges are you allowed?

A.
Only the privileges allowed by your qualifications (0% chose this)
B.
All the frequency privileges of the additional qualifications, but only the emission privileges of your qualifications (0% chose this)
C.
All the emission privileges of the additional qualifications, but only the frequency privileges of your qualifications (0% chose this)
D.
Any privileges allowed by the additional qualifications (0% chose this)

B-001-015-003

In addition to passing the Basic written examination, what must you do before you are allowed to use amateur radio frequencies below 30 MHz?

A.
You must attain a mark of 80% on the Basic examination, or pass an Advanced or Morse code examination (0% chose this)
B.
You must attend a class to learn about HF communications (0% chose this)
C.
You must notify Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada that you intend to operate on the HF bands (0% chose this)
D.
You must pass a provincial communications examination (0% chose this)

B-001-015-004

The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate may operate radio-controlled models:

A.
on all amateur radio bands above 30 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
if only pulse modulation is used (0% chose this)
C.
if the control transmitter does not exceed 15 kHz of occupied bandwidth (0% chose this)
D.
on all amateur radio bands below 30 MHz (0% chose this)

B-001-015-005

What is the frequency range of the 80-metre amateur radio band in Canada?

A.
4.5 MHz to 5.0 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
3.5 MHz to 4.0 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
3.0 MHz to 3.5 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
4.0 MHz to 4.5 MHz (0% chose this)

B-001-015-006

What is the frequency range of the 160-metre amateur radio band in Canada?

A.
2.0 MHz to 2.25 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
1.5 MHz to 2.0 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
2.25 MHz to 2.5 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
1.8 MHz to 2.0 MHz (0% chose this)

B-001-015-007

What is the frequency range of the 40-metre amateur radio band in Canada?

A.
6.5 MHz to 6.8 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
6.0 MHz to 6.3 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
7.7 MHz to 8.0 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
7.0 MHz to 7.3 MHz (0% chose this)

B-001-015-008

What is the frequency range of the 20-metre amateur radio band in Canada?

A.
15.000 MHz to 15.750 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
14.000 MHz to 14.350 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
13.500 MHz to 14.000 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
16.350 MHz to 16.830 MHz (0% chose this)

B-001-015-009

What is the frequency range of the 15-metre amateur radio band in Canada?

A.
14.000 MHz to 14.350 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
18.068 MHz to 18.168 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
28.000 MHz to 29.700 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
21.000 MHz to 21.450 MHz (0% chose this)

B-001-015-010

What is the frequency range of the 10-metre amateur radio band in Canada?

A.
21.000 MHz to 21.450 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
24.890 MHz to 24.990 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
28.000 MHz to 29.700 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
50.000 MHz to 54.000 MHz (0% chose this)

B-001-015-011

In Canada, which bands may amateur radio operators use for radio control of models?

A.
All amateur radio bands above 30 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
50 MHz to 54 MHz, 144 MHz to 148 MHz, and 222 MHz to 225 MHz only (0% chose this)
C.
All amateur radio bands (0% chose this)
D.
50 MHz to 54 MHz only (0% chose this)

B-001-016-001

What is the maximum authorized bandwidth on the 6-metre and 2-metre bands?

A.
30 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
6 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
20 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
5 kHz (0% chose this)

B-001-016-002

The maximum bandwidth of an amateur radio station's transmission allowed in the band 28 MHz to 29.7 MHz is:

A.
20 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
6 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
15 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
30 kHz (0% chose this)

B-001-016-003

Except for one band, what is the allowed bandwidth on amateur radio bands between 7 MHz and 25 MHz?

A.
20 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
6 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
30 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
15 kHz (0% chose this)

B-001-016-004

The maximum bandwidth of an amateur radio station's transmission allowed in the band 144 MHz to 148 MHz is:

A.
15 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
30 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
20 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
6 kHz (0% chose this)

B-001-016-005

The maximum bandwidth of an amateur radio station's transmission allowed in the band 50 MHz to 54 MHz is:

A.
6 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
15 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
30 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
20 kHz (0% chose this)

B-001-016-006

Which of the following amateur radio bands has a maximum allowed bandwidth of less than 6 kHz?

A.
24.890 MHz to 24.990 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
1.800 MHz to 2.000 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
10.100 MHz to 10.150 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
18.068 MHz to 18.168 MHz (0% chose this)

B-001-016-007

In which of the following amateur radio bands is single sideband prohibited?

A.
7.000 MHz to 7.300 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
10.100 MHz to 10.150 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
18.068 MHz to 18.168 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
24.890 MHz to 24.990 MHz (0% chose this)

B-001-016-008

What precaution must an amateur radio operator take when transmitting near band edges?

A.
Reduce transmitter power (0% chose this)
B.
Restrict operation to radiotelegraphy (CW) or digital modes (0% chose this)
C.
Ensure that the entire occupied bandwidth falls within the amateur radio band (0% chose this)
D.
Make sure that the emission mode is compatible with agreed band plans (0% chose this)

B-001-016-009

Based on the frequency stated and emission mode, which of the following combinations is prohibited?

A.
Fast-scan television (ATV) on 440 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
Fast-scan television (ATV) on 145 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
Morse radiotelegraphy (CW) on 10.145 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
FT8 on 14.074 MHz (0% chose this)

B-001-016-010

Based on the frequency stated and emission mode, which of the following combinations is prohibited?

A.
Single sideband (SSB) on 3.76 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
Fast-scan television (ATV) on 14.23 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
Slow-scan television (SSTV) on 14.23 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
Frequency modulation (FM) on 29.60 MHz (0% chose this)

B-001-016-011

Based on the frequency stated and emission mode, which of the following combinations is prohibited?

A.
Morse radiotelegraphy (CW) on 10.11 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
Frequency modulation (FM) on 29.6 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
Single sideband (SSB) on 10.12 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
FT8 on 10.136 MHz (0% chose this)

B-001-017-001

What transmitter power should Canadian amateur radio operators use at all times?

A.
560 watts DC input (0% chose this)
B.
400 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
C.
The minimum legal power necessary to communicate (0% chose this)
D.
560 watts PEP output (0% chose this)

B-001-017-002

For single sideband (SSB) operation, what is the maximum transmitter peak envelope power (PEP) that an amateur radio station may use if the operator holds an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Advanced Qualification?

A.
190 watts (0% chose this)
B.
250 watts (0% chose this)
C.
2250 watts (0% chose this)
D.
560 watts (0% chose this)

B-001-017-003

You have determined the maximum transmitter power that meets RF exposure and radiated power limits. Where do you verify this power is NOT exceeded?

A.
At the output of the transmitter or external amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
At the antenna feed point (0% chose this)
C.
At the antenna tuner output (0% chose this)
D.
At the power supply terminals (0% chose this)

B-001-017-004

For SSB operation on 3750 kHz, what is the maximum transmitter peak envelope power (PEP) that an amateur radio station may use if the operator holds an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic and Morse code qualifications?

A.
1000 watts (0% chose this)
B.
560 watts (0% chose this)
C.
2250 watts (0% chose this)
D.
1500 watts (0% chose this)

B-001-017-005

For SSB operation on 7055 kHz, what is the maximum transmitter peak envelope power (PEP) that an amateur radio station may use if the operator holds an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic Qualification with Honours?

A.
560 watts (0% chose this)
B.
2250 watts (0% chose this)
C.
1000 watts (0% chose this)
D.
200 watts (0% chose this)

B-001-017-006

What is the maximum effective radiated power (ERP), expressed as peak envelope power (PEP), the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Advanced Qualification may use on 60 metres?

A.
560 watts (0% chose this)
B.
100 watts (0% chose this)
C.
250 watts (0% chose this)
D.
2250 watts (0% chose this)

B-001-017-007

What is the maximum allowed DC input power to the final RF stage of an amateur radio transmitter when the operator holds an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Advanced Qualification?

A.
1000 watts (0% chose this)
B.
560 watts (0% chose this)
C.
250 watts (0% chose this)
D.
1500 watts (0% chose this)

B-001-017-008

On 630 metres and 2200 metres, what key antenna characteristic must be taken into account to comply with power limitations expressed as equivalent isotropically radiated power (EIRP)?

A.
Gain (0% chose this)
B.
Resonance (0% chose this)
C.
Bandwidth (0% chose this)
D.
Impedance (0% chose this)

B-001-017-009

What maximum DC input power to the transmitter final amplifier stage, may be used by the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic Qualification?

A.
560 watts (0% chose this)
B.
750 watts (0% chose this)
C.
250 watts (0% chose this)
D.
1000 watts (0% chose this)

B-001-017-010

Unless an operator holds an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Advanced Qualification, what is the maximum carrier power that an amateur radio station may use on emissions other than SSB?

A.
750 watts (0% chose this)
B.
250 watts (0% chose this)
C.
560 watts (0% chose this)
D.
190 watts (0% chose this)

B-001-018-001

What kind of amateur radio station automatically retransmits the signals of other stations?

A.
Beacon station (0% chose this)
B.
Remote-control station (0% chose this)
C.
Repeater station (0% chose this)
D.
Satellite control station (0% chose this)

B-001-018-002

An unmodulated carrier may be transmitted only:

A.
for holding a frequency until a net begins (0% chose this)
B.
if the final RF amplifier output is kept under 5 watts (0% chose this)
C.
for brief tests on frequencies below 30 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
for CW communication (0% chose this)

B-001-018-003

What is the lowest output frequency of the repeaters that holders of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with only a Basic Qualification are allowed to use?

A.
29.500 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
144 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
29.700 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
50 MHz (0% chose this)

B-001-018-004

What is the lowest output frequency band segment of the repeaters that holders of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with only a Basic Qualification are allowed to use?

A.
28.000 MHz to 29.700 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
53 MHz to 54 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
145 MHz to 148 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
29.500 MHz to 29.700 MHz (0% chose this)

B-001-019-001

What do Canadian regulations stipulate regarding frequency stability in the amateur radio service?

A.
It shall remain within 2 parts per million, one hour after power up (0% chose this)
B.
It must be equivalent to crystal control below 148 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
It must not drift more than 10 Hz from a governmental time signal broadcast service (0% chose this)
D.
It shall remain within 0.05% from -30 to +40 degrees Celsius ambient temperature (0% chose this)

B-001-019-002

Which of the following emission modes requires that an amateur radio station have means to prevent or indicate overmodulation?

A.
RTTY (0% chose this)
B.
SSB (0% chose this)
C.
CW (0% chose this)
D.
FM (0% chose this)

B-001-019-003

Amateur radio stations are required to have means of indicating or preventing a signal quality problem unique to voice transmissions. What is it?

A.
Inadequate pre-emphasis (0% chose this)
B.
Excessive compression (0% chose this)
C.
Overmodulation (0% chose this)
D.
Inadequate audio filtering (0% chose this)

B-001-019-004

What is the maximum percentage of modulation permitted for amateur radio voice communications?

A.
50% (0% chose this)
B.
90% (0% chose this)
C.
100% (0% chose this)
D.
75% (0% chose this)

B-001-019-005

What must all amateur radio stations be capable of reliably measuring, regardless of emission mode?

A.
Frequency (0% chose this)
B.
Modulation (0% chose this)
C.
SWR (0% chose this)
D.
RF power (0% chose this)

B-001-019-006

What is the maximum percentage of modulation permitted for amateur radio voice communications?

A.
100% (0% chose this)
B.
50% (0% chose this)
C.
75% (0% chose this)
D.
90% (0% chose this)

B-001-020-001

What types of messages may be transmitted to an amateur radio station in a foreign country?

A.
Messages of any type, if the foreign country allows third-party communications with Canada (0% chose this)
B.
Messages that are not religious, political, or patriotic in nature (0% chose this)
C.
Messages of any type (0% chose this)
D.
Messages related to the purposes of amateur radio or remarks of a personal nature (0% chose this)

B-001-020-002

The amateur radio station operator shall ensure that:

A.
international communications are limited to the purposes of amateur radio or remarks of a personal nature (0% chose this)
B.
international communications are carried out within the power limitations of the foreign administration (0% chose this)
C.
commercial communications are brief (0% chose this)
D.
third parties are charged a nominal sum for their messages (0% chose this)

B-001-020-003

Which of the following is a provision of the International Telecommunication Union's Radio Regulations that applies to Canadian amateur radio operators?

A.
International communications are permitted unless an administration has registered an objection (0% chose this)
B.
Amateur radio operators may recover reasonable costs from transmitting third-party messages (0% chose this)
C.
Certification requirements in the amateur radio service are prescribed in the Radio Regulations (0% chose this)
D.
Radiocommunications between certified amateur radio operators are always permitted even if a country objects (0% chose this)

B-001-020-004

What do the International Telecommunication Union's Radio Regulations prescribe regarding proficiency in Morse code?

A.
Administrations shall not make proficiency in Morse code a requirement (0% chose this)
B.
Current regulations make no reference to proficiency in Morse code (0% chose this)
C.
Amateur radio operators must demonstrate proficiency in Morse code before using it on international communications (0% chose this)
D.
Administrations determine if proficiency in Morse code is a requirement for authorization (0% chose this)

B-001-020-005

Canadian amateur radio operators must comply with the Radiocommunication Act and Radiocommunication Regulations. What other organization issues radio regulations that Canadian amateur radio operators must comply with?

A.
Provincial or territorial government communications department (0% chose this)
B.
International Amateur Radio Union (0% chose this)
C.
Radio Amateurs of Canada (RAC) (0% chose this)
D.
International Telecommunication Union (0% chose this)

B-001-021-001

In which region of the International Telecommunication Union is Canada located?

A.
Region 4 (0% chose this)
B.
Region 1 (0% chose this)
C.
Region 2 (0% chose this)
D.
Region 3 (0% chose this)

B-001-021-002

A Canadian amateur radio operator, operating their station in the state of Florida, is subject to which frequency band limits?

A.
Those applicable in International Telecommunication Union region 3 (0% chose this)
B.
Those applicable in International Telecommunication Union region 1 (0% chose this)
C.
Those applicable in International Telecommunication Union region 2 (0% chose this)
D.
Those applicable to United States amateur radio operators (0% chose this)

B-001-021-003

A Canadian amateur radio operator, operating their station 7 kilometres offshore from the coast of Florida, is subject to which frequency band limits?

A.
Those applicable in International Telecommunication Union region 2 (0% chose this)
B.
Those applicable to United States amateur radio operators (0% chose this)
C.
Those applicable in International Telecommunication Union region 1 (0% chose this)
D.
Those applicable to Canadian amateur radio operators (0% chose this)

B-001-021-004

In which region of the International Telecommunication Union are Australia, Japan, and Southeast Asia located?

A.
Region 1 (0% chose this)
B.
Region 3 (0% chose this)
C.
Region 4 (0% chose this)
D.
Region 2 (0% chose this)

B-001-021-005

In which region of the International Telecommunication Union are Europe and Africa located?

A.
Region 1 (0% chose this)
B.
Region 2 (0% chose this)
C.
Region 4 (0% chose this)
D.
Region 3 (0% chose this)

B-001-021-006

A CEPT (European Conference of Postal and Telecommunications Administrations) Amateur Radio Licence allows a qualified Canadian amateur radio operator to operate while visiting any participating country. What minimum level of qualification does a Canadian amateur radio operator need?

A.
Advanced (0% chose this)
B.
Basic with Morse code (0% chose this)
C.
Basic with Honours (0% chose this)
D.
Basic (0% chose this)

B-001-021-007

A Canadian amateur radio operator with a CEPT (European Conference of Postal and Telecommunications Administrations) Amateur Radio Licence operates in a participating country using a voice mode. What form of identification is required?

A.
Transmit their Canadian call sign, followed by "stroke," followed by the visited country's prefix (0% chose this)
B.
Transmit their Canadian call sign, followed by "stroke," followed by the name of the country being visited (0% chose this)
C.
Transmit their Canadian call sign (0% chose this)
D.
Transmit the visited country's prefix, followed by "stroke," followed by their Canadian call sign (0% chose this)

B-001-021-008

What minimum level of qualification does a Canadian amateur radio operator need to operate in the United States?

A.
Basic (0% chose this)
B.
Basic with Morse code (0% chose this)
C.
Basic with Honours (0% chose this)
D.
Advanced (0% chose this)

B-001-021-009

A Canadian amateur radio operator is operating in the United States using voice. What form of identification is required?

A.
Transmit their Canadian call sign (0% chose this)
B.
Transmit their Canadian call sign, followed by "portable" or "mobile" as appropriate, followed by the prefix for the US call area being visited (0% chose this)
C.
Transmit the prefix for the US call area being visited, followed by "portable" or "mobile" as appropriate, followed by their Canadian call sign (0% chose this)
D.
Transmit their Canadian call sign, followed by the city and state where they are visiting (0% chose this)

B-001-022-001

Which of these statements is NOT correct?

A.
The fee for taking an examination for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate at an Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada office is $5 per qualification (0% chose this)
B.
An accredited examiner may recover the cost of administering an examination (0% chose this)
C.
There are no fees for taking an examination for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate at an Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada office (0% chose this)
D.
An accredited examiner must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic, Advanced, and Morse code qualifications (0% chose this)

B-001-022-002

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A.
A disabled candidate may be exempted from portions of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate examination (0% chose this)
B.
Examinations for disabled candidates may be given orally, or tailored to the candidate's ability to complete the examination (0% chose this)
C.
A disabled candidate, taking a Morse code sending test, may be allowed to recite the examination text in Morse code sounds (0% chose this)
D.
After passing the basic exam, a disabled candidate may take the other exams in any order (0% chose this)

B-001-022-003

What is the fee for taking an examination for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate, administered by an accredited examiner?

A.
The examiner may charge a fee to recover costs (0% chose this)
B.
No fee may be charged (0% chose this)
C.
$20 per examination sitting (0% chose this)
D.
$20 per qualification (0% chose this)

B-001-022-004

What is the fee for taking Amateur Radio Operator Certificate examinations at an Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada office?

A.
$20 per visit, regardless of the number of qualification examinations (0% chose this)
B.
$20 per qualification (0% chose this)
C.
No charge for qualification examinations (0% chose this)
D.
$5 per qualification examination (0% chose this)

B-001-022-005

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A.
A candidate who fails a written examination due to not usually speaking English or French may be given an oral examination (0% chose this)
B.
A candidate with insufficient knowledge of English or French may be accompanied by an interpreter (0% chose this)
C.
An examiner may request medical evidence from a practising medical physician before accommodating testing (0% chose this)
D.
A candidate who fails a written examination for lack of reading skills may be given an oral examination (0% chose this)

B-001-023-001

Which of these statements about the installation or modification of an antenna structure is NOT correct?

A.
Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada expects amateur radio operators to address community concerns in a responsible manner (0% chose this)
B.
An amateur radio operator may erect any size antenna structure without consulting neighbours or the local land-use authority (0% chose this)
C.
Prior to an installation, for which community concerns could be raised, amateur radio operators may be required to consult with their land-use authority (0% chose this)
D.
An amateur radio operator must follow Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada's antenna siting procedures (0% chose this)

B-001-023-002

Who has authority over antenna installations, including antenna masts and towers?

A.
The provincial or territorial Minister of Infrastructure (0% chose this)
B.
The Minister of Innovation, Science and Industry (0% chose this)
C.
The majority of neighbours within a distance of three times the proposed antenna height (0% chose this)
D.
The local municipal government (0% chose this)

B-001-023-003

When may you NOT be required to contact land-use authorities to determine public consultation requirements for an antenna system?

A.
When the structure is part of an amateur radio antenna (0% chose this)
B.
When transmitting will only be done at low power (0% chose this)
C.
When an exclusion criterion defined by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada applies (0% chose this)
D.
In a rural area (0% chose this)

B-001-023-004

If an amateur radio operator wants to install or modify an antenna system and the local land-use authority has no approval process, what must the amateur radio operator do?

A.
Develop their own public consultation process (0% chose this)
B.
Wait for the land-use authority to develop its own public consultation process (0% chose this)
C.
Follow the default public consultation process outlined by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
D.
Proceed without public consultation (0% chose this)

B-001-023-005

Which is NOT an element of the Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada public consultation process for antenna systems?

A.
Participating in public meetings on the project (0% chose this)
B.
Providing written notice (0% chose this)
C.
Addressing relevant questions, comments and concerns (0% chose this)
D.
Providing an opportunity for the public to respond regarding measures to address reasonable and relevant concerns (0% chose this)

B-001-023-006

Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada's default public consultation process for antenna systems requires proponents to address:

A.
reasonable and relevant concerns provided in writing within the 30-day public comment period (0% chose this)
B.
all questions, comments and concerns raised (0% chose this)
C.
comments reported in the media (0% chose this)
D.
opposition to the project (0% chose this)

B-001-023-007

In a municipality with a public consultation process for antenna systems, when might public consultation NOT be required?

A.
The system is excluded by the municipal process (0% chose this)
B.
The system is excluded by the provisions of Client Procedures Circular CPC-2-0-03 (0% chose this)
C.
The system is excluded by the municipal process AND the provisions of Client Procedures Circular CPC-2-0-03 (0% chose this)
D.
The system is excluded by the municipal process OR the provisions of Client Procedures Circular CPC-2-0-03 (0% chose this)

B-001-023-008

The proponent of an antenna system and a stakeholder, other than the general public, have failed to reach an agreement. How is a final decision reached?

A.
The decision is made by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
B.
The decision is made by the local municipality (0% chose this)
C.
The decision is postponed until an agreement is reached (0% chose this)
D.
The decision is made by a majority vote of residents within a radius of three times the antenna height (0% chose this)

B-001-023-009

Ignoring other requirements regarding the installation or modification of an antenna system, what is the tallest antenna structure you could erect without public consultation?

A.
21 metres (0% chose this)
B.
15 metres (0% chose this)
C.
10 metres (0% chose this)
D.
The tallest exempted by the land-use authority or Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)

B-001-023-010

Where a land-use authority or municipality has established a public consultation process for antenna systems, who determines how public consultation should take place?

A.
The municipality or local land-use authority (0% chose this)
B.
The provincial government (0% chose this)
C.
Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
D.
The person planning to erect an antenna structure (0% chose this)

B-001-024-001

What organization has published safety guidelines for the maximum limits of RF energy near the human body?

A.
Health Canada (0% chose this)
B.
National Research Council (0% chose this)
C.
Environment Canada (0% chose this)
D.
Canadian Standards Association (0% chose this)

B-001-024-002

What is the purpose of Safety Code 6?

A.
It sets antenna height limits for aircraft protection (0% chose this)
B.
It sets transmitter power limits for interference protection (0% chose this)
C.
It gives RF exposure limits for the human body (0% chose this)
D.
It lists all RF frequency allocations for interference protection (0% chose this)

B-001-024-003

According to Safety Code 6, what frequencies cause us the greatest risk from RF energy?

A.
3 MHz to 30 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
48 MHz to 300 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
Above 1500 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
300 MHz to 3000 MHz (0% chose this)

B-001-024-004

Why is the limit of exposure to RF the lowest in the frequency range of 48 MHz to 300 MHz, according to Safety Code 6?

A.
Most transmissions in this range are for a longer time (0% chose this)
B.
There are more transmitters operating in this range (0% chose this)
C.
There are fewer transmitters operating in this range (0% chose this)
D.
The human body absorbs RF energy the most in this range (0% chose this)

B-001-024-005

According to Safety Code 6, what is the maximum safe power output to the antenna of a hand-held VHF or UHF radio?

A.
7 watts (0% chose this)
B.
5 watts (0% chose this)
C.
Not specified (0% chose this)
D.
8 watts (0% chose this)

B-001-024-006

When specifying maximum levels of exposure to RF fields, which two basic situations does Safety Code 6 cover?

A.
Controlled and uncontrolled environments (0% chose this)
B.
Commercial and private transmitters (0% chose this)
C.
Fixed and portable transmitters (0% chose this)
D.
Transmitters below 30 MHz and above 30 MHz (0% chose this)

B-001-024-007

Apart from energy absorption and especially below 10 MHz, what is the second established adverse health effect described in Safety Code 6?

A.
Skin redness (0% chose this)
B.
Nerve stimulation (0% chose this)
C.
Nausea (0% chose this)
D.
Numbness (0% chose this)

B-001-024-008

Which statement is NOT correct?

A.
Hand-held transmitters are excluded from Safety Code 6 requirements (0% chose this)
B.
Safety Code 6 specifies lower exposure limits for the general public in uncontrolled areas than for controlled areas (0% chose this)
C.
Safety Code 6 uses different units for magnetic field strength and electric field strength (0% chose this)
D.
Antenna gain, distance, transmitter power and frequency all influence exposure to radio energy (0% chose this)

B-001-024-009

Safety Code 6 sets limits for RF exposure from radio transmitters. Which types of transmitters are exempt from regulation?

A.
No transmitters are exempt (0% chose this)
B.
Broadcast transmitters (0% chose this)
C.
Portable transmitters (0% chose this)
D.
Low power transmitters (less than 10 watts) (0% chose this)

B-001-024-010

Which of these statements about Safety Code 6 is NOT correct?

A.
Safety Code 6 sets limits for allowable rates at which RF energy is absorbed in the body (specific absorption rate) (0% chose this)
B.
Safety Code 6 sets limits for contact currents that could be drawn from ungrounded or poorly grounded objects (0% chose this)
C.
Safety Code 6 sets limits for induced currents, electrical field strength and magnetic field strength from electromagnetic radiation (0% chose this)
D.
Safety Code 6 sets limits in terms of power levels fed into antennas (0% chose this)

B-001-025-001

Your neighbour's stereo system malfunctions when you are transmitting. What provision in Electromagnetic Compatibility Advisory Bulletin EMCAB-2 deems the stereo system's lack of immunity is the cause?

A.
The field strength of your emissions, on your neighbour's premises, is below Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada's specified immunity criteria (0% chose this)
B.
The field strength of your emissions, on your neighbour's premises, is above Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada's specified immunity criteria (0% chose this)
C.
You are transmitting at or below your maximum permitted power (0% chose this)
D.
The malfunction stops when you stop transmitting (0% chose this)

B-001-025-002

Your neighbour's television receiver malfunctions when you are transmitting. What provision in Electromagnetic Compatibility Advisory Bulletin EMCAB-2 deems your transmission is the cause?

A.
The field strength of your emissions, on your neighbour's premises, is above Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada's specified immunity criteria (0% chose this)
B.
You are transmitting at or below your maximum permitted power (0% chose this)
C.
The malfunction continues when you stop transmitting (0% chose this)
D.
The field strength of your emissions, on your neighbour's premises, is below Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada's specified immunity criteria (0% chose this)

B-001-025-003

When determining the field strength criterion per Electromagnetic Compatibility Advisory Bulletin EMCAB-2, what type of equipment describes devices often used in home entertainment systems, but not strictly speaking radio apparatus?

A.
Low-immunity equipment (0% chose this)
B.
Associated equipment (0% chose this)
C.
Radio-sensitive equipment (0% chose this)
D.
Broadcast receivers (0% chose this)

B-001-025-004

Your neighbour complains that your transmissions interfere with their garage door opener. When determining the applicable field strength criterion in Electromagnetic Compatibility Advisory Bulletin EMCAB-2, what type of equipment is the garage door opener?

A.
Associated equipment (0% chose this)
B.
Radio-sensitive equipment (0% chose this)
C.
Broadcast equipment (0% chose this)
D.
Low-immunity equipment (0% chose this)

B-002-001-001

What is an appropriate way to make contact on a repeater?

A.
Say, "breaker, breaker" (0% chose this)
B.
Say the call sign of the station you want to contact three times (0% chose this)
C.
Say the call sign of the station you want to contact, then your call sign (0% chose this)
D.
Say the other operator's name, then your call sign three times (0% chose this)

B-002-001-002

What is the main purpose of a repeater?

A.
To link amateur radio stations with the telephone system (0% chose this)
B.
To make local information available 24 hours a day (0% chose this)
C.
To increase the range of portable and mobile stations (0% chose this)
D.
To retransmit weather information during severe storm warnings (0% chose this)

B-002-001-003

What is frequency coordination on VHF and UHF bands?

A.
A process which seeks to carefully recommend frequencies to minimize interference with neighbouring repeaters (0% chose this)
B.
A part of the planning prior to a contest (0% chose this)
C.
The selection of simplex frequencies used by individual operators (0% chose this)
D.
A band plan detailing modes and frequency segments within a band (0% chose this)

B-002-001-004

What is the purpose of a repeater time-out timer?

A.
It hands over control to each user in turns (0% chose this)
B.
It logs repeater transmit time to predict when a repeater will fail (0% chose this)
C.
It tells how long someone has been using a repeater (0% chose this)
D.
It interrupts lengthy transmissions (0% chose this)

B-002-001-005

What is a CTCSS tone?

A.
A signal used for radio control of model craft (0% chose this)
B.
A signal used for telemetry by amateur radio satellites (0% chose this)
C.
A tone used by repeaters to mark the end of a transmission (0% chose this)
D.
A sub-audible tone that activates a receiver audio output when present (0% chose this)

B-002-001-006

How do you call another station on a repeater if you know the station's call sign?

A.
Say "break, break," then say the station's call sign (0% chose this)
B.
Wait for the station to call "CQ," then answer it (0% chose this)
C.
Say the station's call sign, then identify your own station (0% chose this)
D.
Say "CQ" three times, then say the station's call sign (0% chose this)

B-002-001-007

Why should you pause before and between transmissions when using a repeater?

A.
To give the repeater time to respond (0% chose this)
B.
To check the SWR of the repeater (0% chose this)
C.
To reach for pencil and paper for third-party communications (0% chose this)
D.
To listen for anyone else wanting to use the repeater (0% chose this)

B-002-001-008

Why should you keep transmissions short when using a repeater?

A.
To reduce the bandwidth used by the repeater (0% chose this)
B.
To avoid exceeding the repeater's memory storage (0% chose this)
C.
To keep long-distance charges down (0% chose this)
D.
A long transmission may prevent someone with an emergency from using the repeater (0% chose this)

B-002-001-009

What is the proper way to join a conversation on a repeater?

A.
Say your call sign during a break between transmissions (0% chose this)
B.
Wait for the end of a transmission and start calling the desired party (0% chose this)
C.
Shout "break, break!" to show that you're eager to join the conversation (0% chose this)
D.
Increase power to override whoever is talking (0% chose this)

B-002-001-010

What is the accepted way to ask someone about their location when using a repeater?

A.
What is your 10-85? (0% chose this)
B.
What is your 10-20? (0% chose this)
C.
Where are you? (0% chose this)
D.
Locations are not normally broadcast over the radio (0% chose this)

B-002-001-011

FM repeater operation on the 2-metre band uses one frequency for transmission and one for reception. What is the standard difference between the transmit and receive frequencies (known as "offset")?

A.
600 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
1000 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
800 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
400 kHz (0% chose this)

B-002-002-001

To make your call sign better understood when using voice transmissions, what should you do?

A.
Use any words which start with the same letters as your call sign for each letter of your call (0% chose this)
B.
Use International Telecommunication Union phonetic alphabet code words to spell letters in your call sign (0% chose this)
C.
Talk louder and faster (0% chose this)
D.
Turn up your microphone gain (0% chose this)

B-002-002-002

What can you use as an aid for correct station identification when using voice?

A.
Unique words of your choice (0% chose this)
B.
A speech compressor (0% chose this)
C.
Q codes (0% chose this)
D.
The International Telecommunication Union phonetic alphabet (0% chose this)

B-002-002-003

In the International Telecommunication Union phonetic alphabet, what is the code word for the letter A?

A.
Alfa (0% chose this)
B.
Adam (0% chose this)
C.
Able (0% chose this)
D.
America (0% chose this)

B-002-002-004

In the International Telecommunication Union phonetic alphabet, what is the code word for the letter B?

A.
Bravo (0% chose this)
B.
Baker (0% chose this)
C.
Borneo (0% chose this)
D.
Brazil (0% chose this)

B-002-002-005

In the International Telecommunication Union phonetic alphabet, what is the code word for the letter D?

A.
Denmark (0% chose this)
B.
Dog (0% chose this)
C.
Delta (0% chose this)
D.
David (0% chose this)

B-002-002-006

In the International Telecommunication Union phonetic alphabet, what is the code word for the letter E?

A.
England (0% chose this)
B.
Easy (0% chose this)
C.
Edward (0% chose this)
D.
Echo (0% chose this)

B-002-002-007

In the International Telecommunication Union phonetic alphabet, what is the code word for the letter G?

A.
Gibraltar (0% chose this)
B.
George (0% chose this)
C.
Germany (0% chose this)
D.
Golf (0% chose this)

B-002-002-008

In the International Telecommunication Union phonetic alphabet, what is the code word for the letter I?

A.
Iran (0% chose this)
B.
Italy (0% chose this)
C.
India (0% chose this)
D.
Item (0% chose this)

B-002-002-009

In the International Telecommunication Union phonetic alphabet, what is the code word for the letter L?

A.
London (0% chose this)
B.
Luxembourg (0% chose this)
C.
Love (0% chose this)
D.
Lima (0% chose this)

B-002-002-010

In the International Telecommunication Union phonetic alphabet, what is the code word for the letter P?

A.
Peter (0% chose this)
B.
Portugal (0% chose this)
C.
Paris (0% chose this)
D.
Papa (0% chose this)

B-002-002-011

In the International Telecommunication Union phonetic alphabet, what is the code word for the letter R?

A.
Romania (0% chose this)
B.
Radio (0% chose this)
C.
Roger (0% chose this)
D.
Romeo (0% chose this)

B-002-003-001

What is the correct way to call "CQ" when using voice?

A.
Say "CQ" once, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign spoken three times (0% chose this)
B.
Say "CQ" at least five times, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign spoken once (0% chose this)
C.
Say "CQ" at least ten times, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign spoken once (0% chose this)
D.
Say "CQ" three times, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign spoken three times (0% chose this)

B-002-003-002

How should you answer a voice CQ call?

A.
Say your call sign twice, followed by "calling," then the other station's call sign (0% chose this)
B.
Say the other station's call sign at least five times, followed by "this is," then your call sign twice (0% chose this)
C.
Say the other station's call sign at least three times, followed by "this is," and your call sign at least five times (0% chose this)
D.
Say the other station's call sign once, followed by "this is," then your call sign (0% chose this)

B-002-003-003

What is simplex operation?

A.
Transmitting one-way communications (0% chose this)
B.
Transmitting on one frequency and receiving on another (0% chose this)
C.
Transmitting and receiving on the same frequency (0% chose this)
D.
Transmitting and receiving over a wide area (0% chose this)

B-002-003-004

When should you consider using simplex operation instead of a repeater?

A.
When an emergency telephone call is needed (0% chose this)
B.
When you are travelling and need some local information (0% chose this)
C.
When signals are reliable between communicating parties without using a repeater (0% chose this)
D.
When the most reliable communications are needed (0% chose this)

B-002-003-005

Why should local communications use VHF and UHF frequencies instead of HF frequencies?

A.
Because signals are stronger on VHF and UHF frequencies (0% chose this)
B.
Because greater output power is permitted on VHF and UHF (0% chose this)
C.
Because HF transmissions are not propagated locally (0% chose this)
D.
To minimize clutter on HF bands more appropriate for long-distance communication (0% chose this)

B-002-003-006

Why should you be careful in choosing a simplex frequency when operating VHF or UHF?

A.
Some frequencies are designated for narrow band FM and others for wideband FM (0% chose this)
B.
To avoid inadvertently choosing a frequency that is the input to a local repeater (0% chose this)
C.
Implanted medical devices share the same spectrum (0% chose this)
D.
Some frequencies cannot accommodate simplex operation (0% chose this)

B-002-003-007

If you are talking to a station using a repeater, how would you find out if you could communicate using simplex instead?

A.
By asking the other station to move 10 kHz away to test the path (0% chose this)
B.
By asking a third station to confirm it receives you both (0% chose this)
C.
By checking if you can clearly receive the station on the repeater's input frequency (0% chose this)
D.
By checking if you can clearly receive a more distant repeater (0% chose this)

B-002-003-008

If you are operating simplex on a repeater frequency, why would it be good practice to change to another frequency?

A.
Because changing the repeater's frequency requires the authorization of Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
B.
Because you may interfere with users of the repeater (0% chose this)
C.
Because the repeater's output power may overload your receiver (0% chose this)
D.
Because there are more repeater operators than simplex operators (0% chose this)

B-002-003-009

Which sideband is commonly used for 20-metre voice operation?

A.
Independent (0% chose this)
B.
Lower (0% chose this)
C.
Double (0% chose this)
D.
Upper (0% chose this)

B-002-003-010

Which sideband is commonly used on 3755 kHz for voice operation?

A.
Upper (0% chose this)
B.
Lower (0% chose this)
C.
Double (0% chose this)
D.
Independent (0% chose this)

B-002-003-011

When calling a specific station on voice, what is the preferred format for your transmission?

A.
The call sign of the desired station, followed by "this is" and your call sign (0% chose this)
B.
"CQ, CQ, CQ" followed by the call sign of the desired station (0% chose this)
C.
Your call sign repeated twice, the word "for" and the call sign of the desired station (0% chose this)
D.
Your call sign, followed by "calling" and the call sign of the desired station (0% chose this)

B-002-004-001

What should you do before you transmit on any frequency?

A.
Make sure the SWR on your transmission line is high enough (0% chose this)
B.
Check your antenna for resonance at the selected frequency (0% chose this)
C.
Increase power to ensure someone will hear you (0% chose this)
D.
Listen to make sure others are not using the frequency (0% chose this)

B-002-004-002

If you contact another station and your signal is extremely strong and perfectly readable, what adjustment should you make to your transmitter?

A.
None, continue with your contact (0% chose this)
B.
Turn down your power output to the minimum necessary (0% chose this)
C.
Bypass your antenna tuner (0% chose this)
D.
Turn on your speech processor (0% chose this)

B-002-004-003

You need to transmit to adjust your antenna tuner prior to joining an HF single-sideband net that is in progress. On what frequency should you make the adjustment?

A.
3 kHz to 5 kHz away from the net frequency (0% chose this)
B.
On the net frequency (0% chose this)
C.
On the band's centre frequency (0% chose this)
D.
1 kHz away from the net frequency (0% chose this)

B-002-004-004

How can on-the-air interference be minimized during lengthy transmitter testing?

A.
Use a non-resonant antenna (0% chose this)
B.
Use a resonant antenna (0% chose this)
C.
Use a dummy load (0% chose this)
D.
Choose an unoccupied frequency (0% chose this)

B-002-004-005

Why would you use a dummy load?

A.
To test or adjust your transceiver without causing interference (0% chose this)
B.
It is faster to tune (0% chose this)
C.
To give comparative signal reports (0% chose this)
D.
To reduce output power (0% chose this)

B-002-004-006

If you are the net control station of a daily HF net, what should you do if the frequency on which you normally meet is in use just before the net begins?

A.
Reduce your output power and start the net as usual (0% chose this)
B.
Cancel the net for that day (0% chose this)
C.
Increase your power output so that net participants will be able to hear you over the existing activity (0% chose this)
D.
Ask occupants if they would change frequency, otherwise move to a clear frequency (0% chose this)

B-002-004-007

If a net is about to begin on a frequency that you and another station are using, what should you do?

A.
Increase your power output to ensure that all net participants can hear you (0% chose this)
B.
Transmit as long as possible on the frequency so that no other stations may use it (0% chose this)
C.
Turn off your radio (0% chose this)
D.
As a courtesy, move to a different frequency (0% chose this)

B-002-004-008

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other stations on the same frequency, what should you do?

A.
Tell the interfering stations to change frequency, since you were there first (0% chose this)
B.
Move to another frequency (0% chose this)
C.
Increase your output power (0% chose this)
D.
Report the interference to your Section Manager at Radio Amateurs of Canada (RAC) (0% chose this)

B-002-004-009

When selecting a single-sideband voice transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow to minimize interference?

A.
150 Hz to 500 Hz (0% chose this)
B.
Approximately 6 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
Approximately 10 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
Approximately 3 kHz (0% chose this)

B-002-004-010

What is a band plan?

A.
A voluntary division of an amateur radio band to avoid interference between incompatible modes (0% chose this)
B.
A schedule of operating restrictions within a band prescribed by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
C.
A schedule of additional band allocations for recommendation to the International Telecommunication Union (0% chose this)
D.
A plan devised by a club for the effective use of a frequency band during a contest (0% chose this)

B-002-004-011

Before transmitting, the first thing you should do is:

A.
ask if the frequency is occupied (0% chose this)
B.
make an announcement on the frequency indicating that you intend to make a call (0% chose this)
C.
decrease your receiver's volume (0% chose this)
D.
listen carefully so as not to interrupt communications already in progress (0% chose this)

B-002-005-001

What is the correct way to call "CQ" when using Morse code?

A.
Send the letters "CQ" ten times, followed by the word "DE," followed by your call sign once (0% chose this)
B.
Send the letters "CQ" three times, followed by the word "DE," followed by your call sign once (0% chose this)
C.
Send the letters "CQ" until someone answers (0% chose this)
D.
Send the letters "CQ" three times, followed by the word "DE," followed by your call sign three times (0% chose this)

B-002-005-002

How should you answer a routine Morse code "CQ" call?

A.
Send the other station's call sign twice, followed by the word "DE," followed by your call sign twice (0% chose this)
B.
Send your call sign four times (0% chose this)
C.
Send the other station's call sign once, followed by the word "DE," followed by your call sign four times (0% chose this)
D.
Send your call sign followed by your name, station location and a signal report (0% chose this)

B-002-005-003

At what speed should a Morse code "CQ" call be transmitted?

A.
At the customary speed for the band (0% chose this)
B.
At the highest speed your keyer will operate (0% chose this)
C.
At the highest speed at which you can control the keyer (0% chose this)
D.
At any speed which you can reliably receive (0% chose this)

B-002-005-004

What is the meaning of "CQ"?

A.
Calling any station (0% chose this)
B.
Call on the quarter-hour (0% chose this)
C.
An antenna is being tested (0% chose this)
D.
The frequency is in use (0% chose this)

B-002-005-005

What is the meaning of the word "DE" in Morse code?

A.
Directional Emissions (0% chose this)
B.
From (0% chose this)
C.
Calling any station (0% chose this)
D.
Received all correctly (0% chose this)

B-002-005-006

What is the meaning of the Morse code signal "K"?

A.
Any station please reply (0% chose this)
B.
Called station only reply (0% chose this)
C.
All received correctly (0% chose this)
D.
End of message (0% chose this)

B-002-005-007

What is meant by the term "DX"?

A.
Calling any station (0% chose this)
B.
Distant station (0% chose this)
C.
Best regards (0% chose this)
D.
Go ahead (0% chose this)

B-002-005-008

What is the meaning of the term "73"?

A.
Love and kisses (0% chose this)
B.
Long distance (0% chose this)
C.
Best regards (0% chose this)
D.
Go ahead (0% chose this)

B-002-005-009

Which of the following describes full break-in CW (QSK)?

A.
An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission (0% chose this)
B.
Incoming signals are received between transmitted dots and dashes (0% chose this)
C.
Stations wishing to break in must send the Morse code signal "BK" (0% chose this)
D.
Automatic keyers are used instead of hand keys (0% chose this)

B-002-005-010

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow to minimize interference?

A.
3 kHz to 6 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
5 Hz to 50 Hz (0% chose this)
C.
150 Hz to 500 Hz (0% chose this)
D.
1 kHz to 3 kHz (0% chose this)

B-002-005-011

What is the meaning of the Morse code signal "R"?

A.
Called station only reply (0% chose this)
B.
All received (0% chose this)
C.
Repeat all (0% chose this)
D.
End of message (0% chose this)

B-002-006-001

What do "RST" signal reports describe?

A.
Ionospheric conditions (0% chose this)
B.
Transmitter power (0% chose this)
C.
Signal reception (0% chose this)
D.
Sunspot activity (0% chose this)

B-002-006-002

What does "RST" stand for in a signal report?

A.
Recovery, signal speed, tone (0% chose this)
B.
Readability, signal speed, tempo (0% chose this)
C.
Readability, signal strength, tone (0% chose this)
D.
Recovery, signal strength, tempo (0% chose this)

B-002-006-003

What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is 5 7"?

A.
Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty (0% chose this)
B.
Your signal is perfectly readable with near pure tone (0% chose this)
C.
Your signal is perfectly readable, but weak (0% chose this)
D.
Your signal is perfectly readable and moderately strong (0% chose this)

B-002-006-004

What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is 3 3"?

A.
The station is located at latitude 33 degrees (0% chose this)
B.
Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty and weak in strength (0% chose this)
C.
The contact is serial number 33 (0% chose this)
D.
Your signal is unreadable, very weak in strength (0% chose this)

B-002-006-005

What is the meaning of: "You are 5 9 plus 20 dB"?

A.
You are perfectly readable with a signal strength 20 decibels greater than S9 (0% chose this)
B.
Your signal strength has increased by a factor of 100 (0% chose this)
C.
The bandwidth of your signal is 20 decibels above linearity (0% chose this)
D.
Repeat your transmission on a frequency 20 kHz higher (0% chose this)

B-002-006-006

A distant station asks for a signal report on a local repeater you monitor. What do you report?

A.
The readability and strength of the repeater signal (0% chose this)
B.
The quality of the station's signal and audio as heard through the repeater (0% chose this)
C.
Your S-meter reading on the repeater input frequency (0% chose this)
D.
Your S-meter reading on the repeater output frequency (0% chose this)

B-002-006-007

Your receiver's S-meter is calibrated to a standard of 6 dB per S-unit per a recommendation by the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU). The S-meter shows S9 when receiving a station transmitting with 100 watts. Neglecting propagation changes, what transmitter power would cause your receiver's S-meter to read S8?

A.
33 watts (0% chose this)
B.
50 watts (0% chose this)
C.
25 watts (0% chose this)
D.
75 watts (0% chose this)

B-002-006-008

Assume your receiver's S-meter is calibrated to a standard of 6 dB per S-unit per a recommendation by the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU). The S-meter on your receiver shows S8 when listening to a nearby transmitter. Approximately how much must the transmitter power be raised to increase the reading to S9?

A.
5 times (0% chose this)
B.
4 times (0% chose this)
C.
2 times (0% chose this)
D.
3 times (0% chose this)

B-002-006-009

What does "RST 579" mean in a Morse code contact?

A.
Your signal is perfectly readable, moderately strong, and with perfect tone (0% chose this)
B.
Your signal is barely readable, moderately strong, and with a faint ripple (0% chose this)
C.
Your signal is fairly readable, fair strength, and with perfect tone (0% chose this)
D.
Your signal is perfectly readable, weak strength, and with perfect tone (0% chose this)

B-002-006-010

What does "RST 459" mean in a Morse code contact?

A.
Your signal is moderately readable, very weak, and with hum on the tone (0% chose this)
B.
Your signal is quite readable, fair strength, and with perfect tone (0% chose this)
C.
Your signal is barely readable, very weak, and with perfect tone (0% chose this)
D.
Your signal is very readable, very strong, and with perfect tone (0% chose this)

B-002-006-011

In voice contacts, what is the meaning of "Your signal report is 1 1"?

A.
Your signal is very readable and very strong (0% chose this)
B.
Your signal is 11 dB over S9 (0% chose this)
C.
Your signal is moderately readable with moderate strength (0% chose this)
D.
Your signal is unreadable, and barely perceptible (0% chose this)

B-002-007-001

What does the code "QRS" mean in amateur radio?

A.
Send more slowly (0% chose this)
B.
Interference from static (0% chose this)
C.
Send "RST" report (0% chose this)
D.
Radio station location is ... (0% chose this)

B-002-007-002

What does the code "QTH" mean in amateur radio?

A.
Stop sending (0% chose this)
B.
My name is ... (0% chose this)
C.
My location is ... (0% chose this)
D.
Time here is ... (0% chose this)

B-002-007-003

What is the proper Q code to use to see if a frequency is in use before transmitting on CW?

A.
QRU? (0% chose this)
B.
QRV? (0% chose this)
C.
QRL? (0% chose this)
D.
QRZ? (0% chose this)

B-002-007-004

What does the code "QSY" mean in amateur radio?

A.
Send faster (0% chose this)
B.
Change frequency (0% chose this)
C.
Use more power (0% chose this)
D.
Send more slowly (0% chose this)

B-002-007-005

What does the code "QSB" mean in amateur radio?

A.
Your signal is fading (0% chose this)
B.
I am confirming contact (0% chose this)
C.
I am busy (0% chose this)
D.
I have no message (0% chose this)

B-002-007-006

What is the correct Q code to ask who is calling you?

A.
QRZ? (0% chose this)
B.
QRT? (0% chose this)
C.
QSL? (0% chose this)
D.
QRL? (0% chose this)

B-002-007-007

What does the code "QRM" mean in amateur radio?

A.
I am busy (0% chose this)
B.
I am being interfered with (0% chose this)
C.
I am troubled by static (0% chose this)
D.
Your signals are fading (0% chose this)

B-002-007-008

What does the code "QRN" mean in amateur radio?

A.
I am busy (0% chose this)
B.
I am being interfered with (0% chose this)
C.
I am troubled by static (0% chose this)
D.
I will call you (0% chose this)

B-002-007-009

What is the Q code indicating that you want the other station to send slower?

A.
QRS (0% chose this)
B.
QRM (0% chose this)
C.
QRL (0% chose this)
D.
QRN (0% chose this)

B-002-007-010

What is the Q code that means "Who is calling me?" in amateur radio?

A.
QRZ? (0% chose this)
B.
QRM? (0% chose this)
C.
QRK? (0% chose this)
D.
QRP? (0% chose this)

B-002-007-011

What is the Q code that means "I will call you again" in amateur radio?

A.
QRT (0% chose this)
B.
QRS (0% chose this)
C.
QRX (0% chose this)
D.
QRZ (0% chose this)

B-002-008-001

When may you use your amateur radio station to transmit an "SOS" or "MAYDAY"?

A.
In a life-threatening distress situation (0% chose this)
B.
Only in case of a severe weather watch (0% chose this)
C.
Only at specific times (at 15 and 30 minutes after the hour) (0% chose this)
D.
Never (0% chose this)

B-002-008-002

You need to summon help while stranded in a remote location, but without immediate risk to life. What priority is your message?

A.
Welfare (0% chose this)
B.
Urgent (0% chose this)
C.
Distress (0% chose this)
D.
Safety (0% chose this)

B-002-008-003

What voice signal, transmitted three times, signifies distress?

A.
EMERGENCY (0% chose this)
B.
SOS (0% chose this)
C.
MAYDAY (0% chose this)
D.
HELP (0% chose this)

B-002-008-004

What is the correct distress signal in Morse code?

A.
SOS (0% chose this)
B.
MAYDAY (0% chose this)
C.
CQD (0% chose this)
D.
QRRR (0% chose this)

B-002-008-005

What is the correct way to interrupt a repeater conversation to seek assistance in a distress situation?

A.
Say "HELP" as many times as it takes to get someone to answer (0% chose this)
B.
Break-in between transmissions to state your call sign and situation (0% chose this)
C.
Say "SOS," then your call sign (0% chose this)
D.
Say "EMERGENCY" three times (0% chose this)

B-002-008-006

What is the advantage of preparing to operate your station without commercial AC power?

A.
So you will comply with the rules (0% chose this)
B.
So you may operate in contests where AC power is not allowed (0% chose this)
C.
So you may use your station while mobile (0% chose this)
D.
So you may provide communications during a power outage (0% chose this)

B-002-008-007

In an emergency, what additional equipment is crucial to maintaining communications with a hand-held radio?

A.
An extra antenna (0% chose this)
B.
A portable amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
An adequate supply of charged batteries (0% chose this)
D.
A microphone headset for hands-free operation (0% chose this)

B-002-008-008

Which type of antenna would be a good choice as part of a portable HF station that could be set up in case of an emergency?

A.
A dipole or a vertical (0% chose this)
B.
A three-element quad (0% chose this)
C.
A three-element Yagi (0% chose this)
D.
A parabolic dish (0% chose this)

B-002-008-009

If you are communicating with another station and hear a station in distress break in, what should you do?

A.
Acknowledge the station in distress and determine its location and what assistance may be needed (0% chose this)
B.
Continue your communication because you were on frequency first (0% chose this)
C.
Immediately cease all transmissions because stations in distress have emergency rights to the frequency (0% chose this)
D.
Change to a different frequency so the station in distress may have a clear channel to call for assistance (0% chose this)

B-002-008-010

In order of priority, a distress message comes before:

A.
a government priority message (0% chose this)
B.
an emergency message (0% chose this)
C.
no other messages (0% chose this)
D.
a safety message (0% chose this)

B-002-008-011

If you hear distress traffic and are unable to render direct assistance you should:

A.
tell all other stations to cease transmitting (0% chose this)
B.
enter the details in the logbook and take no further action (0% chose this)
C.
contact authorities and maintain watch in case your assistance is needed (0% chose this)
D.
take no action (0% chose this)

B-002-009-001

What is a "QSL card"?

A.
A notice of an apparent infraction from Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
B.
A postcard reminding you when your certificate will expire (0% chose this)
C.
A letter or postcard from an amateur radio operator (0% chose this)
D.
A written proof of communication between two amateur radio operators (0% chose this)

B-002-009-002

What is an azimuthal map?

A.
A map projection centred on a given location (0% chose this)
B.
A map projection centred on the magnetic North Pole (0% chose this)
C.
A map projection centred on the geographic North Pole (0% chose this)
D.
A map projection displaying Maidenhead grid squares (0% chose this)

B-002-009-003

While making a contact in a VHF contest, the other operator asks for your grid square. What information is requested?

A.
The number of contacts you have made (0% chose this)
B.
Your location expressed as a 4 or 6-character code (0% chose this)
C.
Your antenna azimuth stated in compass degrees (0% chose this)
D.
The elevation of your station in thirty-metre increments (0% chose this)

B-002-009-004

A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction to another station is generally oriented how many degrees from its short-path heading?

A.
180 degrees (0% chose this)
B.
90 degrees (0% chose this)
C.
45 degrees (0% chose this)
D.
270 degrees (0% chose this)

B-002-009-005

What method is used by amateur radio operators to provide proof of communication with another station?

A.
A QSL card or entries in web-based logging systems (0% chose this)
B.
A brief email or text message (0% chose this)
C.
A radiogram sent over amateur radio traffic nets (0% chose this)
D.
A letter detailing contact date, time, frequency, mode and power (0% chose this)

B-002-009-006

Local stations are in contact with New Zealand, yet you cannot hear the New Zealand amateur radio operators with your antenna pointed in that direction. What other antenna direction could you try to hear them?

A.
Point your antenna 90 degrees west of the current bearing (0% chose this)
B.
Point your antenna further south (0% chose this)
C.
Point your antenna 90 degrees east of the current bearing (0% chose this)
D.
Point your antenna 180 degrees from the current bearing (0% chose this)

B-002-009-007

Which statement about recording all contacts and unanswered CQ calls in a paper or computer-based station logbook is NOT correct?

A.
A logbook is important for recording contacts for operating awards (0% chose this)
B.
A logbook is a regulatory requirement (0% chose this)
C.
A logbook is important for handling neighbour interference complaints (0% chose this)
D.
A well-kept logbook preserves your fondest amateur radio memories for years (0% chose this)

B-002-009-008

What is the most useful function of an azimuthal world map centred on your location?

A.
To show the azimuth to meteor showers throughout the year (0% chose this)
B.
To associate distances with optimal ionospheric region (0% chose this)
C.
To show the bearing to any location (0% chose this)
D.
To allow computing the radiation angle to any location (0% chose this)

B-002-009-009

Activity schedules, time entries in logbooks and contact confirmations usually refer to UTC (Coordinated Universal Time). What is the location of the meridian from which this time is measured?

A.
Geneva, Switzerland (0% chose this)
B.
Ottawa, Canada (0% chose this)
C.
Greenwich, United Kingdom (0% chose this)
D.
Boulder, United States of America (0% chose this)

B-002-009-010

Your time zone is UTC minus 6 hours. You want to join a net scheduled for 19:00 UTC. What is the local scheduled time?

A.
1 PM (0% chose this)
B.
7 AM (tomorrow) (0% chose this)
C.
7 PM (0% chose this)
D.
1 AM (tomorrow) (0% chose this)

B-002-009-011

What is the usefulness of stations CHU, WWV and WWVH to amateur radio operators?

A.
Provide amateur radio bulletins (0% chose this)
B.
Provide accurate and precise frequency and time signals (0% chose this)
C.
Provide forecasts of band conditions (0% chose this)
D.
Provide received signal reports of your transmissions (0% chose this)

B-003-001-001

To be most effective, where should a low-pass filter be connected in an HF station without an external power amplifier?

A.
As close as possible to the antenna switch output (0% chose this)
B.
As close as possible to the transceiver output (0% chose this)
C.
Between the antenna tuner and the antenna switch (0% chose this)
D.
Between the SWR meter and the antenna tuner (0% chose this)

B-003-001-002

In an HF station that includes an external RF power amplifier, where should a low-pass filter be located?

A.
As close as possible to the transceiver output (0% chose this)
B.
As close as possible to the external amplifier output (0% chose this)
C.
Between the SWR meter and the antenna tuner (0% chose this)
D.
Between the antenna tuner and the antenna switch (0% chose this)

B-003-001-003

Why do modern HF transmitters have a built-in low-pass filter in their RF output circuits?

A.
To reduce adjacent channel interference (0% chose this)
B.
To reduce RF energy below a cut-off point (0% chose this)
C.
To reduce harmonic emissions (0% chose this)
D.
To reduce fundamental emission (0% chose this)

B-003-001-004

Which component in an HF station is used to determine if the antenna system impedance is matched to the transmitter?

A.
SWR meter (0% chose this)
B.
Frequency meter (0% chose this)
C.
S-meter (0% chose this)
D.
Multimeter (0% chose this)

B-003-001-005

What is the purpose of the antenna switch in an HF station?

A.
To adjust the impedance of the antenna system (0% chose this)
B.
To adjust the antenna operating frequency (0% chose this)
C.
To select the orientation of the antenna (0% chose this)
D.
To select the desired antenna or dummy load (0% chose this)

B-003-001-006

In an HF station, what device might allow the use of an antenna on a band it was not designed for?

A.
An SWR meter (0% chose this)
B.
A low-pass filter (0% chose this)
C.
A high-pass filter (0% chose this)
D.
An antenna tuner (0% chose this)

B-003-001-007

In an HF station, which component is designed to dissipate RF energy and prevent radiation?

A.
Dummy load (0% chose this)
B.
Lightning surge protector (0% chose this)
C.
Low-pass filter (0% chose this)
D.
Heat sink (0% chose this)

B-003-001-008

In an HF station, right after which component is the SWR meter inserted?

A.
The antenna tuner (0% chose this)
B.
The low-pass filter (0% chose this)
C.
The last stage of RF amplification (0% chose this)
D.
The antenna switch (0% chose this)

B-003-001-009

When using an HF transmitter with a solid-state final amplifier, which station component may need to be adjusted when changing frequency?

A.
SWR meter (0% chose this)
B.
Low-pass filter (0% chose this)
C.
Dummy load (0% chose this)
D.
Antenna tuner (0% chose this)

B-003-002-001

What does the microphone produce in an FM transmitter?

A.
A radio frequency signal driving the power amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
A radio frequency signal driving the speech amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
An electrical signal driving the oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
An electrical signal driving the speech amplifier (0% chose this)

B-003-002-002

The microphone of an FM transmitter:

A.
produces an electrical signal from air pressure changes (0% chose this)
B.
has a different tone than other microphones (0% chose this)
C.
is quieter than AM or SSB microphones (0% chose this)
D.
has a wider frequency range than other microphones (0% chose this)

B-003-002-003

An FM transmitter's modulator:

A.
alters the radio's output signal amplitude (0% chose this)
B.
as no effect on the frequency of the oscillator (0% chose this)
C.
affects the frequency of the oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
produces amplitude changes in the oscillator (0% chose this)

B-003-002-004

How is the oscillator in the FM transmitter different from oscillators in AM, CW, and SSB transmitters?

A.
The modulator changes its output amplitude (0% chose this)
B.
The modulator alters its frequency (0% chose this)
C.
It has higher fidelity (0% chose this)
D.
It runs at much higher frequencies (0% chose this)

B-003-002-005

In an FM transmitter, the frequency multiplier:

A.
allows the oscillator to be run at very high frequencies (0% chose this)
B.
is the major load fed by the power supply (0% chose this)
C.
produces the FM output carrier frequency (0% chose this)
D.
produces a low distortion audio response (0% chose this)

B-003-002-006

In an FM transmitter, which stage produces a useful harmonic?

A.
Power amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
Speech amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
Frequency multiplier (0% chose this)
D.
Modulator (0% chose this)

B-003-002-007

In an FM transmitter, which stage draws the most electric power?

A.
Speech amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
Power amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
Oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
Frequency multiplier (0% chose this)

B-003-003-001

In a superheterodyne receiver, which stage is called the front-end?

A.
Limiter (0% chose this)
B.
AF amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
Local oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
RF amplifier (0% chose this)

B-003-003-002

In a VHF superheterodyne receiver, which stage must be designed to produce very little noise?

A.
Limiter (0% chose this)
B.
IF amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
RF amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
Product detector (0% chose this)

B-003-003-003

In a superheterodyne receiver, which stage allows detection to function at a single frequency regardless of the received frequency?

A.
Discriminator (0% chose this)
B.
Limiter (0% chose this)
C.
IF filter (0% chose this)
D.
Mixer (0% chose this)

B-003-003-004

In a superheterodyne receiver, which stage sets the received frequency?

A.
Beat frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
B.
RF amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
Local oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
IF filter (0% chose this)

B-003-003-005

In a superheterodyne receiver, which stage rejects signals on adjacent channels?

A.
Limiter (0% chose this)
B.
Product detector (0% chose this)
C.
Mixer (0% chose this)
D.
IF filter (0% chose this)

B-003-003-006

In a superheterodyne receiver, which stage provides the final signal power to drive the detector?

A.
Frequency multiplier (0% chose this)
B.
IF amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
RF amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
Speech amplifier (0% chose this)

B-003-003-007

In an FM receiver, what is the purpose of the limiter?

A.
Suppress local oscillator harmonics (0% chose this)
B.
Prevent overdriving the IF amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
Remove amplitude variations from the received signal (0% chose this)
D.
Maintain constant input level to the mixer (0% chose this)

B-003-003-008

In an FM receiver, what is the purpose of the discriminator?

A.
Provide most of the receiver's selectivity (0% chose this)
B.
Select narrowband or wideband FM reception (0% chose this)
C.
Recover the original modulation from the carrier (0% chose this)
D.
Remove amplitude modulation from the received signal (0% chose this)

B-003-003-009

In a receiver, which stage is controlled by the volume control?

A.
Discriminator (0% chose this)
B.
IF amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
Limiter (0% chose this)
D.
AF amplifier (0% chose this)

B-003-003-010

In an FM receiver, which stage includes a squelch circuit?

A.
AF amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
Product detector (0% chose this)
C.
Limiter (0% chose this)
D.
IF amplifier (0% chose this)

B-003-004-001

In a basic CW transmitter, the output from the oscillator is:

A.
at the transmitted signal's power level (0% chose this)
B.
at a submultiple of the operating frequency (0% chose this)
C.
less stable than the transmitted signal (0% chose this)
D.
at the transmitted signal's frequency (0% chose this)

B-003-004-002

In a basic CW transmitter, what type of electricity directly powers each stage?

A.
Direct current (0% chose this)
B.
Radio frequency current (0% chose this)
C.
Audio frequency current (0% chose this)
D.
Alternating current (0% chose this)

B-003-004-003

In a basic CW transmitter, why is the oscillator followed by a driver/buffer stage?

A.
To filter out noise from the oscillator (0% chose this)
B.
To shape the oscillator waveform to prevent key clicks (0% chose this)
C.
To filter out spurious emissions from the oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
To prevent load changes from shifting the oscillator's frequency (0% chose this)

B-003-004-004

In a basic three-stage CW transmitter, what does the key do?

A.
It switches the oscillator on and off (0% chose this)
B.
It reduces key clicks (0% chose this)
C.
It reduces key chirps (0% chose this)
D.
It controls the amplitude of the carrier (0% chose this)

B-003-004-005

In a basic CW transmitter, what does the power amplifier stage do?

A.
It increases the transmitter's output power (0% chose this)
B.
It reduces distortion in the transmitted signal (0% chose this)
C.
It multiplies the oscillator frequency to the operating frequency (0% chose this)
D.
It removes CW chirps from the transmitted signal (0% chose this)

B-003-004-006

In a basic CW transmitter, what does the key do?

A.
It switches the carrier on and off (0% chose this)
B.
It switches the carrier between two frequencies (0% chose this)
C.
It switches the transmitted tone on and off (0% chose this)
D.
It makes and breaks the antenna connection (0% chose this)

B-003-005-001

In an SSB/CW receiver, what is the purpose of the antenna?

A.
Separate signals from atmospheric noise (0% chose this)
B.
Convert electromagnetic waves into electrical currents (0% chose this)
C.
Polarize signals received via sky-wave propagation (0% chose this)
D.
Protect the receiver from overload (0% chose this)

B-003-005-002

In an SSB/CW receiver, what is the purpose of the radio frequency (RF) amplifier?

A.
Increase the sensitivity of the receiver (0% chose this)
B.
Provide sufficient gain to activate the limiter circuit (0% chose this)
C.
Provide sufficient drive for the automatic gain control circuit (AGC) (0% chose this)
D.
Increase the local oscillator signal to drive the mixer (0% chose this)

B-003-005-003

In an SSB/CW receiver, what is the purpose of the mixer?

A.
Provide USB and LSB signals for sideband selection (0% chose this)
B.
Convert the received signal into the intermediate frequency (0% chose this)
C.
Remove the carrier from the received signal (0% chose this)
D.
Convert the beat frequency oscillator signal to audio (0% chose this)

B-003-005-004

In an SSB/CW receiver, what is the purpose of the signal generated by the local oscillator?

A.
It is fed to the receiver input to provide band edge markers (0% chose this)
B.
It is mixed with the incoming signal to produce the intermediate frequency (0% chose this)
C.
It is mixed with the intermediate frequency signal to produce a CW sidetone (0% chose this)
D.
It is mixed with the beat frequency oscillator signal to produce audio (0% chose this)

B-003-005-005

In an SSB/CW receiver, what is the purpose of the intermediate frequency (IF) filter?

A.
For SSB reception, select the desired sideband (0% chose this)
B.
Provide most of the selectivity of the receiver (0% chose this)
C.
Reject RF from the product detector, passing only audio (0% chose this)
D.
Suppress spurious signals from the IF amplifier (0% chose this)

B-003-005-006

In an SSB/CW receiver, what is the purpose of the intermediate frequency (IF) amplifier?

A.
Provide most of the receiver gain (0% chose this)
B.
Increase the level of the recovered modulation (0% chose this)
C.
Provide sufficient gain to activate the limiter circuit (0% chose this)
D.
Boost the signal as required for the mixer (0% chose this)

B-003-005-007

In an SSB/CW receiver, what is the purpose of the product detector?

A.
Detect frequency drift to control the local oscillator (0% chose this)
B.
For SSB reception, reject the unwanted sideband (0% chose this)
C.
Recover the transmitted modulation (0% chose this)
D.
Convert audio frequency electrical signals into sound (0% chose this)

B-003-005-008

In an SSB/CW receiver, what is the purpose of the signal produced by the beat frequency oscillator (BFO)?

A.
It is fed to the receiver input to provide band edge markers (0% chose this)
B.
It drives the automatic gain control circuit to maintain a constant audio level (0% chose this)
C.
It is mixed with the IF to recover the transmitted modulation (0% chose this)
D.
It is mixed with the incoming signal to produce the intermediate frequency (0% chose this)

B-003-005-009

In an SSB/CW receiver, what is the purpose of the audio frequency (AF) amplifier?

A.
Convert audio frequency electrical signals into sound (0% chose this)
B.
Increase the level of the recovered modulation (0% chose this)
C.
Increase the BFO signal for driving the product detector (0% chose this)
D.
Provide audible warning of receiver overload (0% chose this)

B-003-005-010

In an SSB/CW receiver, which stage could include an audio band-pass filter?

A.
AF amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
IF amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
IF filter (0% chose this)
D.
Limiter (0% chose this)

B-003-006-001

In a single-sideband transmitter, what does the fixed RF oscillator do?

A.
It produces an RF carrier (0% chose this)
B.
It drives the mixer (0% chose this)
C.
It directly drives the sideband filter (0% chose this)
D.
It balances the variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)

B-003-006-002

In a single-sideband transmitter, why is the speech amplifier needed?

A.
Microphones usually have a low power output (0% chose this)
B.
To match the balanced modulator's output impedance (0% chose this)
C.
The sideband filter requires a large audio signal to work (0% chose this)
D.
To improve signal fidelity (0% chose this)

B-003-006-003

In a typical single-sideband transmitter, what is the purpose of the filter that follows the balanced modulator?

A.
Remove the unwanted sideband (0% chose this)
B.
Suppress the RF carrier signal (0% chose this)
C.
Remove harmonics from the transmitted signal (0% chose this)
D.
Shape the audio waveform (0% chose this)

B-003-006-004

In a typical single-sideband transmitter, at what frequency is the sideband filter tuned?

A.
At the VFO frequency (0% chose this)
B.
Near the fixed RF oscillator frequency (0% chose this)
C.
Near the operating frequency (0% chose this)
D.
At audio frequencies (0% chose this)

B-003-006-005

In a single-sideband transmitter, what is the purpose of the speech amplifier?

A.
Amplify the audio you wish to transmit (0% chose this)
B.
Amplify one of the signal's two sidebands (0% chose this)
C.
Amplify the signal's harmonic content (0% chose this)
D.
Amplify the signal's carrier (0% chose this)

B-003-006-006

In a single-sideband transmitter, which stage transposes the single-sideband signal to the operating frequency?

A.
Fixed RF oscillator (0% chose this)
B.
Variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
C.
Balanced modulator (0% chose this)
D.
Mixer (0% chose this)

B-003-006-007

In a single-sideband transmitter, which stage allows you to adjust the final transmit frequency?

A.
Sideband filter (0% chose this)
B.
Balanced modulator (0% chose this)
C.
Variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
Antenna tuner (0% chose this)

B-003-006-008

In a single-sideband transmitter, which stage normally includes a circuit providing protection from excessive SWR?

A.
Speech amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
Final amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
Variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
Balanced modulator (0% chose this)

B-003-006-009

In a single-sideband transmitter, which stage transposes the voice message from the audio spectrum to the radio spectrum?

A.
Variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
B.
Balanced modulator (0% chose this)
C.
Mixer (0% chose this)
D.
Fixed RF oscillator (0% chose this)

B-003-007-001

Which of the following is a function of the sound card interface in a station operating computer-based digital modes?

A.
To demodulate the transmitted signal (0% chose this)
B.
To convert the received digital signal from the transceiver into an analog signal for the computer (0% chose this)
C.
To amplify the digital signals to be sent by the transceiver (0% chose this)
D.
To convert the received analog audio signal from the transceiver into a digital signal for the computer (0% chose this)

B-003-007-002

Which of the following is a function of the sound card interface in a station operating computer-based digital modes?

A.
To convert the digital signal from the computer into an audio signal that can be transmitted (0% chose this)
B.
To demodulate the transmitted signal (0% chose this)
C.
To amplify the digital signals to be sent by the transceiver (0% chose this)
D.
To convert the analog signal from the computer into a digital signal that can be transmitted (0% chose this)

B-003-007-003

Which of the following is one function of most sound card interfaces in a station operating computer-based digital modes?

A.
Display the transmit frequency (0% chose this)
B.
Modulate the received signal (0% chose this)
C.
Translate the digital signal into alphanumeric characters (0% chose this)
D.
Switch the transceiver between receive and transmit modes (0% chose this)

B-003-007-004

Which of the following is a function of the sound card interface in a station operating computer-based digital modes?

A.
To demodulate the transmitted signal (0% chose this)
B.
To amplify the digital signals to be sent by the transceiver (0% chose this)
C.
To provide radio frequency coupling between a computer and a transceiver (0% chose this)
D.
To provide audio frequency coupling between a computer and a transceiver (0% chose this)

B-003-007-005

Why are isolation transformers often included in the sound card interface of a station operating computer-based digital modes?

A.
To match the impedance of the computer output signal to the impedance of the input of the computer (0% chose this)
B.
To prevent the coupling of the transceiver and computer from introducing hum and interference into the transmitted signals (0% chose this)
C.
To increase the signal voltage generated by the computer to the level required by the transceiver (0% chose this)
D.
To provide a source of DC power for the circuitry in the interface (0% chose this)

B-003-007-006

Why are some transceivers capable of operating computer-based digital modes without a separate sound card?

A.
Because they support CAT (Computer Aided Transceiver) (0% chose this)
B.
Because they incorporate an audio codec (0% chose this)
C.
Because they provide a USB connector (0% chose this)
D.
Because digital signal processing (DSP) is built-in (0% chose this)

B-003-008-001

If a linear power supply provides overvoltage protection, where is the voltage monitored?

A.
At the input of the rectifier (0% chose this)
B.
At the output of the filter (0% chose this)
C.
At the output of the regulator (0% chose this)
D.
At the input of the transformer (0% chose this)

B-003-008-002

What is the purpose of the transformer in a linear power supply?

A.
Ensure that the voltage stays constant when a heavy demand is placed on the supply (0% chose this)
B.
Smooth out the pulsating direct current (0% chose this)
C.
Convert the AC mains voltage up or down as required and provide isolation (0% chose this)
D.
Convert alternating current into direct current (0% chose this)

B-003-008-003

What is the purpose of the rectifier in a linear power supply?

A.
Convert the AC mains voltage up or down as required and provide isolation (0% chose this)
B.
Ensure that the voltage stays constant when a heavy demand is placed on the supply (0% chose this)
C.
Smooth out pulsating direct current (0% chose this)
D.
Convert alternating current into direct current (0% chose this)

B-003-008-004

What is the purpose of the filter in a linear power supply?

A.
Absorb the power produced by the supply (0% chose this)
B.
Convert alternating current into direct current (0% chose this)
C.
Ensure that the voltage stays constant when a heavy demand is placed on the supply (0% chose this)
D.
Smooth out pulsating direct current (0% chose this)

B-003-008-005

What is the purpose of the regulator in a linear power supply?

A.
Convert alternating current into direct current (0% chose this)
B.
Absorb the power produced by the supply (0% chose this)
C.
Ensure that the voltage stays constant when the demand on the supply varies (0% chose this)
D.
Convert the AC mains voltage up or down as required and provides isolation (0% chose this)

B-003-008-006

In a linear power supply, which stage typically requires a heat sink?

A.
Filter (0% chose this)
B.
Rectifier (0% chose this)
C.
Voltage regulator (0% chose this)
D.
Transformer (0% chose this)

B-003-009-001

Which component of a 3-element Yagi antenna is primarily for mechanical support?

A.
The boom (0% chose this)
B.
The driven element (0% chose this)
C.
The director (0% chose this)
D.
The reflector (0% chose this)

B-003-009-002

In a 3-element Yagi antenna, what is the longest radiating element?

A.
The boom (0% chose this)
B.
The director (0% chose this)
C.
The driven element (0% chose this)
D.
The reflector (0% chose this)

B-003-009-003

In a 3-element Yagi antenna, which is the shortest radiating element?

A.
The reflector (0% chose this)
B.
The boom (0% chose this)
C.
The director (0% chose this)
D.
The driven element (0% chose this)

B-003-009-004

In a 3-element Yagi antenna, which element is connected to the transmission line?

A.
The boom (0% chose this)
B.
The reflector (0% chose this)
C.
The driven element (0% chose this)
D.
The director (0% chose this)

B-003-010-001

Which series of emission modes listed below is in order from the narrowest bandwidth to the widest bandwidth?

A.
CW, FM voice and SSB voice (0% chose this)
B.
FM voice, SSB voice and CW (0% chose this)
C.
SSB voice, CW and FM voice (0% chose this)
D.
CW, SSB voice and FM voice (0% chose this)

B-003-010-002

The figure in a receiver's specifications which indicates its sensitivity is the:

A.
audio output in watts (0% chose this)
B.
number of RF amplifiers (0% chose this)
C.
RF input signal needed to achieve a given signal-to-noise ratio (0% chose this)
D.
bandwidth of the IF in kilohertz (0% chose this)

B-003-010-003

What are the two signal parameters presented to the user on the waterfall display (spectrogram) of a modern receiver?

A.
Frequency and phase (0% chose this)
B.
Amplitude and frequency (0% chose this)
C.
Bandwidth and digital mode (0% chose this)
D.
Phase and bandwidth (0% chose this)

B-003-010-004

What is the function of automatic gain control (AGC) in a receiver?

A.
Maximize overall gain for greater sensitivity (0% chose this)
B.
Limit the change in volume due to large signal strength variations (0% chose this)
C.
Remove high-amplitude short-duration noise pulses (0% chose this)
D.
Improve the signal-to-distortion ratio of the detector (0% chose this)

B-003-010-005

For which of the following emission modes is it important for the receiver to be tuned accurately (within 100 Hz)?

A.
AM (0% chose this)
B.
CW (0% chose this)
C.
FM (0% chose this)
D.
SSB (0% chose this)

B-003-010-006

A superheterodyne receiver has an intermediate frequency (IF) of 455 kHz. The local oscillator runs above the operating frequency. To which frequency should it be tuned to receive a signal on 3.54 MHz?

A.
4.450 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
13.540 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
3.995 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
4.905 MHz (0% chose this)

B-003-010-007

When receiving a modulated signal, what is the adverse consequence of too narrow a receiver bandwidth?

A.
Lower signal-to-noise ratio (0% chose this)
B.
Loss of dynamic range (0% chose this)
C.
Loss of information (0% chose this)
D.
Lower signal strength (0% chose this)

B-003-010-008

Apart from sensitivity and selectivity, which of these is the third main indicator of communications receiver performance?

A.
Frequency range (0% chose this)
B.
Fidelity (0% chose this)
C.
Dynamic range (0% chose this)
D.
Volume range (0% chose this)

B-003-010-009

A communications receiver has four filters installed in it, respectively designated as 250 Hz, 500 Hz, 2.4 kHz, and 6 kHz. If you were listening to single sideband, which filter would you utilize?

A.
6 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
250 Hz (0% chose this)
C.
500 Hz (0% chose this)
D.
2.4 kHz (0% chose this)

B-003-010-010

A communications receiver has four filters installed in it, respectively designated as 250 Hz, 500 Hz, 2.4 kHz and 6 kHz. You are copying a CW transmission and there is a great deal of interference. Which one of the filters would you choose?

A.
250 Hz (0% chose this)
B.
6 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
500 Hz (0% chose this)
D.
2.4 kHz (0% chose this)

B-003-010-011

When receiving CW, which of these frequency ranges is optimum for a band-pass filter?

A.
100 Hz to 1100 Hz (0% chose this)
B.
300 Hz to 2700 Hz (0% chose this)
C.
2100 Hz to 2300 Hz (0% chose this)
D.
750 Hz to 850 Hz (0% chose this)

B-003-011-001

What does chirp mean?

A.
A small change in the output frequency of a transmitter each time a dit or dah is sent (0% chose this)
B.
A slow change in transmitter frequency as the oscillator warms up (0% chose this)
C.
An overload in a receiver's audio circuit whenever CW is received (0% chose this)
D.
A high-pitched tone which is received along with every CW dit and dah (0% chose this)

B-003-011-002

What can be done to keep a CW transmitter from chirping?

A.
Keep the power supply voltages very steady under varying loads (0% chose this)
B.
Add a key click filter (0% chose this)
C.
Add a low-pass filter (0% chose this)
D.
Keep the oscillator impedance very steady under the transmit load (0% chose this)

B-003-011-003

What is the advantage of using a variable frequency oscillator in a basic CW transmitter?

A.
Greater suppression of harmonics (0% chose this)
B.
Frequency is not constrained to the available crystals (0% chose this)
C.
Use of higher speed Morse code is supported (0% chose this)
D.
Greater suppression of key clicks (0% chose this)

B-003-011-004

Which type of transmitter modulation changes the amplitude of an RF wave for the purpose of conveying information?

A.
Phase modulation (0% chose this)
B.
Frequency shift keying (0% chose this)
C.
Amplitude modulation (0% chose this)
D.
Frequency modulation (0% chose this)

B-003-011-005

In what emission mode does the instantaneous amplitude (envelope) of the RF signal vary with the modulating audio?

A.
Amplitude modulation (0% chose this)
B.
Frequency shift keying (0% chose this)
C.
Pulse modulation (0% chose this)
D.
Frequency modulation (0% chose this)

B-003-011-006

Morse code is usually transmitted by radio as:

A.
a continuous carrier (0% chose this)
B.
an interrupted carrier (0% chose this)
C.
a series of key clicks (0% chose this)
D.
a phase-shifted carrier (0% chose this)

B-003-011-007

You are transmitting using amplitude modulation. What bandwidth does your signal occupy if the highest frequency of your voice is 3 kHz?

A.
6 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
9 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
12 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
3 kHz (0% chose this)

B-003-011-008

What frequency components are present in the bandwidth of an amplitude modulated signal?

A.
Carrier and one sideband (0% chose this)
B.
Carrier and two sidebands (0% chose this)
C.
Two sidebands (0% chose this)
D.
One sideband (0% chose this)

B-003-011-009

An RF oscillator should be electrically and mechanically stable. This is to ensure that the oscillator does NOT:

A.
become overmodulated (0% chose this)
B.
cause undue distortion (0% chose this)
C.
drift in frequency over time (0% chose this)
D.
generate key clicks (0% chose this)

B-003-011-010

The DC power to the final stage of your transmitter is 200 watts and the RF output is 125 watts. What has happened to the rest of the power?

A.
It has been used to provide negative feedback (0% chose this)
B.
It has been dissipated as heat (0% chose this)
C.
It has been used to provide positive feedback (0% chose this)
D.
It has been used to provide greater efficiency (0% chose this)

B-003-011-011

The difference between DC input power and RF output power of a transmitter RF amplifier:

A.
is lost in the transmission line (0% chose this)
B.
appears as heat (0% chose this)
C.
is due to oscillations (0% chose this)
D.
radiates from the antenna (0% chose this)

B-003-012-001

What may happen if an SSB transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high?

A.
It may cause interference to other stations operating on lower bands (0% chose this)
B.
It may cause digital interference to computer equipment (0% chose this)
C.
It may cause harmonic interference on higher bands (0% chose this)
D.
It may interfere with other stations operating near its frequency (0% chose this)

B-003-012-002

What may happen if an SSB transmitter is operated with too much speech processing?

A.
It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band (0% chose this)
B.
It may cause insufficient modulation of the carrier (0% chose this)
C.
It may cause digital interference to computer equipment (0% chose this)
D.
It may cause audio distortion or splatter interference to other stations operating near its frequency (0% chose this)

B-003-012-003

What is the term for the average power during one RF cycle, at the crest of the modulation envelope?

A.
RMS power (0% chose this)
B.
Peak envelope power (0% chose this)
C.
Peak transmitter input power (0% chose this)
D.
Average radio frequency power (0% chose this)

B-003-012-004

What is the usual bandwidth of an amateur radio single-sideband signal?

A.
Between 3 kHz and 6 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
Between 2 kHz and 3 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
1 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
2 kHz (0% chose this)

B-003-012-005

Why does the power amplifier of the SSB transmitter need to be linear?

A.
Hum and noise are reduced (0% chose this)
B.
Power output variations due to voice peaks are reduced (0% chose this)
C.
Voice is unintelligible when amplified by a non-linear amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
Power demand on the power supply is regulated (0% chose this)

B-003-012-006

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a double sideband voice transmission?

A.
Only half the bandwidth is needed for the same information content (0% chose this)
B.
Simpler equipment can be used to receive a double sideband suppressed carrier signal (0% chose this)
C.
Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion (0% chose this)
D.
More of the output power can be put into the sidebands (0% chose this)

B-003-012-007

What does overmodulation do to a single-sideband signal?

A.
It occupies less bandwidth and has a poor high frequency response (0% chose this)
B.
It becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth (0% chose this)
C.
It has higher fidelity and an improved signal-to-noise ratio (0% chose this)
D.
It increases the range of your signal (0% chose this)

B-003-012-008

How should the microphone gain control be adjusted for voice operation on a single-sideband transmitter?

A.
For 100% frequency deviation on voice peaks (0% chose this)
B.
Such that the maximum range on the ALC meter is never exceeded on voice peaks (0% chose this)
C.
For full deflection of the ALC meter (0% chose this)
D.
For a dip in the drain or collector current (0% chose this)

B-003-012-009

The purpose of a balanced modulator in an SSB transmitter is to:

A.
suppress the carrier and pass the two sidebands (0% chose this)
B.
suppress the carrier and pass one sideband (0% chose this)
C.
make sure that the carrier and both sidebands are 180 degrees out of phase (0% chose this)
D.
ensure that the percentage of modulation is kept constant (0% chose this)

B-003-012-010

Your SSB transmitter is set to operate lower sideband at 7100 kHz. With a single 1000 Hz tone as modulation, at which frequency is RF transmitted?

A.
7101 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
6100 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
7099 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
8100 kHz (0% chose this)

B-003-012-011

The automatic level control (ALC) in an SSB transmitter:

A.
reduces transmitter audio feedback (0% chose this)
B.
reduces system noise (0% chose this)
C.
limits the input audio peaks so that the transmitter is not overdriven (0% chose this)
D.
increases the occupied bandwidth (0% chose this)

B-003-013-001

What causes the loud noise heard from an FM receiver in the absence of a signal?

A.
The additional gain following the discriminator (0% chose this)
B.
The nature of atmospheric noise in the VHF range (0% chose this)
C.
The higher intermediate frequency used in FM receivers (0% chose this)
D.
The very large gain of stages ahead of the discriminator (0% chose this)

B-003-013-002

You are using an FM repeater configured for 5 kHz deviation, but your transmitter is set to 2.5 kHz deviation. What is the consequence?

A.
Your audio will be distorted (0% chose this)
B.
Your audio will be low (0% chose this)
C.
The repeater will not respond (0% chose this)
D.
Your range will be shorter (0% chose this)

B-003-013-003

What term defines the change in frequency caused by modulation in an FM transmitter?

A.
Spectrum spread (0% chose this)
B.
Shift (0% chose this)
C.
Modulation index (0% chose this)
D.
Deviation (0% chose this)

B-003-013-004

What kind of emission would your FM transmitter produce if its microphone failed to work?

A.
An amplitude-modulated carrier (0% chose this)
B.
A frequency-modulated carrier (0% chose this)
C.
An unmodulated carrier (0% chose this)
D.
A phase-modulated carrier (0% chose this)

B-003-013-005

Why is FM voice best for local VHF/UHF radio communications?

A.
Its RF carrier stays on frequency better than the AM modes (0% chose this)
B.
The carrier is not detectable (0% chose this)
C.
It is more resistant to distortion caused by reflected signals (0% chose this)
D.
It provides a good signal-to-noise ratio at low RF signal levels (0% chose this)

B-003-013-006

What is the approximate bandwidth of a frequency modulated signal using 5 kHz deviation?

A.
Less than 5 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
Between 5 kHz and 10 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
Greater than 20 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
Between 10 kHz and 20 kHz (0% chose this)

B-003-013-007

How is a higher level of the modulating signal represented in an FM signal?

A.
By a larger pulse width in the transmitted wave train (0% chose this)
B.
By a larger excursion of the carrier frequency (0% chose this)
C.
By a larger peak envelope power (0% chose this)
D.
By a larger amplitude of the carrier (0% chose this)

B-003-013-008

What modulation method is most closely related to frequency modulation?

A.
Phase modulation (0% chose this)
B.
Amplitude modulation (0% chose this)
C.
Multiplex modulation (0% chose this)
D.
Pulse modulation (0% chose this)

B-003-013-009

Why isn't FM used as an amateur radio emission mode below 28 MHz?

A.
Harmonics could not be attenuated to practical levels (0% chose this)
B.
The frequency stability would not be adequate (0% chose this)
C.
The transmitter efficiency for this mode is low (0% chose this)
D.
The bandwidth would exceed limits in the regulations (0% chose this)

B-003-013-010

Several stations report that your FM transmission is loud and distorted, but on frequency. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the distortion?

A.
Excessive transmit power (0% chose this)
B.
Speaking too loudly into the microphone (0% chose this)
C.
Cross-polarized antenna (0% chose this)
D.
Setting the wrong CTCSS tone (0% chose this)

B-003-013-011

When more than one signal is present, the FM receiver is likely to demodulate only the strongest signal. What is this behaviour called?

A.
Surrender effect (0% chose this)
B.
Overpower effect (0% chose this)
C.
Interference effect (0% chose this)
D.
Capture effect (0% chose this)

B-003-014-001

What do many amateur radio operators use to help form good Morse code characters?

A.
Straight key (0% chose this)
B.
Electronic keyer (0% chose this)
C.
DTMF keypad (0% chose this)
D.
Touchpad (0% chose this)

B-003-014-002

How does an electronic keyer help form good Morse code characters?

A.
By regulating the lengths of the dits and dahs (0% chose this)
B.
By eliminating key clicks (0% chose this)
C.
By improving the tone of the CW signal (0% chose this)
D.
By ensuring that the dots and dashes have the same amplitude (0% chose this)

B-003-014-003

What do you need to adjust before using a microphone for the first time with a transceiver?

A.
Automatic gain control level (0% chose this)
B.
Deviation control (0% chose this)
C.
Noise blanker threshold (0% chose this)
D.
Microphone gain level (0% chose this)

B-003-014-004

What noise management system analyzes noise and signal characteristics to partially remove noise?

A.
Noise canceller (phasing) (0% chose this)
B.
DSP noise reduction (0% chose this)
C.
Noise blanker (0% chose this)
D.
Noise limiter (0% chose this)

B-003-014-005

What circuit causes a transmitter to automatically transmit when an operator speaks into its microphone?

A.
VOX (0% chose this)
B.
VCO (0% chose this)
C.
VFO (0% chose this)
D.
VXO (0% chose this)

B-003-014-006

What is the reason for using a properly adjusted speech processor with a single-sideband voice transmitter?

A.
It improves the intelligibility of your signal (0% chose this)
B.
It reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone (0% chose this)
C.
It reduces average transmitter power requirements (0% chose this)
D.
It improves voice frequency fidelity (0% chose this)

B-003-014-007

If a single-sideband voice transmitter is 100% modulated, how will using a speech processor affect the transmitter's output?

A.
Decrease the average power (0% chose this)
B.
Decrease the peak envelope power (0% chose this)
C.
Increase the peak envelope power (0% chose this)
D.
Increase the average power (0% chose this)

B-003-014-008

In a receiver, what noise management circuit recognizes high-amplitude short-duration pulses and removes them?

A.
Noise limiter (0% chose this)
B.
Automatic level control (0% chose this)
C.
Noise blanker (0% chose this)
D.
Narrowband filter (0% chose this)

B-003-014-009

What type of interference is a noise blanker circuit most effective in eliminating?

A.
Distortion from overdeviated signals (0% chose this)
B.
Continuous wideband background noise (0% chose this)
C.
Short-duration impulse-type noise (0% chose this)
D.
Interfering signals on the same frequency (0% chose this)

B-003-014-010

What is the function of transmit/receive switching in a transceiver?

A.
To prevent RF currents entering the transmitter circuits (0% chose this)
B.
To change antennas for operation on other frequencies (0% chose this)
C.
To allow more than one transmitter to be used (0% chose this)
D.
To enable one antenna to be used for both transmitting and receiving (0% chose this)

B-003-014-011

What type of microphone has internal components similar to a loudspeaker?

A.
Crystal (0% chose this)
B.
Electret (0% chose this)
C.
Condenser (0% chose this)
D.
Dynamic (0% chose this)

B-003-015-001

Why can a modern digital radio system transmit voice and images, not just data?

A.
Digital protocols can fall back to analog as needed (0% chose this)
B.
Modern transceivers have the necessary high efficiency amplifiers (0% chose this)
C.
Digital signals are continuously variable signals (0% chose this)
D.
Any analog information can be converted to digital data (0% chose this)

B-003-015-002

What is the fundamental difference between digital and analog data?

A.
Digital data represents information as a continuously variable quantity (0% chose this)
B.
Digital data requires complex waveforms for transmission (0% chose this)
C.
Digital data easily translates into digital signals (0% chose this)
D.
Digital data is encoded as discrete pre-agreed values (0% chose this)

B-003-015-003

What is the function of a digipeater?

A.
To receive digital data and retransmit data marked for retransmission (0% chose this)
B.
To receive analog FM, convert to digital data and retransmit (0% chose this)
C.
To receive digital data and export to the internet (0% chose this)
D.
To receive digital data, convert to analog FM and retransmit (0% chose this)

B-003-015-004

What does "network" mean in packet radio?

A.
The connections on terminal-node controllers (0% chose this)
B.
The programming in a terminal-node controller that rejects other callers if a station is already connected (0% chose this)
C.
A way of connecting packet-radio stations so data can be sent over long distances (0% chose this)
D.
A way of connecting terminal-node controllers by telephone so data can be sent over long distances (0% chose this)

B-003-015-005

Why can dozens of FT8 communications occur simultaneously in the space needed for one single-sideband transmission?

A.
Formatting of the messages into packets (0% chose this)
B.
Message structure with limited contact information (0% chose this)
C.
Time interleaving of the transmissions (0% chose this)
D.
Narrow bandwidth of an FT8 signal (0% chose this)

B-003-015-006

Which of these modes can work at the lowest signal-to-noise ratio as measured in a 2500 Hz bandwidth?

A.
FT8 (0% chose this)
B.
PSK31 (0% chose this)
C.
CW (0% chose this)
D.
RTTY (0% chose this)

B-003-015-007

When selecting an RTTY transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow (centre to centre) to minimize interference?

A.
50 Hz to 100 Hz (0% chose this)
B.
6 kHz to 10 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
250 Hz to 500 Hz (0% chose this)
D.
3 kHz to 5 kHz (0% chose this)

B-003-015-008

When using a digital mode based on a computer sound card, how can you verify that the transmit audio level is NOT excessive?

A.
Ask a local station to confirm your signal is free of splatter (0% chose this)
B.
Verify that the automatic level control (ALC) is actively limiting every transmission (0% chose this)
C.
Ask a local station to confirm your signal can be successfully decoded (0% chose this)
D.
Ensure your transmitter's audio compression is set to maximum (0% chose this)

B-003-015-009

What feature of packet radio makes it especially useful for emergency communications?

A.
Packet functionality is included in most modern radios (0% chose this)
B.
Capable of simultaneous voice, image and data transmission (0% chose this)
C.
Reliable messaging (guaranteed delivery or notification of failure) (0% chose this)
D.
Encrypted signals prevent eavesdropping (0% chose this)

B-003-015-010

A digital protocol implements automatic repeat request (ARQ). What does it permit?

A.
Error detection (0% chose this)
B.
Automatic link establishment (0% chose this)
C.
Error correction (0% chose this)
D.
Unattended operation (0% chose this)

B-003-015-011

With a digital communication mode based on a computer sound card, what is the result of feeding excessive audio into the transmitter?

A.
Higher signal-to-noise ratio (0% chose this)
B.
Power amplifier overheating (0% chose this)
C.
Lower error rate (0% chose this)
D.
Splatter or out-of-channel emissions (0% chose this)

B-003-016-001

What approximate voltage does a standard automobile starter battery usually supply?

A.
12 volts (0% chose this)
B.
9 volts (0% chose this)
C.
16 volts (0% chose this)
D.
28 volts (0% chose this)

B-003-016-002

Which of the following has a positive terminal and a negative terminal?

A.
A resistor (0% chose this)
B.
A potentiometer (0% chose this)
C.
A fuse (0% chose this)
D.
A battery (0% chose this)

B-003-016-003

A battery, that can be repeatedly recharged by supplying it with electrical energy, is known as a:

A.
storage battery (0% chose this)
B.
memory battery (0% chose this)
C.
low leakage battery (0% chose this)
D.
primary battery (0% chose this)

B-003-016-004

Which of the following is a source of electromotive force (EMF)?

A.
Metal-film resistor (0% chose this)
B.
Lithium-ion battery (0% chose this)
C.
P-channel FET (0% chose this)
D.
Germanium diode (0% chose this)

B-003-016-005

Why is the NiMH battery often preferred over a conventional alkaline battery?

A.
It contains a liquid electrolyte (0% chose this)
B.
It can be repeatedly recharged (0% chose this)
C.
It can be discarded without precautions (0% chose this)
D.
It provides a higher voltage (0% chose this)

B-003-016-006

The voltage at a battery's terminals will drop when it supplies current. What is the cause of the drop?

A.
Voltage capacity (0% chose this)
B.
Current capacity (0% chose this)
C.
Electrolyte becoming dry (0% chose this)
D.
Internal resistance (0% chose this)

B-003-016-007

For portable operation, what is the primary advantage of lithium-based batteries over lead-acid batteries?

A.
Simple charging methods (0% chose this)
B.
High battery capacity per kilogram (0% chose this)
C.
Lower voltage per cell (0% chose this)
D.
High tolerance to overcharge (0% chose this)

B-003-016-008

Battery capacity is commonly stated as a value of current delivered over a specified period of time. What is the effect of exceeding that specified current?

A.
The voltage delivered will be higher (0% chose this)
B.
The battery will accept the subsequent charge in a shorter time (0% chose this)
C.
The battery will discharge more rapidly than specified (0% chose this)
D.
One or more cells may become short-circuited (0% chose this)

B-003-016-009

What voltage and capacity will you achieve by connecting two 12 volts, 20 ampere-hour batteries in parallel?

A.
24 volts, 40 ampere-hours (0% chose this)
B.
12 volts, 40 ampere-hours (0% chose this)
C.
24 volts, 20 ampere-hours (0% chose this)
D.
6 volts, 80 ampere-hours (0% chose this)

B-003-016-010

What voltage and capacity will you achieve by connecting two 12 volts, 20 ampere-hour batteries in series?

A.
6 volts, 80 ampere-hours (0% chose this)
B.
24 volts, 20 ampere-hours (0% chose this)
C.
12 volts, 40 ampere-hours (0% chose this)
D.
24 volts, 40 ampere-hours (0% chose this)

B-003-016-011

A lithium-ion battery should never be:

A.
left overnight at room temperature (0% chose this)
B.
left disconnected (0% chose this)
C.
recharged (0% chose this)
D.
short-circuited (0% chose this)

B-003-017-001

You construct a simple DC power supply using a transformer, rectifier and filter capacitor. If you use the supply to power a CW transmitter, what problem with signal quality could it cause?

A.
Overmodulation (0% chose this)
B.
Key clicks (0% chose this)
C.
Harmonics (0% chose this)
D.
Chirp (0% chose this)

B-003-017-002

What device converts 120 volts AC to 12 volts DC?

A.
Inverter (0% chose this)
B.
Power supply (0% chose this)
C.
Power conditioner (0% chose this)
D.
Low-pass filter (0% chose this)

B-003-017-003

When selecting a 13.8 V DC power supply for a transceiver, what design specification is most important?

A.
Output connection compatibility (0% chose this)
B.
Undervoltage protection (0% chose this)
C.
Output current capability (0% chose this)
D.
Voltage and current metering (0% chose this)

B-003-017-004

Compared to a switching (switch mode) power supply, why may a linear power supply be preferred?

A.
Better regulation for FM equipment (0% chose this)
B.
Higher efficiency (0% chose this)
C.
Lower risk of radio frequency noise (0% chose this)
D.
Reduced physical dimensions and weight (0% chose this)

B-003-017-005

In a mobile installation, why should the fuse in the DC line to the transceiver be located as near to the battery as possible?

A.
To better absorb voltage transients (0% chose this)
B.
To prevent the vehicle's electronic systems causing noise (0% chose this)
C.
To reduce the voltage drop in the radio's DC supply (0% chose this)
D.
To protect the entire circuit (0% chose this)

B-003-017-006

Apart from efficiency, what is one advantage of a switching (switch mode) power supply over a linear power supply?

A.
Lower risk of radio frequency noise (0% chose this)
B.
Different simultaneous output voltages (0% chose this)
C.
Simpler to repair (0% chose this)
D.
Reduced physical dimensions and weight (0% chose this)

B-003-017-007

Why are heavy-gauge wires used for a 100-watt transceiver's DC power connection?

A.
To minimize ripple (0% chose this)
B.
To minimize the voltage drop (0% chose this)
C.
To prevent an electrical shock (0% chose this)
D.
To avoid RF interference (0% chose this)

B-003-017-008

What are the nominal power-line voltages supplied to homes?

A.
120 volts and 240 volts (0% chose this)
B.
110 volts and 220 volts (0% chose this)
C.
100 volts and 200 volts (0% chose this)
D.
130 volts and 260 volts (0% chose this)

B-003-017-009

Your transceiver's user guide suggests limiting the voltage drop to 0.5 volts and the vehicle battery is 3 metres away. Given the losses listed below at the required current of 22 amperes, which minimum wire gauge must you use?

A.
Number 14, 0.19 V per metre (0% chose this)
B.
Number 8, 0.05 V per metre (0% chose this)
C.
Number 12, 0.11 V per metre (0% chose this)
D.
Number 10, 0.07 V per metre (0% chose this)

B-003-017-010

Why must the positive lead from the vehicle battery to your transceiver be fused?

A.
To prevent interference to the vehicle's electronic systems (0% chose this)
B.
To protect the radio from transient voltages (0% chose this)
C.
To reduce the voltage drop in the radio's DC supply (0% chose this)
D.
To prevent an overcurrent situation from starting a fire (0% chose this)

B-003-017-011

You have a very loud low-frequency hum appearing on your transmission. In what part of the transmitter would you first look for the trouble?

A.
The driver circuit (0% chose this)
B.
The power supply (0% chose this)
C.
The variable-frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
The power amplifier circuit (0% chose this)

B-003-018-001

How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using your station at home?

A.
Put a "Danger - High Voltage" sign in the station (0% chose this)
B.
Use a key-operated on/off switch in the main power line (0% chose this)
C.
Put fuses in the main power line (0% chose this)
D.
Use a carrier-operated relay in the main power line (0% chose this)

B-003-018-002

How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using a mobile station in your car?

A.
Remove the microphone when you are not using it (0% chose this)
B.
Put a "Do not touch" sign on the radio (0% chose this)
C.
Turn the radio off when you are not using it (0% chose this)
D.
Tune the radio to an unused frequency when you are done using it (0% chose this)

B-003-018-003

What electrical hazard, if any, does the starter battery in a vehicle present?

A.
High electromagnetic fields (0% chose this)
B.
High short-circuit current (0% chose this)
C.
None, given its low voltage (0% chose this)
D.
Possibility of electric shock (0% chose this)

B-003-018-004

Why would there be a switch in a high-voltage power supply to turn off the power if its cabinet is opened?

A.
To keep dangerous RF radiation from leaking out through an open cabinet (0% chose this)
B.
To keep anyone opening the cabinet from getting shocked by dangerous high voltages (0% chose this)
C.
To turn the power supply off when it is not being used (0% chose this)
D.
To keep dangerous RF radiation from coming in through an open cabinet (0% chose this)

B-003-018-005

What is the minimum electrical current that can be fatal to the human body?

A.
1 ampere (0% chose this)
B.
2 amperes (0% chose this)
C.
500 milliamperes (0% chose this)
D.
20 milliamperes (0% chose this)

B-003-018-006

Which body organ can be fatally affected by a very small amount of electrical current?

A.
The heart (0% chose this)
B.
The liver (0% chose this)
C.
The brain (0% chose this)
D.
The lungs (0% chose this)

B-003-018-007

What is the lowest voltage that is usually considered hazardous to humans?

A.
30 (0% chose this)
B.
100 (0% chose this)
C.
240 (0% chose this)
D.
347 (0% chose this)

B-003-018-008

What should you do if you discover someone who is being burned by high voltage?

A.
Turn off the power, call for emergency help and provide first aid if needed (0% chose this)
B.
Run from the area so you won't be burned too (0% chose this)
C.
Wait for a few minutes to see if the person can get away from the high voltage on their own, then try to help (0% chose this)
D.
Immediately drag the person away from the high voltage (0% chose this)

B-003-018-009

What is the safest method to remove an unconscious person from contact with a high-voltage source?

A.
Call an electrician (0% chose this)
B.
Remove the person by pulling an arm or a leg (0% chose this)
C.
De-energize the power source before touching the person (0% chose this)
D.
Wrap the person in a blanket and pull him to a safe area (0% chose this)

B-003-018-010

Before checking a fault in a mains-operated power supply unit, it would be safest to first:

A.
short out the leads of the filter capacitor (0% chose this)
B.
turn off the power and unplug the power cord (0% chose this)
C.
check the action of the capacitor bleeder resistance (0% chose this)
D.
remove and check the fuse from the power supply (0% chose this)

B-003-018-011

What is the risk involved in troubleshooting a live power supply?

A.
Electromagnetic interference (0% chose this)
B.
Blowing the fuse (0% chose this)
C.
Electric shock (0% chose this)
D.
Damaging connected equipment (0% chose this)

B-003-019-001

For best protection from electrical shock, what should be grounded in your station?

A.
All station equipment (0% chose this)
B.
The power supply primary (0% chose this)
C.
The AC power line (0% chose this)
D.
The transmission line (0% chose this)

B-003-019-002

Established practice demands that all ground electrodes be bonded together with heavy conductors. What protection does this provide in case of a lightning strike?

A.
Establishes a ground (reference) plane at the station (0% chose this)
B.
Drains static electricity on a continuous basis (0% chose this)
C.
Reduces induced current by adding impedance (0% chose this)
D.
Prevents voltage differences between devices (0% chose this)

B-003-019-003

Why should you never use a fuse with a higher current rating than specified?

A.
Voltage delivered to the circuit would be limited (0% chose this)
B.
The fuse may open during normal operation (0% chose this)
C.
A low current circuit may not function properly (0% chose this)
D.
A fault may cause permanent damage, including a fire (0% chose this)

B-003-019-004

Which of these materials is best for a ground rod driven into the earth?

A.
Fibreglass (0% chose this)
B.
Hard plastic (0% chose this)
C.
Iron or steel (0% chose this)
D.
Copper-clad steel (0% chose this)

B-003-019-005

You need to work on a power supply that has been taken offline. What is the first thing you should do once the cabinet is open?

A.
Short the AC input leads together (0% chose this)
B.
Discharge the filter capacitors (0% chose this)
C.
Bond the chassis to ground (0% chose this)
D.
Place the unit on an insulating mat (0% chose this)

B-003-019-006

Where should the green wire in a three-wire AC line cord be connected in a power supply?

A.
To the fuse (0% chose this)
B.
To the chassis (0% chose this)
C.
To the "hot" side of the power switch (0% chose this)
D.
To the white wire (0% chose this)

B-003-019-007

Your third-floor station has a ground wire running 10 metres down to a ground rod. You get an RF burn when you touch your HF transceiver while transmitting. What is the likely cause?

A.
The ground connection of the wall outlet is defective (0% chose this)
B.
The gauge of the ground wire used is insufficient (0% chose this)
C.
The ground wire has high impedance on your operating frequency (0% chose this)
D.
The transmitting antenna is not the correct wavelength (0% chose this)

B-003-019-008

You are using an HF off-centre-fed (OCF) unbalanced antenna. When you transmit on SSB, distorted audio and noise are heard from an outboard amplified speaker. What device could you install in the transmission line to mitigate this problem?

A.
An antenna tuner (0% chose this)
B.
A surge suppressor (0% chose this)
C.
A common-mode choke (0% chose this)
D.
A low-pass filter (0% chose this)

B-003-019-009

What is a safe method to discharge power supply filter capacitors?

A.
Allow time for bleeder resistors to discharge the capacitors (0% chose this)
B.
Use an insulated shorting stick with an inline resistor (0% chose this)
C.
Use an insulated wire with alligator clips on each end (0% chose this)
D.
Use a long screwdriver with an insulated handle (0% chose this)

B-003-019-010

On mains-operated power supplies, the ground wire of the AC line is connected to the power supply chassis. What protection does this provide if a fault occurs in the power supply?

A.
Protects connected equipment from over voltage (0% chose this)
B.
Prevents damage to the AC supply circuit breaker (0% chose this)
C.
Prevents the equipment fuse from blowing unnecessarily (0% chose this)
D.
Ensures the chassis does not become energized (0% chose this)

B-003-019-011

Why do fuses have a voltage rating?

A.
To ensure voltage transients can be safely dissipated (0% chose this)
B.
To limit current leakage to ground while in operation (0% chose this)
C.
To specify the voltage that can be interrupted without arcing (0% chose this)
D.
To prevent dielectric breakdown of the fuse holder (0% chose this)

B-003-020-001

Why should you ground all antenna and rotator cables when your station is not in use?

A.
To prevent unauthorized persons from using the station (0% chose this)
B.
To help protect the station equipment and building from lightning damage (0% chose this)
C.
To lock the antenna system in one position (0% chose this)
D.
To avoid radio frequency interference (0% chose this)

B-003-020-002

You want to install a lightning surge protector on your transmission line, where should it be inserted?

A.
Behind the transceiver (0% chose this)
B.
Outside, as close to earth grounding as possible (0% chose this)
C.
Close to the antenna (0% chose this)
D.
Anywhere on the line (0% chose this)

B-003-020-003

How can your station equipment best be protected from lightning damage?

A.
Use heavy insulation on the wiring (0% chose this)
B.
Disconnect all equipment from the power lines and antenna cables (0% chose this)
C.
Disconnect the ground system from all radios (0% chose this)
D.
Never turn off the equipment (0% chose this)

B-003-020-004

What equipment should be worn for working on an antenna tower?

A.
Approved fall arrest equipment (0% chose this)
B.
A reflective vest (0% chose this)
C.
A pair of insulating gloves (0% chose this)
D.
A positioning waist belt (0% chose this)

B-003-020-005

Why should you wear approved fall arrest equipment if you are working on an antenna tower?

A.
To bring any tools you might use up and down the tower safely (0% chose this)
B.
To keep the tower from becoming unstable while you are working (0% chose this)
C.
To limit injuries if you fall (0% chose this)
D.
To hold your tools so they don't fall and injure someone on the ground (0% chose this)

B-003-020-006

For safety, how high should you place a horizontal wire antenna?

A.
Above high-voltage electrical lines (0% chose this)
B.
As close to the ground as possible (0% chose this)
C.
Just high enough so you can easily reach it for adjustments or repairs (0% chose this)
D.
High enough so that no one can touch any part of it from the ground (0% chose this)

B-003-020-007

Why should you wear a hard hat if you are on the ground helping someone work on an antenna tower?

A.
So you won't be hurt if the tower should accidentally fall (0% chose this)
B.
To keep RF energy away from your head during antenna testing (0% chose this)
C.
To protect your head from something dropped from the tower (0% chose this)
D.
So someone passing by will know that work is being done on the tower and will stay away (0% chose this)

B-003-020-008

Why should your outside antennas be high enough so that no one can touch them while you are transmitting?

A.
Touching the antenna might cause television interference (0% chose this)
B.
Touching the antenna might reflect the signal back to the transmitter and cause damage (0% chose this)
C.
Touching the antenna might cause RF burns (0% chose this)
D.
Touching the antenna might radiate harmonics (0% chose this)

B-003-020-009

Why should you make sure that no one can touch an open-wire transmission line while you are transmitting with it?

A.
Because contact might cause spurious emissions (0% chose this)
B.
Because contact might break the transmission line (0% chose this)
C.
Because high-voltage radio energy might burn the person (0% chose this)
D.
Because contact might cause a short circuit and damage the transmitter (0% chose this)

B-003-020-010

What safety precautions should you take before beginning repairs on an antenna?

A.
Ensure all masts to be installed are sufficiently light (0% chose this)
B.
Plan the operation in the shortest possible time to minimize fatigue (0% chose this)
C.
Be sure the antenna structure is properly grounded (0% chose this)
D.
Be sure to turn off the transmitter and disconnect the transmission line (0% chose this)

B-003-020-011

What safety precaution is especially important for a ground-mounted antenna?

A.
Ensure the location is as dry as possible (0% chose this)
B.
Ensure people are kept at a safe distance (0% chose this)
C.
All radials should be buried at least 15 cm deep (0% chose this)
D.
Ensure the feed point is at eye level (0% chose this)

B-003-021-001

What should you do for safety when operating at UHF and microwave frequencies?

A.
Make sure that an RF leakage filter is installed at the antenna feed point (0% chose this)
B.
Never use a horizontally polarized antenna (0% chose this)
C.
Keep antenna away from your eyes when RF is applied (0% chose this)
D.
Make sure the standing wave ratio is low before you conduct a test (0% chose this)

B-003-021-002

What should you do for safety if you put up a UHF transmitting antenna?

A.
Make sure that RF field screens are in place (0% chose this)
B.
Make sure the antenna is near the ground to keep its RF energy pointing in the correct direction (0% chose this)
C.
Make sure you connect an RF leakage filter at the antenna feed point (0% chose this)
D.
Make sure the antenna will be in a place where no one can get near it when you are transmitting (0% chose this)

B-003-021-003

What should you do for safety, before removing the shielding on a UHF power amplifier?

A.
Make sure the amplifier cannot accidentally be turned on (0% chose this)
B.
Make sure that RF leakage filters are connected (0% chose this)
C.
Make sure the amplifier output connector is grounded (0% chose this)
D.
Make sure all RF screens are in place at the amplifier output connector (0% chose this)

B-003-021-004

Why should you make sure the antenna of a hand-held transceiver is not close to your head when transmitting?

A.
To keep static charges from building up (0% chose this)
B.
To use your body to reflect the signal in one direction (0% chose this)
C.
To reduce your exposure to the radio frequency energy (0% chose this)
D.
To help the antenna radiate energy equally in all directions (0% chose this)

B-003-021-005

How should you position the antenna of a hand-held transceiver while you are transmitting?

A.
Pointed down to bounce the signal off the ground (0% chose this)
B.
Pointed towards the station you are contacting (0% chose this)
C.
Away from your head and away from others (0% chose this)
D.
Pointed at the horizon (0% chose this)

B-003-021-006

How can exposure to a large amount of RF energy affect body tissue?

A.
It heats the tissue (0% chose this)
B.
It lowers blood pressure (0% chose this)
C.
It restricts blood flow (0% chose this)
D.
It paralyzes the tissue (0% chose this)

B-003-021-007

Which body organ is the most likely to be damaged from the heating effects of RF radiation?

A.
Liver (0% chose this)
B.
Hands (0% chose this)
C.
Heart (0% chose this)
D.
Eyes (0% chose this)

B-003-021-008

How does the power density of an electromagnetic wave change as it propagates away from an antenna in free space?

A.
It decreases in inverse proportion to the distance (0% chose this)
B.
It decreases linearly with the distance (0% chose this)
C.
It decreases as the square of the distance (0% chose this)
D.
It decreases at a rate depending on ground absorption (0% chose this)

B-003-021-009

If you operate your station with indoor antennas, what precautions should you take when you install them?

A.
Position the antennas parallel to electrical power wires to take advantage of parasitic effects (0% chose this)
B.
Locate the antennas as far away as possible from living spaces that will be occupied while you are operating (0% chose this)
C.
Locate the antennas close to your operating position to minimize transmission line length (0% chose this)
D.
Position the antennas along the edge of a wall where it meets the floor or ceiling to reduce parasitic radiation (0% chose this)

B-003-021-010

Why should directional high-gain antennas be mounted higher than nearby structures?

A.
So they will not direct RF energy toward people in nearby structures (0% chose this)
B.
So they will not damage nearby structures with RF energy (0% chose this)
C.
So they will receive more sky waves and fewer ground waves (0% chose this)
D.
So static electricity buildup is minimized (0% chose this)

B-003-021-011

For best RF safety, where should the ends and centre of a dipole antenna be located?

A.
As close to the transmitter as possible so RF energy will be concentrated near the transmitter (0% chose this)
B.
As high as possible to prevent people from coming in contact with the antenna (0% chose this)
C.
Close to the ground so simple adjustments can be easily made without climbing a ladder (0% chose this)
D.
Near or over moist ground so RF energy will be radiated away from the ground (0% chose this)

B-004-001-001

What term describes a circuit designed to increase the amplitude of a signal?

A.
Amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
Modulator (0% chose this)
C.
Multiplier (0% chose this)
D.
Oscillator (0% chose this)

B-004-001-002

If an amplifier becomes non-linear, the output signal would:

A.
be reduced to zero (0% chose this)
B.
overload the power supply (0% chose this)
C.
cause oscillations (0% chose this)
D.
become distorted (0% chose this)

B-004-001-003

To increase the level of very weak radio signals from an antenna, you would use:

A.
an audio amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
an RF oscillator (0% chose this)
C.
an audio oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
an RF amplifier (0% chose this)

B-004-001-004

To increase the level of very weak signals from a microphone you would use:

A.
an RF amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
an RF oscillator (0% chose this)
C.
an audio amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
an audio oscillator (0% chose this)

B-004-001-005

What range of frequencies does the speech amplifier of an amateur radio transceiver typically process?

A.
40 Hz to 40 000 Hz (0% chose this)
B.
3 Hz to 300 Hz (0% chose this)
C.
300 Hz to 1 000 Hz (0% chose this)
D.
300 Hz to 3 000 Hz (0% chose this)

B-004-001-006

Apart from power and current, which signal property can amplifiers be specifically designed to increase?

A.
Voltage (0% chose this)
B.
Linearity (0% chose this)
C.
Frequency (0% chose this)
D.
Phase (0% chose this)

B-004-001-007

The increase in signal level by an amplifier is called:

A.
attenuation (0% chose this)
B.
modulation (0% chose this)
C.
gain (0% chose this)
D.
amplitude (0% chose this)

B-004-001-008

A device with gain has the property of:

A.
attenuation (0% chose this)
B.
oscillation (0% chose this)
C.
modulation (0% chose this)
D.
amplification (0% chose this)

B-004-001-009

A device labelled "Gain = 10 dB" is likely to be an:

A.
audio fader (0% chose this)
B.
attenuator (0% chose this)
C.
oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
amplifier (0% chose this)

B-004-001-010

What term describes the ratio of output power to DC input power of an amplifier?

A.
Dynamic range (0% chose this)
B.
Efficiency (0% chose this)
C.
Current gain (0% chose this)
D.
Loss factor (0% chose this)

B-004-001-011

What is the result of excessive positive feedback in an amplifier stage?

A.
Frequency response is flattened (0% chose this)
B.
Distortion is minimized (0% chose this)
C.
Oscillations appear (0% chose this)
D.
Voltage gain is reduced (0% chose this)

B-004-002-001

A diode is in series in the positive power lead to a transceiver. What is its purpose?

A.
Protect against voltage transients (0% chose this)
B.
Overcurrent protection (0% chose this)
C.
Reverse polarity protection (0% chose this)
D.
Permit AC operation (0% chose this)

B-004-002-002

One important application for diodes is recovering information from transmitted signals. This is referred to as:

A.
conversion (0% chose this)
B.
regeneration (0% chose this)
C.
detection (0% chose this)
D.
biasing (0% chose this)

B-004-002-003

The primary purpose of a Zener diode is to:

A.
regulate or maintain a constant voltage (0% chose this)
B.
boost the power supply voltage (0% chose this)
C.
provide a path through which current can flow (0% chose this)
D.
provide a voltage phase shift (0% chose this)

B-004-002-004

The action of changing alternating current to direct current is called:

A.
transformation (0% chose this)
B.
amplification (0% chose this)
C.
rectification (0% chose this)
D.
modulation (0% chose this)

B-004-002-005

The electrodes of a semiconductor diode are known as:

A.
collector and base (0% chose this)
B.
gate and source (0% chose this)
C.
cathode and drain (0% chose this)
D.
anode and cathode (0% chose this)

B-004-002-006

If alternating current is applied to the anode of a diode, what would you expect to see at the cathode?

A.
No signal (0% chose this)
B.
Pulsating direct current (0% chose this)
C.
Pulsating alternating current (0% chose this)
D.
Steady direct current (0% chose this)

B-004-002-007

In a semiconductor diode, electrons flow from:

A.
anode to cathode (0% chose this)
B.
base to collector (0% chose this)
C.
source to drain (0% chose this)
D.
cathode to anode (0% chose this)

B-004-002-008

What semiconductor device glows different colours, depending upon its chemical composition?

A.
A neon bulb (0% chose this)
B.
A light-emitting diode (0% chose this)
C.
A vacuum diode (0% chose this)
D.
A fluorescent bulb (0% chose this)

B-004-002-009

Which property of a semiconductor diode permits its use for reverse-polarity protection?

A.
It has high forward resistance (0% chose this)
B.
It conducts in one direction only (0% chose this)
C.
Its peak inverse voltage is below 1 volt (0% chose this)
D.
It has a high response speed (0% chose this)

B-004-002-010

In order for a diode to conduct, it must be:

A.
forward biased (0% chose this)
B.
reverse biased (0% chose this)
C.
enhanced (0% chose this)
D.
close coupled (0% chose this)

B-004-003-001

Which of these components can amplify a small signal using low voltages?

A.
Bipolar transistor (0% chose this)
B.
Silicon-controlled rectifier (0% chose this)
C.
Variable resistor (0% chose this)
D.
Thyristor (0% chose this)

B-004-003-002

What term describes the most basic semiconductor component used to amplify?

A.
Diode (0% chose this)
B.
P-N junction (0% chose this)
C.
Transistor (0% chose this)
D.
Varactor (0% chose this)

B-004-003-003

What are the three electrodes of a bipolar transistor?

A.
Collector, source and drain (0% chose this)
B.
Gate, source and drain (0% chose this)
C.
Drain, base and source (0% chose this)
D.
Collector, emitter and base (0% chose this)

B-004-003-004

If a low-level signal is placed at the input to a transistor and a higher level of the signal is produced at the output, what is this effect called?

A.
Detection (0% chose this)
B.
Rectification (0% chose this)
C.
Amplification (0% chose this)
D.
Modulation (0% chose this)

B-004-003-005

What prevents the substitution of a PNP transistor with an NPN transistor?

A.
The frequency response would be limited (0% chose this)
B.
The polarities are reversed (0% chose this)
C.
The current gain would be too low (0% chose this)
D.
The electrodes are labelled differently (0% chose this)

B-004-003-006

A semiconductor device is labelled as a "general purpose audio NPN device." What is it?

A.
Field-effect transistor (0% chose this)
B.
Bipolar transistor (0% chose this)
C.
Thyristor (0% chose this)
D.
Triac (0% chose this)

B-004-003-007

What are the two basic types of bipolar transistors?

A.
NPN and PNP (0% chose this)
B.
Diode and triode (0% chose this)
C.
Varicap and varistor (0% chose this)
D.
P channel and N channel (0% chose this)

B-004-003-008

Which of these operating conditions is most likely to cause a transistor to fail?

A.
Saturation (0% chose this)
B.
Excessive light (0% chose this)
C.
Excessive heat (0% chose this)
D.
Cut-off (0% chose this)

B-004-003-009

Which electrode of the bipolar transistor controls the output current?

A.
Base (0% chose this)
B.
Collector (0% chose this)
C.
Emitter (0% chose this)
D.
Source (0% chose this)

B-004-003-010

When a bipolar transistor is used as a switch, which electrode controls its state?

A.
Gate (0% chose this)
B.
Base (0% chose this)
C.
Emitter (0% chose this)
D.
Collector (0% chose this)

B-004-003-011

If a transistor is alternatively driven into saturation and cut-off, what does it behave like?

A.
A switch (0% chose this)
B.
A timer (0% chose this)
C.
An inverter (0% chose this)
D.
An amplifier (0% chose this)

B-004-004-001

When considering the material between source and drain, what are two basic types of field-effect transistors (FET)?

A.
Gallium and arsenide (0% chose this)
B.
Silicon and germanium (0% chose this)
C.
N channel and P channel (0% chose this)
D.
NPN and PNP (0% chose this)

B-004-004-002

Which semiconductor device has a gate, a drain and a source?

A.
Field-effect transistor (0% chose this)
B.
Point-contact transistor (0% chose this)
C.
Unijunction transistor (0% chose this)
D.
Bipolar transistor (0% chose this)

B-004-004-003

In a field-effect transistor, which electrode controls the resistance of the device's channel?

A.
Drain (0% chose this)
B.
Collector (0% chose this)
C.
Source (0% chose this)
D.
Gate (0% chose this)

B-004-004-004

In a field-effect transistor, from which electrode do charge carriers enter the channel?

A.
Emitter (0% chose this)
B.
Gate (0% chose this)
C.
Drain (0% chose this)
D.
Source (0% chose this)

B-004-004-005

In a field-effect transistor, from which electrode do charge carriers leave the channel?

A.
Drain (0% chose this)
B.
Source (0% chose this)
C.
Collector (0% chose this)
D.
Gate (0% chose this)

B-004-004-006

Why is a field-effect transistor considered a high impedance device?

A.
It functions at low voltage (0% chose this)
B.
The gate never conducts current (0% chose this)
C.
It functions at high current (0% chose this)
D.
It uses high resistance semiconductors (0% chose this)

B-004-004-007

What is the control electrode in a field-effect transistor?

A.
Base (0% chose this)
B.
Gate (0% chose this)
C.
Source (0% chose this)
D.
Drain (0% chose this)

B-004-004-008

In a field-effect transistor, what circuit parameter change causes the current to increase?

A.
A forward bias is removed (0% chose this)
B.
A forward bias is applied (0% chose this)
C.
The reverse bias is decreased (0% chose this)
D.
The reverse bias is increased (0% chose this)

B-004-004-009

Which electrode of a bipolar transistor corresponds to the source of a field-effect transistor?

A.
Base (0% chose this)
B.
Emitter (0% chose this)
C.
Collector (0% chose this)
D.
Drain (0% chose this)

B-004-004-010

Which electrode of a bipolar transistor corresponds to the drain of a field-effect transistor?

A.
Base (0% chose this)
B.
Source (0% chose this)
C.
Collector (0% chose this)
D.
Emitter (0% chose this)

B-004-004-011

In a field-effect transistor, which two electrodes are connected to the ends of the channel?

A.
Source and base (0% chose this)
B.
Gate and drain (0% chose this)
C.
Source and gate (0% chose this)
D.
Source and drain (0% chose this)

B-004-005-001

What is one reason a triode vacuum tube might be used instead of a transistor in a circuit?

A.
It is much smaller (0% chose this)
B.
It uses less current (0% chose this)
C.
It uses lower voltages (0% chose this)
D.
It may be able to handle higher power (0% chose this)

B-004-005-002

Which two elements of a triode carry the output current?

A.
Cathode and plate (0% chose this)
B.
Source and drain (0% chose this)
C.
Cathode and grid (0% chose this)
D.
Emitter and collector (0% chose this)

B-004-005-003

A feature common to triode tubes and transistors is that both:

A.
can amplify signals (0% chose this)
B.
dissipate heat when not conducting (0% chose this)
C.
use heat to cause electron movement (0% chose this)
D.
have electrons drifting through a vacuum (0% chose this)

B-004-005-004

Which electrode on a vacuum tube is operated with the highest positive voltage?

A.
Grid (0% chose this)
B.
Plate (0% chose this)
C.
Cathode (0% chose this)
D.
Collector (0% chose this)

B-004-005-005

Which semiconductor device has characteristics most similar to a triode vacuum tube?

A.
Thyristor (0% chose this)
B.
Bipolar transistor (0% chose this)
C.
Field-effect transistor (0% chose this)
D.
Triac (0% chose this)

B-004-005-006

Which electrode of a vacuum triode is the control element?

A.
Grid (0% chose this)
B.
Emitter (0% chose this)
C.
Plate (0% chose this)
D.
Cathode (0% chose this)

B-004-005-007

In a vacuum tube, which electrode emits electrons?

A.
Collector (0% chose this)
B.
Grid (0% chose this)
C.
Cathode (0% chose this)
D.
Plate (0% chose this)

B-004-005-008

What is inside the envelope of a triode tube?

A.
A vacuum (0% chose this)
B.
Neon (0% chose this)
C.
Argon (0% chose this)
D.
Air (0% chose this)

B-004-005-009

What term describes a vacuum tube with a cathode, a single grid and a plate?

A.
Triode (0% chose this)
B.
Tetrode (0% chose this)
C.
Diode (0% chose this)
D.
Pentode (0% chose this)

B-004-006-001

On resistors with four colour bands, which colour band specifies the tolerance?

A.
First (0% chose this)
B.
Third (0% chose this)
C.
Second (0% chose this)
D.
Fourth (0% chose this)

B-004-006-002

On a resistor with four colour bands, what do the first three colour bands indicate?

A.
The value of the resistor in ohms (0% chose this)
B.
The resistance tolerance in percent (0% chose this)
C.
The resistance material (0% chose this)
D.
The power rating in watts (0% chose this)

B-004-006-003

On a resistor with four colour bands, what does the fourth colour band indicate?

A.
The value of the resistor in ohms (0% chose this)
B.
The power rating in watts (0% chose this)
C.
The resistance material (0% chose this)
D.
The resistance tolerance in percent (0% chose this)

B-004-006-004

What are the possible values of a 100-ohm resistor with a 10% tolerance?

A.
10 ohms to 100 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
90 ohms to 100 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
80 ohms to 120 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
90 ohms to 110 ohms (0% chose this)

B-004-006-005

On resistors with four colour bands, which colour band differentiates two resistors rated at 33 ohms and 39 ohms respectively?

A.
Third (0% chose this)
B.
First (0% chose this)
C.
Fourth (0% chose this)
D.
Second (0% chose this)

B-004-006-006

Out of the list of resistor tolerances below, which has the highest precision?

A.
0.1% (0% chose this)
B.
10% (0% chose this)
C.
5% (0% chose this)
D.
20% (0% chose this)

B-004-006-007

Out of the list of resistor tolerances below, which has the lowest precision?

A.
5% (0% chose this)
B.
0.1% (0% chose this)
C.
20% (0% chose this)
D.
10% (0% chose this)

B-004-006-008

How does the resistance of a resistor change with rising ambient temperature?

A.
It depends on its temperature coefficient (0% chose this)
B.
It decreases (0% chose this)
C.
It remains constant (0% chose this)
D.
It increases (0% chose this)

B-004-006-009

Which resistor rating is specified as a given fraction per degree Celsius?

A.
Power rating (0% chose this)
B.
Temperature coefficient (0% chose this)
C.
Tolerance (0% chose this)
D.
Ohmic value (0% chose this)

B-004-006-010

On resistors with four colour bands, which colour band differentiates two resistors rated at 120 ohms and 1200 ohms respectively?

A.
Fourth (0% chose this)
B.
First (0% chose this)
C.
Second (0% chose this)
D.
Third (0% chose this)

B-004-006-011

Given that red=2, violet=7 and yellow=4, what is the nominal value of a resistor whose colour code reads "red," "violet" and "yellow"?

A.
270 kilohms (0% chose this)
B.
27 megohms (0% chose this)
C.
274 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
72 kilohms (0% chose this)

B-005-001-001

If a dial marked in megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz, what would it show if it were marked in kilohertz?

A.
3 525 000 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
352.5 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
3 525 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
35.25 kHz (0% chose this)

B-005-001-002

If an ammeter marked in amperes is used to measure a 3000-milliampere current, what reading would it show?

A.
3 amperes (0% chose this)
B.
0.003 amperes (0% chose this)
C.
0.03 amperes (0% chose this)
D.
0.3 amperes (0% chose this)

B-005-001-003

How many hertz is 1 kHz?

A.
1 000 Hz (0% chose this)
B.
10 Hz (0% chose this)
C.
100 Hz (0% chose this)
D.
10 000 Hz (0% chose this)

B-005-001-004

How many microfarads is 1 000 000 picofarads?

A.
0.001 microfarads (0% chose this)
B.
1 microfarad (0% chose this)
C.
0.01 microfarads (0% chose this)
D.
10 microfarads (0% chose this)

B-005-001-005

If you have a hand-held transceiver that puts out 500 milliwatts, how many watts would this be?

A.
5 watts (0% chose this)
B.
0.5 watts (0% chose this)
C.
0.05 watts (0% chose this)
D.
50 watts (0% chose this)

B-005-001-006

A kilohm is:

A.
0.1 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
0.001 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
10 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
1000 ohms (0% chose this)

B-005-001-007

How many megahertz is 7040 kHz?

A.
70.40 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
0.740 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
0.074 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
7.040 MHz (0% chose this)

B-005-001-008

A current of one quarter ampere may be written as:

A.
250 microamperes (0% chose this)
B.
0.25 milliamperes (0% chose this)
C.
250 milliamperes (0% chose this)
D.
2.5 milliamperes (0% chose this)

B-005-001-009

How many millivolts equal two volts?

A.
0.000 002 mV (0% chose this)
B.
0.002 mV (0% chose this)
C.
2 000 mV (0% chose this)
D.
2 000 000 mV (0% chose this)

B-005-001-010

How can a frequency in megahertz be stated in gigahertz?

A.
Divide by 1 000 (0% chose this)
B.
Multiply by 1 000 (0% chose this)
C.
Divide by 1 000 000 (0% chose this)
D.
Multiply by 1 000 000 (0% chose this)

B-005-001-011

How many millihenries equal 10 000 microhenries?

A.
1000 millihenries (0% chose this)
B.
100 millihenries (0% chose this)
C.
1 millihenry (0% chose this)
D.
10 millihenries (0% chose this)

B-005-002-001

Which of these groups lists three good electrical conductors?

A.
Copper, aluminum and paper (0% chose this)
B.
Gold, silver and wood (0% chose this)
C.
Copper, gold and mica (0% chose this)
D.
Gold, silver and aluminum (0% chose this)

B-005-002-002

Which of these groups lists three good electrical insulators?

A.
Wood, copper and porcelain (0% chose this)
B.
Plastic, wood and carbon (0% chose this)
C.
Teflon, mica and aluminum (0% chose this)
D.
Glass, air and porcelain (0% chose this)

B-005-002-003

What do we call the flow of electric charge in a circuit?

A.
Current (0% chose this)
B.
Voltage (0% chose this)
C.
Resistance (0% chose this)
D.
Capacitance (0% chose this)

B-005-002-004

What is the best conductor among the following materials?

A.
Copper (0% chose this)
B.
Carbon (0% chose this)
C.
Aluminum (0% chose this)
D.
Silicon (0% chose this)

B-005-002-005

Which of these types of materials readily allows the flow of electric current?

A.
Semiconductor (0% chose this)
B.
Dielectric (0% chose this)
C.
Insulator (0% chose this)
D.
Conductor (0% chose this)

B-005-002-006

What electrical property causes an object to conduct electricity very well?

A.
Low resistance (0% chose this)
B.
Low capacitance (0% chose this)
C.
Low reluctance (0% chose this)
D.
Low admittance (0% chose this)

B-005-002-007

The letter "R" is the symbol for:

A.
resistance (0% chose this)
B.
reluctance (0% chose this)
C.
impedance (0% chose this)
D.
reactance (0% chose this)

B-005-002-008

What is the inverse of resistance?

A.
Reactance (0% chose this)
B.
Reluctance (0% chose this)
C.
Conductance (0% chose this)
D.
Permeability (0% chose this)

B-005-002-009

What is a voltage drop?

A.
The loss of voltage caused by the flow of current through a circuit (0% chose this)
B.
Any point in a circuit that has zero voltage (0% chose this)
C.
The difference in voltage at the output terminals of a transformer (0% chose this)
D.
The voltage output of a step-down transformer (0% chose this)

B-005-002-010

The resistance of a conductor changes with:

A.
temperature (0% chose this)
B.
voltage (0% chose this)
C.
current (0% chose this)
D.
humidity (0% chose this)

B-005-002-011

Which term describes the direction of current in a DC circuit?

A.
Phase (0% chose this)
B.
Polarity (0% chose this)
C.
Polarization (0% chose this)
D.
Directivity (0% chose this)

B-005-003-001

What term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used?

A.
Resistance (0% chose this)
B.
Voltage (0% chose this)
C.
Current (0% chose this)
D.
Power (0% chose this)

B-005-003-002

If you have light bulbs marked 40 watts, 50 watts, 60 watts and 100 watts, which one will consume electrical energy at the highest rate?

A.
The 40-watt bulb (0% chose this)
B.
The 60-watt bulb (0% chose this)
C.
The 100-watt bulb (0% chose this)
D.
The 50-watt bulb (0% chose this)

B-005-003-003

What is the basic unit of electrical power?

A.
The watt (0% chose this)
B.
The ohm (0% chose this)
C.
The ampere (0% chose this)
D.
The volt (0% chose this)

B-005-003-004

A circuit consists of a battery and load resistor. What circuit malfunction would cause no current to be drawn from the battery?

A.
A reactive circuit (0% chose this)
B.
A short circuit (0% chose this)
C.
An open circuit (0% chose this)
D.
A closed circuit (0% chose this)

B-005-003-005

Which electrical circuit draws too much current?

A.
A short circuit (0% chose this)
B.
An open circuit (0% chose this)
C.
A dead circuit (0% chose this)
D.
A closed circuit (0% chose this)

B-005-003-006

Power is expressed in:

A.
ohms (0% chose this)
B.
watts (0% chose this)
C.
volts (0% chose this)
D.
amperes (0% chose this)

B-005-003-007

Which of the following two quantities should be multiplied together to find power?

A.
Voltage and current (0% chose this)
B.
Voltage and inductance (0% chose this)
C.
Inductance and capacitance (0% chose this)
D.
Resistance and capacitance (0% chose this)

B-005-003-008

Which two electrical units multiplied together give the unit "watts"?

A.
Volts and farads (0% chose this)
B.
Amperes and henries (0% chose this)
C.
Farads and henries (0% chose this)
D.
Volts and amperes (0% chose this)

B-005-003-009

A resistor in a circuit becomes very hot and starts to burn. This is because the resistor is dissipating too much:

A.
resistance (0% chose this)
B.
power (0% chose this)
C.
current (0% chose this)
D.
voltage (0% chose this)

B-005-003-010

When speaking of electrical circuits, what does the term "continuity" mean?

A.
The circuit is supplied with backup power (0% chose this)
B.
The circuit is designed for direct current (DC) (0% chose this)
C.
The circuit is rated for continuous operation (0% chose this)
D.
The circuit is a closed circuit (0% chose this)

B-005-003-011

You have acquired a transceiver and connected it to a power supply. When you switch on the power supply, its fuse blows immediately. What circuit malfunction caused the fuse to blow?

A.
A short circuit (0% chose this)
B.
An open circuit (0% chose this)
C.
A resonant circuit (0% chose this)
D.
A closed circuit (0% chose this)

B-005-004-001

What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows through it?

A.
1.5 volts (0% chose this)
B.
0.25 volts (0% chose this)
C.
2.5 volts (0% chose this)
D.
1.0 volts (0% chose this)

B-005-004-002

How is the current in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage and resistance are known?

A.
Current equals resistance multiplied by voltage (0% chose this)
B.
Current equals resistance divided by voltage (0% chose this)
C.
Current equals voltage divided by resistance (0% chose this)
D.
Current equals power divided by voltage (0% chose this)

B-005-004-003

How is the resistance in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage and current are known?

A.
Resistance equals voltage divided by current (0% chose this)
B.
Resistance equals current divided by voltage (0% chose this)
C.
Resistance equals power divided by voltage (0% chose this)
D.
Resistance equals current multiplied by voltage (0% chose this)

B-005-004-004

How is the voltage in a DC circuit calculated when the current and resistance are known?

A.
Voltage equals power divided by current (0% chose this)
B.
Voltage equals current multiplied by resistance (0% chose this)
C.
Voltage equals resistance divided by current (0% chose this)
D.
Voltage equals current divided by resistance (0% chose this)

B-005-004-005

What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 0.25 amperes from a 12-volt source?

A.
12 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
3 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
0.25 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
48 ohms (0% chose this)

B-005-004-006

What value of resistance is required to drop 9 volts with a current of 10 milliamperes?

A.
90 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
9000 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
900 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
9 ohms (0% chose this)

B-005-004-007

If the current flowing through a 50-ohm resistor is 0.44 amperes, what voltage would you measure across the resistor?

A.
22 volts (0% chose this)
B.
222 volts (0% chose this)
C.
0.22 volts (0% chose this)
D.
2.2 volts (0% chose this)

B-005-004-008

A 30-ohm resistor is connected across a 6-volt battery. What current does it draw?

A.
2 amperes (0% chose this)
B.
0.5 amperes (0% chose this)
C.
0.005 amperes (0% chose this)
D.
0.2 amperes (0% chose this)

B-005-004-009

What voltage is needed to supply a current of 200 milliamperes to operate a relay that has a resistance of 25 ohms?

A.
8 volts (0% chose this)
B.
50 volts (0% chose this)
C.
0.5 volts (0% chose this)
D.
5 volts (0% chose this)

B-005-004-010

What formula calculates the resistance of a circuit when the voltage and current are known?

A.
R = E / I (0% chose this)
B.
R = E x I (0% chose this)
C.
R = E squared / I (0% chose this)
D.
R = I / E (0% chose this)

B-005-004-011

What is the resistance of a circuit if it draws 300 milliamperes from a 3-volt battery?

A.
10 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
5 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
3 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
9 ohms (0% chose this)

B-005-005-001

In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several branch resistors, how is the total current related to the current in the branch resistors?

A.
It equals the sum of the branch current through each resistor (0% chose this)
B.
It equals the average of the branch current through each resistor (0% chose this)
C.
It decreases as more parallel resistors are added to the circuit (0% chose this)
D.
It is the sum of each resistor's voltage drop multiplied by the total number of resistors (0% chose this)

B-005-005-002

You connect four 100-ohm resistors in parallel across a 12-volt battery. How many milliamperes of current are drawn from the battery?

A.
48 mA (0% chose this)
B.
240 mA (0% chose this)
C.
120 mA (0% chose this)
D.
480 mA (0% chose this)

B-005-005-003

Several resistors of various values are connected in parallel. How does the total resistance of the combination compare to the individual resistors?

A.
It is greater than the largest resistor (0% chose this)
B.
It equals the average of the resistors (0% chose this)
C.
It equals the square root of the sum of the resistors (0% chose this)
D.
It is less than the smallest resistor (0% chose this)

B-005-005-004

Two 1000-ohm resistors are connected in parallel across a 12-volt battery. What is the total current?

A.
12 milliamperes (0% chose this)
B.
24 milliamperes (0% chose this)
C.
60 milliamperes (0% chose this)
D.
120 milliamperes (0% chose this)

B-005-005-005

The total resistance of resistors connected in series is:

A.
less than the resistance of any one resistor (0% chose this)
B.
greater than the resistance of any one resistor (0% chose this)
C.
equal to the lowest resistance present (0% chose this)
D.
equal to the highest resistance present (0% chose this)

B-005-005-006

What is the total resistance of five 10-ohm resistors in series?

A.
2 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
5 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
50 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
10 ohms (0% chose this)

B-005-005-007

Which of these series combination of resistors would replace a single 120-ohm resistor?

A.
Six 22-ohm resistors (0% chose this)
B.
Five 24-ohm resistors (0% chose this)
C.
Two 240-ohm resistors (0% chose this)
D.
Five 100-ohm resistors (0% chose this)

B-005-005-008

If ten resistors of equal value "R" are wired in parallel, what formula yields the total resistance?

A.
10 / R (0% chose this)
B.
R / 10 (0% chose this)
C.
10 x R (0% chose this)
D.
10 + R (0% chose this)

B-005-005-009

What is the total resistance of four 68-ohm resistors wired in parallel?

A.
12 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
34 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
17 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
272 ohms (0% chose this)

B-005-005-010

Two resistors are in parallel. Resistor "A" carries twice the current of resistor "B," which means that:

A.
"B" has half the resistance of "A" (0% chose this)
B.
"A" has half the resistance of "B" (0% chose this)
C.
the voltage across "A" is twice that across "B" (0% chose this)
D.
the voltage across "B" is twice that across "A" (0% chose this)

B-005-005-011

The total current in a parallel circuit is equal to the:

A.
current in any one of the parallel branches (0% chose this)
B.
source voltage divided by the value of one of the resistive elements (0% chose this)
C.
source voltage divided by the sum of the resistive elements (0% chose this)
D.
sum of the currents through all the parallel branches (0% chose this)

B-005-006-001

Why would a large size resistor be used instead of a smaller one of the same resistance?

A.
For greater power dissipation (0% chose this)
B.
For better response time (0% chose this)
C.
For higher conductance (0% chose this)
D.
For less impedance in the circuit (0% chose this)

B-005-006-002

A load requires 12 volts DC at 5 amperes. What is the minimum required power transformer rating?

A.
17 watts (0% chose this)
B.
60 watts (0% chose this)
C.
2.4 watts (0% chose this)
D.
6 watts (0% chose this)

B-005-006-003

What is the DC input power of a transmitter operating at 12 volts and drawing 500 milliamperes?

A.
24 watts (0% chose this)
B.
600 watts (0% chose this)
C.
6 watts (0% chose this)
D.
60 watts (0% chose this)

B-005-006-004

When two 500-ohm 1-watt resistors are connected in series, the maximum total power that can be dissipated by the resistors is:

A.
4 watts (0% chose this)
B.
1 watt (0% chose this)
C.
0.5 watts (0% chose this)
D.
2 watts (0% chose this)

B-005-006-005

When two 500-ohm 1-watt resistors are connected in parallel, they can dissipate a maximum total power of:

A.
4 watts (0% chose this)
B.
2 watts (0% chose this)
C.
0.5 watts (0% chose this)
D.
1 watt (0% chose this)

B-005-006-006

If the voltage applied to two resistors in series is doubled, how much will the total power change?

A.
Decrease to half (0% chose this)
B.
Decrease to one quarter (0% chose this)
C.
Double (0% chose this)
D.
Increase four times (0% chose this)

B-005-006-007

Which of these combinations of resistors could make up a 50-ohm dummy load capable of safely dissipating 5 watts?

A.
Ten quarter-watt 500-ohm resistors in parallel (0% chose this)
B.
Two 2-watt 25-ohm resistors in series (0% chose this)
C.
Four 2-watt 200-ohm resistors in parallel (0% chose this)
D.
Two 5-watt 100-ohm resistors in series (0% chose this)

B-005-006-008

How much current is drawn by a 12-volt, 30-watt light bulb?

A.
0.4 amperes (0% chose this)
B.
2.5 amperes (0% chose this)
C.
4.8 amperes (0% chose this)
D.
18 amperes (0% chose this)

B-005-006-009

What is the power consumption of two 10-ohm resistors connected in series with a 10-volt battery?

A.
20 watts (0% chose this)
B.
5 watts (0% chose this)
C.
2 watts (0% chose this)
D.
0.5 watts (0% chose this)

B-005-006-010

What is the advantage of replacing a 50-ohm resistor with a parallel combination of two 100-ohm resistors of the same power rating?

A.
Same resistance but lesser power rating (0% chose this)
B.
Lesser resistance and same power rating (0% chose this)
C.
Greater resistance and same power rating (0% chose this)
D.
Same resistance but greater power rating (0% chose this)

B-005-006-011

Resistor wattage ratings are:

A.
determined by heat dissipation qualities (0% chose this)
B.
variable in steps of one hundred (0% chose this)
C.
calculated according to physical size and tolerance rating (0% chose this)
D.
expressed in joules (0% chose this)

B-005-007-001

What is the term for the number of times per second an alternating current completes a positive to negative cycle?

A.
Frequency (0% chose this)
B.
Speed (0% chose this)
C.
Pulse rate (0% chose this)
D.
Phase (0% chose this)

B-005-007-002

What approximate range of frequencies can most humans hear?

A.
20 Hz to 20 000 Hz (0% chose this)
B.
300 Hz to 3 000 Hz (0% chose this)
C.
20 Hz to 30 000 Hz (0% chose this)
D.
200 Hz to 200 000 Hz (0% chose this)

B-005-007-003

Why is the range of frequencies from 20 Hz to 20 kHz termed audio frequencies?

A.
Because sound can be in this range but it's too low for RF signals (0% chose this)
B.
Because RF signals in this range can be directly converted to sound (0% chose this)
C.
Because this is the speaker response range of a modern SSB receiver (0% chose this)
D.
Because the human ear can sense sound in this range (0% chose this)

B-005-007-004

Electrical energy at a frequency of 7125 kHz is in what frequency range?

A.
Very High Frequency (VHF) (0% chose this)
B.
Low Frequency (LF) (0% chose this)
C.
High Frequency (HF) (0% chose this)
D.
Medium frequency (MF) (0% chose this)

B-005-007-005

What is the name for the distance an AC signal travels during one complete cycle?

A.
Wave speed (0% chose this)
B.
Wave spread (0% chose this)
C.
Waveform (0% chose this)
D.
Wavelength (0% chose this)

B-005-007-006

What happens to a signal's wavelength as its frequency increases?

A.
It decreases (0% chose this)
B.
It decreases proportionally to frequency squared (0% chose this)
C.
It increases proportionally to frequency squared (0% chose this)
D.
It increases (0% chose this)

B-005-007-007

What happens to a signal's frequency as its wavelength gets shorter?

A.
It increases proportionally to frequency squared (0% chose this)
B.
It increases (0% chose this)
C.
It decreases proportionally to frequency squared (0% chose this)
D.
It decreases (0% chose this)

B-005-007-008

What does 60 hertz (Hz) mean?

A.
60 metres per second (0% chose this)
B.
60 cycles per second (0% chose this)
C.
6000 cycles per second (0% chose this)
D.
6000 metres per second (0% chose this)

B-005-007-009

Two AC waveforms have the same frequency, but their cycles do not begin at the same instant. What term describes that timing difference?

A.
Delta (0% chose this)
B.
Offset (0% chose this)
C.
Phase (0% chose this)
D.
Polarity (0% chose this)

B-005-007-010

What is the shape of the waveform of the electricity supplied from a household receptacle?

A.
Complex wave (0% chose this)
B.
Modified square wave (0% chose this)
C.
Pulse wave (0% chose this)
D.
Sine wave (sinusoidal) (0% chose this)

B-005-007-011

A signal is composed of a fundamental frequency of 2 kHz and another of 4 kHz. What name is given to the 4 kHz signal?

A.
Harmonic (0% chose this)
B.
Alias (0% chose this)
C.
Intermodulation (0% chose this)
D.
Sub-harmonic (0% chose this)

B-005-008-001

A two-times increase in power results in a change of how many dB?

A.
3 dB higher (0% chose this)
B.
6 dB higher (0% chose this)
C.
1 dB higher (0% chose this)
D.
12 dB higher (0% chose this)

B-005-008-002

What change in transmitter power results in a 3 dB decrease?

A.
Divide the original power by 4 (0% chose this)
B.
Divide the original power by 3 (0% chose this)
C.
Divide the original power by 2 (0% chose this)
D.
Divide the original power by 1.5 (0% chose this)

B-005-008-003

What change in transmitter power results in a 6 dB increase?

A.
Multiply the original power by 4 (0% chose this)
B.
Multiply the original power by 2 (0% chose this)
C.
Multiply the original power by 3 (0% chose this)
D.
Multiply the original power by 1.5 (0% chose this)

B-005-008-004

If a signal transmitted with a power of 200 watts is received with an S-meter reading of "10 dB over S9," what would be the new reading if power was reduced to 20 watts?

A.
S9 plus 3 dB (0% chose this)
B.
S9 plus 5 dB (0% chose this)
C.
S9 (0% chose this)
D.
S9 minus 10 dB (0% chose this)

B-005-008-005

If a signal transmitted with a power of 150 watts is received with an S-meter reading of "20 dB over S9," what would be the new reading if power was reduced to 15 watts?

A.
S9 plus 10 dB (0% chose this)
B.
S9 plus 3 dB (0% chose this)
C.
S9 plus 5 dB (0% chose this)
D.
S9 (0% chose this)

B-005-008-006

What is the "decibel" used for?

A.
To describe a waveform on an oscilloscope (0% chose this)
B.
To measure the ratio of two signals (0% chose this)
C.
To measure a single side band signal (0% chose this)
D.
To describe very high frequency radio waves (0% chose this)

B-005-008-007

The power output from a transmitter increases from 1 watt to 2 watts. How many decibels does that increase represent?

A.
6 dB (0% chose this)
B.
3 dB (0% chose this)
C.
10 dB (0% chose this)
D.
1 dB (0% chose this)

B-005-008-008

The power of a transmitter is increased from 5 watts to 50 watts by a linear amplifier. The power gain, expressed in dB, is:

A.
20 dB (0% chose this)
B.
30 dB (0% chose this)
C.
10 dB (0% chose this)
D.
45 dB (0% chose this)

B-005-008-009

You add a 9 dB gain amplifier to your 2-watt hand-held. What is the power output of the combination?

A.
16 watts (0% chose this)
B.
20 watts (0% chose this)
C.
11 watts (0% chose this)
D.
18 watts (0% chose this)

B-005-008-010

The power of your transmitter is 100 watts and your transmission line introduces a loss of 6 dB. How much power is delivered to the antenna?

A.
33 watts (0% chose this)
B.
50 watts (0% chose this)
C.
25 watts (0% chose this)
D.
17 watts (0% chose this)

B-005-008-011

A local amateur radio operator reports receiving your 100-watt 2-metre simplex transmission with an S-meter reading of "30 dB over S9." What power could you use to reduce that reading to S9?

A.
10 W (0% chose this)
B.
0.1 W (0% chose this)
C.
1 W (0% chose this)
D.
33.3 W (0% chose this)

B-005-009-001

If two equal-value inductors are connected in series, what is their total inductance?

A.
Twice the value of one inductor (0% chose this)
B.
The value of one inductor times 4 (0% chose this)
C.
The value of one inductor divided by 4 (0% chose this)
D.
Half the value of one inductor (0% chose this)

B-005-009-002

If two equal-value inductors are connected in parallel, what is their total inductance?

A.
Twice the value of one inductor (0% chose this)
B.
The value of one inductor times 4 (0% chose this)
C.
The value of one inductor divided by 4 (0% chose this)
D.
Half the value of one inductor (0% chose this)

B-005-009-003

If two equal-value capacitors are connected in series, what is their total capacitance?

A.
Half the value of either capacitor (0% chose this)
B.
The value of one capacitor times 4 (0% chose this)
C.
Twice the value of one capacitor (0% chose this)
D.
The value of one capacitor divided by 4 (0% chose this)

B-005-009-004

If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is their total capacitance?

A.
The value of one capacitor times 4 (0% chose this)
B.
Twice the value of one capacitor (0% chose this)
C.
Half the value of either capacitor (0% chose this)
D.
The value of one capacitor divided by 4 (0% chose this)

B-005-009-005

You are constructing an air-core inductor using a coil of wire. What parameters determine its inductance?

A.
Coil diameter, coil orientation and number of turns of wire (0% chose this)
B.
Type of wire, coil length and number of turns of wire (0% chose this)
C.
Coil diameter, coil length and number of turns of wire (0% chose this)
D.
Coil diameter, coil length and operating frequency (0% chose this)

B-005-009-006

A capacitor is made of two identical metal plates separated by air. What parameters determine its capacitance?

A.
Surface area of the plates and spacing between the plates (0% chose this)
B.
Operating frequency and spacing between the plates (0% chose this)
C.
Type of metal and spacing between the plates (0% chose this)
D.
Surface area of the plates and applied voltage (0% chose this)

B-005-009-007

What precaution must you take when using polarized electrolytic capacitors?

A.
Use them exclusively at radio frequencies (0% chose this)
B.
Never apply a reverse voltage (0% chose this)
C.
Do not use them in series combinations (0% chose this)
D.
Do not parallel with capacitors other than electrolytics (0% chose this)

B-005-009-008

If you wire two 12-millihenry chokes in series, what is the inductance of the combination?

A.
24 millihenries (0% chose this)
B.
48 millihenries (0% chose this)
C.
3 millihenries (0% chose this)
D.
6 millihenries (0% chose this)

B-005-009-009

If you wire two 20-millihenry inductors in parallel, what is the inductance of the combination?

A.
5 millihenries (0% chose this)
B.
10 millihenries (0% chose this)
C.
80 millihenries (0% chose this)
D.
40 millihenries (0% chose this)

B-005-009-010

If you wire two 20-microfarad capacitors in series, what is the capacity of the combination?

A.
80 microfarads (0% chose this)
B.
5 microfarads (0% chose this)
C.
40 microfarads (0% chose this)
D.
10 microfarads (0% chose this)

B-005-009-011

If you wire two 24-microfarad capacitors in parallel, what is the capacity of the combination?

A.
4 microfarads (0% chose this)
B.
12 microfarads (0% chose this)
C.
96 microfarads (0% chose this)
D.
48 microfarads (0% chose this)

B-005-010-001

How does an inductor react to AC?

A.
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this)
B.
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this)
C.
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this)
D.
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this)

B-005-010-002

How does a capacitor react to AC?

A.
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this)
B.
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this)
C.
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this)
D.
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this)

B-005-010-003

The reactance of capacitors increases as:

A.
applied voltage increases (0% chose this)
B.
applied voltage decreases (0% chose this)
C.
frequency increases (0% chose this)
D.
frequency decreases (0% chose this)

B-005-010-004

What is the term for the opposition to alternating current caused by the combined effect of reactance and resistance?

A.
Admittance (0% chose this)
B.
Conductance (0% chose this)
C.
Impedance (0% chose this)
D.
Reluctance (0% chose this)

B-005-010-005

What term equals the ratio of AC voltage to AC current in a system or circuit?

A.
Conductance (0% chose this)
B.
Resistance (0% chose this)
C.
Impedance (0% chose this)
D.
Reactance (0% chose this)

B-005-010-006

What circuit parameter change causes an inductor's reactance to increase?

A.
A decrease in frequency (0% chose this)
B.
An increase in current (0% chose this)
C.
An increase in voltage (0% chose this)
D.
An increase in frequency (0% chose this)

B-005-010-007

What property allows a coil wound on a ferrite core to mitigate the effects of an offending radio signal?

A.
High reactance at radio frequencies (0% chose this)
B.
Low reactance at audio frequencies (0% chose this)
C.
High reactance at audio frequencies (0% chose this)
D.
Low reactance at radio frequencies (0% chose this)

B-005-010-008

What property allows a bypass capacitor in an audio circuit to divert an interfering RF signal?

A.
High reactance at radio frequencies (0% chose this)
B.
Low reactance at audio frequencies (0% chose this)
C.
High reactance at audio frequencies (0% chose this)
D.
Low reactance at radio frequencies (0% chose this)

B-005-010-009

What property allows an RF bypass capacitor to have little effect on an audio circuit?

A.
High reactance at radio frequencies (0% chose this)
B.
Low reactance at audio frequencies (0% chose this)
C.
Low reactance at radio frequencies (0% chose this)
D.
High reactance at audio frequencies (0% chose this)

B-005-010-010

What property allows an RF choke coil to have little effect on signals meant to flow through the coil?

A.
Low reactance at high frequencies (0% chose this)
B.
Low reactance at low frequencies (0% chose this)
C.
High reactance at high frequencies (0% chose this)
D.
High reactance at low frequencies (0% chose this)

B-005-010-011

In general, the reactance of inductors increases with:

A.
decreasing applied voltage (0% chose this)
B.
increasing applied voltage (0% chose this)
C.
decreasing AC frequency (0% chose this)
D.
increasing AC frequency (0% chose this)

B-005-011-001

A transformer with a 120-volt primary voltage supplies 250 watts to a transmitter. Neglecting losses, what is the approximate primary current?

A.
3.1 amperes (0% chose this)
B.
2.1 amperes (0% chose this)
C.
0.48 amperes (0% chose this)
D.
1.4 amperes (0% chose this)

B-005-011-002

How can a transformer with two windings change impedance?

A.
By matching winding resistance to impedance (0% chose this)
B.
By allowing the difference to be dissipated in core losses (0% chose this)
C.
By carrying different voltages and currents in each winding (0% chose this)
D.
By using the correct magnetic coupling between windings (0% chose this)

B-005-011-003

A transformer with a single 12-volt secondary draws 0.5 amperes through its 120-volt primary. Assuming no losses, what current is drawn from the secondary?

A.
2.5 amperes (0% chose this)
B.
5 amperes (0% chose this)
C.
25 amperes (0% chose this)
D.
50 amperes (0% chose this)

B-005-011-004

The primary winding of a transformer has 250 turns, and the secondary has 500 turns. If the input voltage is 120 volts, what is the secondary voltage?

A.
240 V (0% chose this)
B.
60 V (0% chose this)
C.
620 V (0% chose this)
D.
480 V (0% chose this)

B-005-011-005

The strength of the magnetic field around a conductor in air is:

A.
directly proportional to the current in the conductor (0% chose this)
B.
inversely proportional to the diameter of the conductor (0% chose this)
C.
inversely proportional to the voltage on the conductor (0% chose this)
D.
directly proportional to the diameter of the conductor (0% chose this)

B-005-011-006

Maximum induced voltage in a coil occurs when:

A.
current is going through its greatest rate of change (0% chose this)
B.
current is going through its least rate of change (0% chose this)
C.
the magnetic field around the coil is not changing (0% chose this)
D.
the current through the coil is DC (0% chose this)

B-005-011-007

A transformer primary winding consumes 10 watts. Neglecting losses, if the secondary voltage is 5 volts, what is the secondary current?

A.
5 amperes (0% chose this)
B.
1 ampere (0% chose this)
C.
0.5 amperes (0% chose this)
D.
2 amperes (0% chose this)

B-005-011-008

A step-up transformer with a primary to secondary turns ratio of 1:5 delivers 50 milliamperes to a load. Assuming 100% efficiency, what is the primary current?

A.
0.25 mA (0% chose this)
B.
250 mA (0% chose this)
C.
10 mA (0% chose this)
D.
2500 mA (0% chose this)

B-005-011-009

When is coupling (induction) between two wires maximum?

A.
When the wires are separated and at right angles (0% chose this)
B.
When the wires are close and parallel (0% chose this)
C.
When the wires are close and at right angles (0% chose this)
D.
When the wires are separated and parallel (0% chose this)

B-005-011-010

A permanent magnet would most likely be made from:

A.
copper (0% chose this)
B.
steel (0% chose this)
C.
aluminum (0% chose this)
D.
brass (0% chose this)

B-005-011-011

What confirms the fact that the transfer of energy from the primary to the secondary of a transformer is not perfect?

A.
Noisy operation (0% chose this)
B.
Large secondary current (0% chose this)
C.
High primary voltage (0% chose this)
D.
Warm iron laminations (0% chose this)

B-005-012-001

Resonance is the condition that exists when:

A.
inductive reactance and capacitive reactance are equal (0% chose this)
B.
resistance is equal to the reactance (0% chose this)
C.
inductive reactance is the only opposition in the circuit (0% chose this)
D.
the circuit contains no resistance (0% chose this)

B-005-012-002

At resonance, what impedance does a parallel tuned circuit exhibit?

A.
Impedance equal to resistance of the circuit (0% chose this)
B.
Low impedance (0% chose this)
C.
High impedance (0% chose this)
D.
Impedance equal to reactance of the circuit (0% chose this)

B-005-012-003

While the resonant frequency of a tuned circuit is a single frequency, the effect of resonance is significant over a certain range of frequencies. What is this range called?

A.
Response curve (0% chose this)
B.
Shape factor (0% chose this)
C.
Bandwidth (0% chose this)
D.
Quality factor (0% chose this)

B-005-012-004

What two components are required to form a tuned circuit?

A.
Diode and transistor (0% chose this)
B.
Resistor and transistor (0% chose this)
C.
Inductor and capacitor (0% chose this)
D.
Capacitor and resistor (0% chose this)

B-005-012-005

When a parallel coil-capacitor combination is supplied with AC of different frequencies, there will be one frequency where the impedance will be highest. This is the:

A.
inductive frequency (0% chose this)
B.
reactive frequency (0% chose this)
C.
resonant frequency (0% chose this)
D.
maximum frequency (0% chose this)

B-005-012-006

In a parallel-resonant circuit at resonance, the circuit has:

A.
low impedance (0% chose this)
B.
high impedance (0% chose this)
C.
high mutual inductance (0% chose this)
D.
low mutual inductance (0% chose this)

B-005-012-007

In a series resonant circuit at resonance, the circuit has:

A.
high mutual inductance (0% chose this)
B.
low mutual inductance (0% chose this)
C.
low impedance (0% chose this)
D.
high impedance (0% chose this)

B-005-012-008

A coil and an air-spaced capacitor are arranged to form a resonant circuit. The resonant frequency will remain the same if we:

A.
wind more turns on the coil (0% chose this)
B.
increase the area of plates in the capacitor (0% chose this)
C.
insert Mylar sheets between the plates of the capacitor (0% chose this)
D.
add a resistor to the circuit (0% chose this)

B-005-012-009

Resonant circuits in a receiver are used to:

A.
filter direct current (0% chose this)
B.
adjust voltage levels (0% chose this)
C.
amplify audio signals (0% chose this)
D.
select the desired signal frequencies (0% chose this)

B-005-012-010

Resonance is the condition that exists when:

A.
the circuit contains no resistance (0% chose this)
B.
inductive reactance is the only opposition in the circuit (0% chose this)
C.
resistance is equal to the reactance (0% chose this)
D.
inductive reactance and capacitive reactance are equal and opposite in sign (0% chose this)

B-005-012-011

What happens to current when a series RLC circuit is tuned to the frequency of the source?

A.
It reaches minimum (0% chose this)
B.
It reaches maximum (0% chose this)
C.
It is limited by inductive reactance (0% chose this)
D.
It is limited by capacitive reactance (0% chose this)

B-005-013-001

How is a voltmeter usually connected to a circuit under test?

A.
In series with the circuit (0% chose this)
B.
In phase with the circuit (0% chose this)
C.
In parallel with the circuit (0% chose this)
D.
In quadrature with the circuit (0% chose this)

B-005-013-002

How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit under test?

A.
In series with the circuit (0% chose this)
B.
In parallel with the circuit (0% chose this)
C.
In phase with the circuit (0% chose this)
D.
In quadrature with the circuit (0% chose this)

B-005-013-003

What does a multimeter measure?

A.
SWR and power (0% chose this)
B.
Voltage, current and resistance (0% chose this)
C.
Resistance, capacitance and inductance (0% chose this)
D.
Resistance and reactance (0% chose this)

B-005-013-004

What is the correct instrument to measure the final power amplifier current?

A.
A voltmeter (0% chose this)
B.
An ohmmeter (0% chose this)
C.
An ammeter (0% chose this)
D.
A wattmeter (0% chose this)

B-005-013-005

When measuring the voltage across a circuit component, what does the voltmeter appear to be in the circuit?

A.
A perfect conductor (0% chose this)
B.
A low value resistance (0% chose this)
C.
A high value resistance (0% chose this)
D.
An open circuit (0% chose this)

B-005-013-006

When measuring current drawn from a DC power supply, what does the ammeter placed in the circuit appear as?

A.
A perfect conductor (0% chose this)
B.
An additional load (0% chose this)
C.
A low value resistance (0% chose this)
D.
A high value resistance (0% chose this)

B-005-013-007

What instrument can provide a direct measurement of power at the output of a transmitter?

A.
Ammeter (0% chose this)
B.
Field-strength meter (0% chose this)
C.
RF wattmeter (0% chose this)
D.
Wavemeter (0% chose this)

B-005-013-008

Potential difference is measured by means of:

A.
an ohmmeter (0% chose this)
B.
a wattmeter (0% chose this)
C.
an ammeter (0% chose this)
D.
a voltmeter (0% chose this)

B-005-013-009

What instrument is used to measure electrical current?

A.
Wattmeter (0% chose this)
B.
Wavemeter (0% chose this)
C.
Voltmeter (0% chose this)
D.
Ammeter (0% chose this)

B-005-013-010

What term describes the ability of an instrument to display values that are true to reality?

A.
Stability (0% chose this)
B.
Accuracy (0% chose this)
C.
Resolution (0% chose this)
D.
Precision (0% chose this)

B-006-001-001

What connects your transceiver to your antenna?

A.
A radial wire (0% chose this)
B.
A transmission line (0% chose this)
C.
A ground wire (0% chose this)
D.
A counterpoise wire (0% chose this)

B-006-001-002

The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is determined by the:

A.
physical dimensions and relative positions of the conductors (0% chose this)
B.
load placed at the end of the line (0% chose this)
C.
frequency at which the line is operated (0% chose this)
D.
length of the line (0% chose this)

B-006-001-003

The characteristic impedance of a 20-metre piece of transmission line is 52 ohms. What would the impedance be if 10 metres were cut off?

A.
52 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
26 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
104 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
13 ohms (0% chose this)

B-006-001-004

Why can coaxial cables of different diameters have the same characteristic impedance?

A.
Their characteristic impedance depends on operating frequency (0% chose this)
B.
Characteristic impedance is set by the choice of conducting material (0% chose this)
C.
Characteristic impedance is independent of line diameter (0% chose this)
D.
Their characteristic impedance depends on the ratio of conductor diameters (0% chose this)

B-006-001-005

What commonly available transmission line can be buried directly in the ground for some distance without adverse effects?

A.
Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
B.
75-ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
C.
300-ohm window line (0% chose this)
D.
600-ohm open-wire line (0% chose this)

B-006-001-006

A transmitter is delivering radio frequency (RF) energy into a coaxial cable with a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms. The cable is terminated by a purely resistive load. What value of load resistance will absorb all the RF energy it receives?

A.
25 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
200 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
50 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
100 ohms (0% chose this)

B-006-001-007

What is the major factor influencing the velocity factor of a coaxial cable?

A.
Size and spacing of the conductors (0% chose this)
B.
Center conductor material (0% chose this)
C.
Dielectric material (0% chose this)
D.
Use of a solid or braided shield (0% chose this)

B-006-001-008

The characteristic impedance of an open-wire transmission line depends, in part, on the diameter of its conductors. What other dimension determines its characteristic impedance?

A.
Distance to metal structures (0% chose this)
B.
Length of the line (0% chose this)
C.
Height above ground (0% chose this)
D.
Spacing of the conductors (0% chose this)

B-006-001-009

A transmission line is terminated by an impedance that differs significantly from the characteristic impedance of the line. What impedance will be measured at the input of the line?

A.
A value of impedance influenced by line length (0% chose this)
B.
A zero impedance (0% chose this)
C.
An infinite impedance (0% chose this)
D.
An impedance nearly equal to the characteristic impedance (0% chose this)

B-006-001-010

What factors determine the characteristic impedance of an open-wire transmission line?

A.
The frequency of the signal and the length of the line (0% chose this)
B.
The distance between the centres of the conductors and the length of the line (0% chose this)
C.
The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal (0% chose this)
D.
The distance between the centres of the conductors and the diameter of the conductors (0% chose this)

B-006-001-011

What factors determine the characteristic impedance of a coaxial transmission line?

A.
The diameter of the shield and the frequency of the signal (0% chose this)
B.
The ratio of the diameter of the outer shield to the diameter of the inner conductor (0% chose this)
C.
The diameter of the shield and the length of the line (0% chose this)
D.
The frequency of the signal and the length of the line (0% chose this)

B-006-002-001

What kind of transmission line has a centre wire inside an insulating material that is covered by a metal shield or sleeve?

A.
Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
B.
Window line (0% chose this)
C.
Waveguide (0% chose this)
D.
Open-wire line (0% chose this)

B-006-002-002

What kind of transmission line has two wires side-by-side embedded in insulating material?

A.
Open-wire line (0% chose this)
B.
Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
C.
Waveguide (0% chose this)
D.
Window line (0% chose this)

B-006-002-003

What kind of transmission line is made of two conductors held apart by insulated rods?

A.
Window line (0% chose this)
B.
Open-wire line (0% chose this)
C.
Twisted pair (0% chose this)
D.
Coaxial cable (0% chose this)

B-006-002-004

What is the purpose of a balun?

A.
Connect balanced and unbalanced systems (0% chose this)
B.
Balance antenna impedance (0% chose this)
C.
Shunt common-mode current to ground (0% chose this)
D.
Increase antenna gain (0% chose this)

B-006-002-005

Where would you install a balun to feed a dipole antenna with 50-ohm coaxial cable?

A.
Between the transmitter and the coaxial cable (0% chose this)
B.
Between the antenna and the ground (0% chose this)
C.
Between the coaxial cable and the ground (0% chose this)
D.
Between the coaxial cable and the antenna (0% chose this)

B-006-002-006

What causes a transmission line to be unbalanced?

A.
One conductor is connected to ground (0% chose this)
B.
The conductors are twisted together (0% chose this)
C.
The conductors have deteriorated insulation (0% chose this)
D.
One conductor has a poor connection at the antenna (0% chose this)

B-006-002-007

What device can be installed to feed a balanced antenna with an unbalanced transmission line?

A.
A balun (0% chose this)
B.
A loading coil (0% chose this)
C.
A wave trap (0% chose this)
D.
A triaxial transformer (0% chose this)

B-006-002-008

What device should you use to connect a coaxial cable to window line?

A.
A surge suppressor (0% chose this)
B.
A phasing harness (0% chose this)
C.
A tuning stub (0% chose this)
D.
A balun (0% chose this)

B-006-002-009

A balanced transmission line:

A.
is made of two parallel wires (0% chose this)
B.
is made of one conductor only (0% chose this)
C.
has one conductor inside the other (0% chose this)
D.
carries RF current on one wire only (0% chose this)

B-006-002-010

Your antenna tuner does not have a balanced output and you wish to use window line to feed an HF antenna. What device should you use between the tuner and the transmission line?

A.
Quarter-wave transformer (0% chose this)
B.
Balun (0% chose this)
C.
Autotransformer (0% chose this)
D.
Transmission line stub (0% chose this)

B-006-002-011

What kind of transmission line has two conductors maintained side by side, a constant distance apart, using insulated spreaders?

A.
Twisted pair (0% chose this)
B.
Twin-lead (0% chose this)
C.
Open-wire line (0% chose this)
D.
Coaxial cable (0% chose this)

B-006-003-001

A transmission line must be supported for several metres by attaching it to a metal fence. What type of transmission line will NOT be adversely affected by proximity to the fence?

A.
Window line (0% chose this)
B.
Twin-lead (0% chose this)
C.
Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
D.
Open-wire line (0% chose this)

B-006-003-002

A common-mode current choke can be made by winding coaxial cable on a ferrite toroid. Why is cable with solid dielectric preferred over foam dielectric?

A.
Less risk of a short due to centre conductor movement (0% chose this)
B.
More impedance to common-mode current (0% chose this)
C.
More flexible and easier to handle (0% chose this)
D.
Less impedance inserted in the signal path (0% chose this)

B-006-003-003

Why do most amateur radio antenna systems use coaxial cable, rather than other types of transmission line?

A.
More power handling capability (0% chose this)
B.
Less loss (0% chose this)
C.
More usable in a wide variety of settings (0% chose this)
D.
Less expensive (0% chose this)

B-006-003-004

What type of connector is commonly installed on RG-213 coaxial cable for connection to an HF transceiver?

A.
A BNC connector (0% chose this)
B.
An F-type connector (0% chose this)
C.
A PL-259 connector (0% chose this)
D.
An SMA connector (0% chose this)

B-006-003-005

What type of connector usually joins a modern hand-held transceiver to its antenna?

A.
A PL-259 connector (0% chose this)
B.
An F-type connector (0% chose this)
C.
An RCA connector (0% chose this)
D.
An SMA connector (0% chose this)

B-006-003-006

Which popular RF connector is designed to be moisture resistant?

A.
N (0% chose this)
B.
BNC (0% chose this)
C.
UHF (0% chose this)
D.
SMA (0% chose this)

B-006-003-007

What type of RF connector is commonly used for low-power transceivers and test instruments?

A.
RCA (0% chose this)
B.
UHF (0% chose this)
C.
BNC (0% chose this)
D.
N (0% chose this)

B-006-003-008

Why should you regularly clean and tighten all antenna connectors?

A.
To help keep their contact resistance at a minimum (0% chose this)
B.
To maintain lightning protection (0% chose this)
C.
To prevent static electricity buildup (0% chose this)
D.
To minimize dielectric losses (0% chose this)

B-006-003-009

What type of coaxial outer conductor offers the best shielding?

A.
Aluminum foil (0% chose this)
B.
Single braided shield (0% chose this)
C.
Double braided shield (0% chose this)
D.
Solid shield (0% chose this)

B-006-003-010

If your location is frequently affected by icing conditions, which type of transmission line would be the most suitable?

A.
Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
B.
Twin-lead (0% chose this)
C.
Window line (0% chose this)
D.
Open-wire line (0% chose this)

B-006-003-011

What is the primary advantage of choosing a coaxial cable with a foam dielectric instead of a solid dielectric?

A.
Lower velocity factor (0% chose this)
B.
Better mechanical stability (0% chose this)
C.
Higher power handling (0% chose this)
D.
Lower loss (0% chose this)

B-006-004-001

What is the major adverse consequence of using RG-58 coaxial cable for a transmission line operating on the 70 cm band?

A.
Excess reflections at the antenna feed point (0% chose this)
B.
Excess RF radiation from the transmission line (0% chose this)
C.
Excess transmission line heating (0% chose this)
D.
Excess RF loss in the transmission line (0% chose this)

B-006-004-002

What is the major advantage of open-wire transmission line?

A.
It does not radiate RF energy, which could cause interference to nearby equipment (0% chose this)
B.
It can be operated at high SWR without excessive loss (0% chose this)
C.
It can be located near metal objects without problems (0% chose this)
D.
It has low impedance, which facilitates matching to a transceiver (0% chose this)

B-006-004-003

If your transmitter and antenna are 15 metres apart, but are connected by 60 metres of RG-58 coaxial cable, what should be done to reduce transmission line loss?

A.
Install a low-pass filter at the transceiver (0% chose this)
B.
Install a balun at the antenna feed point (0% chose this)
C.
Shorten the excess cable (0% chose this)
D.
Roll the excess cable into a coil (0% chose this)

B-006-004-004

As the length of a transmission line is changed, what happens to signal loss?

A.
Signal loss increases as the length increases (0% chose this)
B.
Signal loss is the least when the length is the same as the signal's wavelength (0% chose this)
C.
Signal loss is the same for any length of transmission line (0% chose this)
D.
Signal loss decreases as the length increases (0% chose this)

B-006-004-005

As the frequency of a signal is changed, what happens to signal loss in a transmission line?

A.
Signal loss increases with decreasing frequency (0% chose this)
B.
Signal loss increases as the square of frequency (0% chose this)
C.
Signal loss is the same for any frequency (0% chose this)
D.
Signal loss increases with increasing frequency (0% chose this)

B-006-004-006

Assuming the same transmitter and RF output power are used, what is the effect of changing the transmission line from RG-213 coaxial cable to RG-58?

A.
More RF power is radiated from the antenna (0% chose this)
B.
SWR at the transmitter increases (0% chose this)
C.
Less RF power is radiated from the antenna (0% chose this)
D.
SWR at the transmitter decreases (0% chose this)

B-006-004-007

The lowest loss transmission line on HF is:

A.
open-wire line (0% chose this)
B.
300-ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
C.
75-ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
D.
coaxial cable (0% chose this)

B-006-004-008

In what values are RF transmission line losses expressed?

A.
Ohms per metre (0% chose this)
B.
Decibel per unit length (0% chose this)
C.
Ohms per MHz (0% chose this)
D.
Decibel per MHz (0% chose this)

B-006-004-009

If the length of a coaxial transmission line is increased from 20 metres to 40 metres, how would this affect the line loss?

A.
It would be increased by 10% (0% chose this)
B.
It would be increased by 50% (0% chose this)
C.
It would be increased by 20% (0% chose this)
D.
It would be increased by 100% (0% chose this)

B-006-004-010

If the operating frequency is increased, how does the transmission line loss change?

A.
Loss increases, due to increased wave velocity (0% chose this)
B.
Loss decreases, due to decreased SWR (0% chose this)
C.
Loss increases, due to internal line losses (0% chose this)
D.
Loss decreases, due to skin effect (0% chose this)

B-006-005-001

What does an SWR reading of 1:1 mean?

A.
The best impedance match has been attained (0% chose this)
B.
An impedance transformer is needed at the antenna feed point (0% chose this)
C.
An antenna tuner is needed at the transmitter (0% chose this)
D.
Reflected power equals forward power (0% chose this)

B-006-005-002

What does an SWR reading of less than 1.5:1 mean?

A.
A fairly good impedance match (0% chose this)
B.
A serious impedance mismatch, something may be wrong with the antenna system (0% chose this)
C.
An antenna gain of 1.5 (0% chose this)
D.
An impedance match that is too low (0% chose this)

B-006-005-003

What is the most likely cause of erratic readings on an SWR meter?

A.
Interference from electrical power lines (0% chose this)
B.
Lack of a balun at the antenna feed point (0% chose this)
C.
Transmitting into the wrong antenna (0% chose this)
D.
Intermittent connection in the antenna system (0% chose this)

B-006-005-004

Which of the following can cause a high SWR reading?

A.
Replacing RG-213 coaxial cable with RG-58 (0% chose this)
B.
Grounding the shield of the coaxial cable at the building entrance (0% chose this)
C.
Using a very long transmission line (0% chose this)
D.
An open or short circuit in the antenna system (0% chose this)

B-006-005-005

What is the main adverse effect due to operating with high SWR?

A.
Increased receive noise level (0% chose this)
B.
Increased transmission line radiation (0% chose this)
C.
Increased transmission line loss (0% chose this)
D.
Increased common-mode current (0% chose this)

B-006-005-006

What instrument is useful in adjusting the physical length of an antenna?

A.
Capacitance meter (0% chose this)
B.
Multimeter (0% chose this)
C.
Antenna analyzer (0% chose this)
D.
Frequency meter (0% chose this)

B-006-005-007

If the characteristic impedance of the transmission line does not match the antenna input impedance then:

A.
the antenna will not radiate any signal (0% chose this)
B.
the SWR reading falls to 1:1 (0% chose this)
C.
standing waves are produced in the transmission line (0% chose this)
D.
heat is produced at the junction (0% chose this)

B-006-005-008

The result of the presence of standing waves on a transmission line is:

A.
perfect impedance match between transmitter and transmission line (0% chose this)
B.
reduced transfer of RF energy to the antenna (0% chose this)
C.
maximum transfer of energy to the antenna from the transmitter (0% chose this)
D.
lack of radiation from the transmission line (0% chose this)

B-006-005-009

What does an SWR meter measure to determine the SWR?

A.
Forward and reflected voltage (0% chose this)
B.
Common-mode current (0% chose this)
C.
Conductor temperature (0% chose this)
D.
Radiated RF energy (0% chose this)

B-006-005-010

What information can be obtained with an antenna analyzer?

A.
SWR of the antenna system over a range of frequencies (0% chose this)
B.
Front-to-back ratio of the antenna (0% chose this)
C.
Radiation pattern of the antenna (0% chose this)
D.
Gain of the antenna (0% chose this)

B-006-005-011

What is the effect of line loss on the SWR reading at the station?

A.
It has no effect, because forward and reflected power are both affected (0% chose this)
B.
It decreases the SWR, because less power reaches the antenna (0% chose this)
C.
It decreases the SWR, because reflected energy is attenuated (0% chose this)
D.
It has no effect, because SWR compares voltages (0% chose this)

B-006-006-001

Which of the following antenna system conditions will cause a modern solid-state HF transceiver to automatically reduce power?

A.
Excessive antenna element movement in high winds (0% chose this)
B.
Transmitting to a balanced antenna with an unbalanced transmission line (0% chose this)
C.
Excessive impedance mismatch between transceiver and transmission line (0% chose this)
D.
Open circuit in lightning surge protector ground connection (0% chose this)

B-006-006-002

What does an antenna tuner do?

A.
It switches an antenna system to a transmitter when sending, and to a receiver when listening (0% chose this)
B.
It switches multiple transceivers to a common transmission line and antenna (0% chose this)
C.
It helps a receiver automatically tune in stations that are far away (0% chose this)
D.
It matches a transceiver to a mismatched antenna system (0% chose this)

B-006-006-003

An end-fed half-wave antenna (EFHW) has a very high feed point impedance. What device could be used to provide a good match to 50-ohm coaxial cable?

A.
A quarter-wave stub (0% chose this)
B.
A counterpoise (0% chose this)
C.
A transformer (0% chose this)
D.
A good ground on the coax shield (0% chose this)

B-006-006-004

If both source and load impedances are purely resistive, what value of load impedance will result in maximum power delivery to the load?

A.
Load impedance equal to twice the source impedance (0% chose this)
B.
Load impedance equal to the source impedance (0% chose this)
C.
Load impedance equal to half of the source impedance (0% chose this)
D.
Load impedance equal to the square root of source impedance (0% chose this)

B-006-006-005

What is the advantage of locating an antenna tuner near the antenna feed point, over locating it near the transceiver?

A.
Less atmospheric noise pickup (0% chose this)
B.
More harmonic suppression (0% chose this)
C.
Less transmission line loss (0% chose this)
D.
More usable bandwidth (0% chose this)

B-006-006-006

How does an antenna tuner compensate for an impedance mismatch in an antenna system?

A.
By adjusting the resonant frequency of the antenna (0% chose this)
B.
By adding capacitive or inductive reactance (0% chose this)
C.
By diverting reflections to a dummy load (0% chose this)
D.
By increasing the conductance of the transmission line (0% chose this)

B-006-006-007

What advantage does a transformer present when used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

A.
It provides constant voltage to the load (0% chose this)
B.
It isolates the source from reflections (0% chose this)
C.
It can be designed to do so over a wide bandwidth (0% chose this)
D.
It supports larger power than reactive components (0% chose this)

B-006-006-008

Where does impedance matching need to be done to minimize transmission line losses in an antenna system?

A.
At the junction between the transmission line and antenna (0% chose this)
B.
At the junction between the transmitter and the transmission line (0% chose this)
C.
At a quarter wavelength from the transmitter (0% chose this)
D.
Anywhere along the transmission line (0% chose this)

B-006-006-009

If an antenna is correctly matched to a transmission line, the length of the transmission line:

A.
must be a full wavelength long (0% chose this)
B.
must be an even number of half-wavelengths (0% chose this)
C.
must be an odd number of quarter-wavelengths (0% chose this)
D.
will have no effect on the matching (0% chose this)

B-006-006-010

Why is an antenna tuner (external or internal) frequently used with modern solid-state transceivers?

A.
It absorbs the reflected energy from a mismatched antenna system (0% chose this)
B.
It reduces common-mode noise pickup (0% chose this)
C.
It reduces losses in the line to the antenna (0% chose this)
D.
It enables the transceivers to deliver rated power to a mismatched antenna system (0% chose this)

B-006-006-011

If a transmission line with a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms feeds a folded dipole with a feed point impedance close to 300 ohms, what impedance transformation ratio is needed to match the two?

A.
4:1 (0% chose this)
B.
9:1 (0% chose this)
C.
6:1 (0% chose this)
D.
2:1 (0% chose this)

B-006-007-001

What does horizontal wave polarization mean?

A.
The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
B.
The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
C.
The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
D.
The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)

B-006-007-002

What does vertical wave polarization mean?

A.
The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
B.
The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
C.
The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
D.
The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)

B-006-007-003

What electromagnetic wave polarization does a Yagi antenna have when its elements are parallel to the Earth's surface?

A.
Vertical (0% chose this)
B.
Circular (0% chose this)
C.
Horizontal (0% chose this)
D.
Elliptical (0% chose this)

B-006-007-004

What electromagnetic wave polarization does a half-wavelength antenna have when it is perpendicular to the Earth's surface?

A.
Elliptical (0% chose this)
B.
Horizontal (0% chose this)
C.
Vertical (0% chose this)
D.
Circular (0% chose this)

B-006-007-005

Polarization of an antenna is determined by:

A.
the orientation of the electric field relative to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
B.
the orientation of the electric field relative to the transmission line (0% chose this)
C.
the orientation of the electric field relative to the magnetic field (0% chose this)
D.
the orientation of the magnetic field relative to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)

B-006-007-006

An isotropic antenna is:

A.
a hypothetical point source (0% chose this)
B.
a dummy load (0% chose this)
C.
an infinitely long piece of wire (0% chose this)
D.
a half-wave reference dipole (0% chose this)

B-006-007-007

What is the three-dimensional radiation pattern of an isotropic radiator?

A.
A torus (donut shape) (0% chose this)
B.
A sphere (0% chose this)
C.
A hemisphere (0% chose this)
D.
A cardioid (0% chose this)

B-006-007-008

VHF signals from a mobile station using a vertical whip antenna will normally be best received using a:

A.
random length of wire (0% chose this)
B.
vertical ground-plane antenna (0% chose this)
C.
horizontal ground-plane antenna (0% chose this)
D.
horizontal dipole antenna (0% chose this)

B-006-007-009

A dipole antenna will emit a vertically polarized wave if it is:

A.
too near to the ground (0% chose this)
B.
very high above ground (0% chose this)
C.
mounted vertically (0% chose this)
D.
mounted horizontally (0% chose this)

B-006-007-010

If an electromagnetic wave leaves an antenna vertically polarized and reaches the receiving location by ground wave, what will be its final polarization?

A.
Oblique (0% chose this)
B.
Circular (0% chose this)
C.
Horizontal (0% chose this)
D.
Vertical (0% chose this)

B-006-007-011

Compared with a horizontal antenna, a vertical antenna will receive a vertically polarized radio wave:

A.
at higher strength (0% chose this)
B.
at about the same strength (0% chose this)
C.
at a strength depending on the height above ground (0% chose this)
D.
at lower strength (0% chose this)

B-006-008-001

A wire dipole has a resonant frequency of 3900 kHz. How can you change its resonant frequency to 3600 kHz?

A.
Use smaller diameter wire (0% chose this)
B.
Make it longer (0% chose this)
C.
Make it shorter (0% chose this)
D.
Install it as a sloper (0% chose this)

B-006-008-002

A wire dipole has a resonant frequency of 3600 kHz. How can you change its resonant frequency to 3900 kHz?

A.
Make it shorter (0% chose this)
B.
Make it longer (0% chose this)
C.
Install it as a sloper (0% chose this)
D.
Use larger diameter wire (0% chose this)

B-006-008-003

What is the wavelength in free space of a 25 MHz signal?

A.
39 metres (0% chose this)
B.
12 metres (0% chose this)
C.
6 metres (0% chose this)
D.
19 metres (0% chose this)

B-006-008-004

The velocity of propagation of radio frequency energy in free space is:

A.
200 000 kilometres per second (0% chose this)
B.
186 000 kilometres per second (0% chose this)
C.
300 000 kilometres per second (0% chose this)
D.
150 000 kilometres per second (0% chose this)

B-006-008-005

Adding a series inductance to an antenna would:

A.
increase its useful bandwidth (0% chose this)
B.
increase the resonant frequency (0% chose this)
C.
reduce atmospheric noise pickup (0% chose this)
D.
decrease the resonant frequency (0% chose this)

B-006-008-006

The resonant frequency of an antenna may be increased by:

A.
lowering the radiating element (0% chose this)
B.
lengthening the radiating element (0% chose this)
C.
shortening the radiating element (0% chose this)
D.
increasing the height of the radiating element (0% chose this)

B-006-008-007

The speed of a radio wave:

A.
varies depending on the frequency (0% chose this)
B.
is constant (0% chose this)
C.
is less than half the speed of light (0% chose this)
D.
is the same as the speed of light (0% chose this)

B-006-008-008

Why are insulators used at the ends of a suspended wire antenna?

A.
To increase the antenna bandwidth (0% chose this)
B.
To decrease the effective antenna length (0% chose this)
C.
To limit the electrical length of the antenna (0% chose this)
D.
To reduce capacitive coupling with the ground (0% chose this)

B-006-008-009

To lower the resonant frequency of an antenna, the operator should:

A.
lengthen the transmission line (0% chose this)
B.
use smaller diameter wire (0% chose this)
C.
shorten it (0% chose this)
D.
lengthen it (0% chose this)

B-006-008-010

Some antennas are constructed with traps. What is a trap?

A.
A large wire-wound resistor (0% chose this)
B.
A coil wrapped around a ferrite rod (0% chose this)
C.
A coil and capacitor in parallel (0% chose this)
D.
A hollow metal can (0% chose this)

B-006-008-011

What is the wavelength in free space of a 2 MHz signal?

A.
1500 metres (0% chose this)
B.
30 metres (0% chose this)
C.
360 metres (0% chose this)
D.
150 metres (0% chose this)

B-006-009-001

How is a parasitic antenna element energized?

A.
By direct connection to the transmission line (0% chose this)
B.
By induction or radiation from a driven element (0% chose this)
C.
By inductive coupling from a wave trap (0% chose this)
D.
By direct connection to a driven element (0% chose this)

B-006-009-002

How can the directivity of a half-wave dipole be increased?

A.
By adding one or more parasitic elements (0% chose this)
B.
By using a radiating element with a larger diameter (0% chose this)
C.
By adding traps to the radiating element (0% chose this)
D.
By lengthening the radiating element (0% chose this)

B-006-009-003

If a half-wave dipole is converted to a Yagi by adding a slightly shorter parasitic element, in what direction(s) does the radiation strength increase?

A.
From the new element towards the dipole (0% chose this)
B.
From the dipole towards the new element (0% chose this)
C.
In both directions at right angles to the elements (0% chose this)
D.
In both directions parallel to the elements (0% chose this)

B-006-009-004

If a half-wave dipole is converted to a Yagi by adding a slightly longer element, in what direction(s) does the radiation strength increase?

A.
From the dipole towards the new element (0% chose this)
B.
In both directions at right angles to the elements (0% chose this)
C.
From the new element towards the dipole (0% chose this)
D.
In both directions parallel to the elements (0% chose this)

B-006-009-005

The property of an antenna that defines the range of frequencies to which it will respond, is called its:

A.
antenna aperture (0% chose this)
B.
bandwidth (0% chose this)
C.
front-to-back ratio (0% chose this)
D.
beamwidth (0% chose this)

B-006-009-006

What is the approximate gain of a half-wave dipole in free space relative to an isotropic radiator?

A.
2.1 dB (0% chose this)
B.
3.0 dB (0% chose this)
C.
1.0 dB (0% chose this)
D.
1.5 dB (0% chose this)

B-006-009-007

What is meant by antenna gain?

A.
The ratio of the power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter power (0% chose this)
B.
The ratio of the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of a reference antenna (0% chose this)
C.
The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the signal in the back direction (0% chose this)
D.
The power amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses (0% chose this)

B-006-009-008

What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

A.
The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the ends of the elements (0% chose this)
B.
The frequency range over which the antenna may be expected to perform well (0% chose this)
C.
The angle between the half-power radiation points (0% chose this)
D.
Antenna length divided by the number of elements (0% chose this)

B-006-009-009

In free space, what is the radiation pattern of a half-wave dipole?

A.
Maximum radiation broadside from the antenna (0% chose this)
B.
Hemispherical radiation pattern (0% chose this)
C.
Maximum radiation from the ends of the antenna (0% chose this)
D.
Omnidirectional radiation pattern (0% chose this)

B-006-009-010

The gain of an antenna, especially on VHF and above, is quoted in dBi. The "i" in this expression stands for:

A.
integral (0% chose this)
B.
ionospheric (0% chose this)
C.
interpolated (0% chose this)
D.
isotropic (0% chose this)

B-006-009-011

An antenna is said to have a gain of 4.1 dBi. How much gain is this over a half-wave dipole antenna?

A.
4.1 dB (0% chose this)
B.
2.0 dB (0% chose this)
C.
1.1 dB (0% chose this)
D.
3.0 dB (0% chose this)

B-006-010-001

How do you calculate the approximate length in metres of a quarter-wavelength antenna for use on frequencies below 30 MHz?

A.
Divide 468 by the operating frequency in MHz (0% chose this)
B.
Divide 71.3 by the operating frequency in MHz (0% chose this)
C.
Divide 143 by the operating frequency in MHz (0% chose this)
D.
Divide 300 by the operating frequency in MHz (0% chose this)

B-006-010-002

If you made a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 21.125 MHz, approximately how long would it be?

A.
3.55 metres (0% chose this)
B.
7.10 metres (0% chose this)
C.
6.77 metres (0% chose this)
D.
3.37 metres (0% chose this)

B-006-010-003

If you made a half-wavelength vertical antenna for 223 MHz, approximately how long would it be?

A.
67 cm (0% chose this)
B.
105 cm (0% chose this)
C.
32 cm (0% chose this)
D.
135 cm (0% chose this)

B-006-010-004

Why is a five-eighths wavelength vertical antenna better than a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for VHF or UHF mobile operations?

A.
Because it can handle more power (0% chose this)
B.
Because it has a high radiation angle (0% chose this)
C.
Because it does not require impedance matching (0% chose this)
D.
Because it has more gain (0% chose this)

B-006-010-005

If a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna is placed on the roof of a car, in what direction does it send out radio energy?

A.
Most of it goes vertically straight-up (0% chose this)
B.
Most of it goes in one direction (0% chose this)
C.
It goes out equally well in all horizontal directions (0% chose this)
D.
Most of it goes equally in two opposite directions (0% chose this)

B-006-010-006

What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a ground plane antenna?

A.
It increases the radiation angle (0% chose this)
B.
It lowers the radiation angle (0% chose this)
C.
It brings the feed point impedance closer to 300 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
It brings the feed point impedance closer to 50 ohms (0% chose this)

B-006-010-007

What configuration of radials will match an elevated quarter-wave vertical antenna to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

A.
Horizontal half-wave radials (0% chose this)
B.
Upward sloping half-wave radials (0% chose this)
C.
Horizontal quarter-wave radials (0% chose this)
D.
Downward sloping quarter-wave radials (0% chose this)

B-006-010-008

Which of the following transmission lines will give the best match to the base of a quarter-wave ground-plane antenna?

A.
300-ohm balanced transmission line (0% chose this)
B.
75-ohm coaxial cable (0% chose this)
C.
50-ohm coaxial cable (0% chose this)
D.
75-ohm balanced transmission line (0% chose this)

B-006-010-009

How can a vertical antenna, 2 metres in length, be made to resonate in the 80-metre band for mobile use?

A.
Install an inductor in series with the antenna (0% chose this)
B.
Connect the transmission line shield to the vehicle's chassis (0% chose this)
C.
Use a solid radiating element instead of tubing (0% chose this)
D.
Install a capacitor in series with the antenna (0% chose this)

B-006-010-010

Why is a loading coil often used with an HF mobile vertical antenna?

A.
To tune out capacitive reactance (0% chose this)
B.
To filter out electrical noise (0% chose this)
C.
To lower the Q (0% chose this)
D.
To lower the losses (0% chose this)

B-006-010-011

When using a ground mounted vertical HF antenna, what can you do to reduce ground losses?

A.
Raise the antenna one eighth of a wavelength (0% chose this)
B.
Use an insulator with a higher breakdown voltage (0% chose this)
C.
Improve the impedance match at the base (0% chose this)
D.
Install a wire ground system (radials) at the antenna base (0% chose this)

B-006-011-001

What design feature allows a single Yagi antenna to function on the 20-metre, 15-metre and 10-metre bands?

A.
Large diameter elements (0% chose this)
B.
T-match feed circuit (0% chose this)
C.
Multiple reflector elements (0% chose this)
D.
Element traps (0% chose this)

B-006-011-002

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna for 14.0 MHz?

A.
10.21 metres (0% chose this)
B.
10.71 metres (0% chose this)
C.
21.43 metres (0% chose this)
D.
5.09 metres (0% chose this)

B-006-011-003

What is the approximate length of the director element of a Yagi antenna for 21.1 MHz?

A.
3.55 metres (0% chose this)
B.
7.11 metres (0% chose this)
C.
6.44 metres (0% chose this)
D.
3.38 metres (0% chose this)

B-006-011-004

What is the approximate length of the reflector element of a Yagi antenna for 28.1 MHz?

A.
2.67 metres (0% chose this)
B.
5.34 metres (0% chose this)
C.
10.68 metres (0% chose this)
D.
2.54 metres (0% chose this)

B-006-011-005

What is one effect of increasing the boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

A.
Gain increases (0% chose this)
B.
Front-to-back ratio increases (0% chose this)
C.
Power handling capability increases (0% chose this)
D.
Beamwidth increases (0% chose this)

B-006-011-006

What is the major advantage of increasing element spacing on a Yagi antenna?

A.
Higher gain (0% chose this)
B.
Lower feed point impedance (0% chose this)
C.
Wider bandwidth (0% chose this)
D.
Better front-to-back ratio (0% chose this)

B-006-011-007

Why are Yagi antennas often used on HF bands from 20 metres to 10 metres?

A.
Excellent omnidirectional coverage in the horizontal plane (0% chose this)
B.
Rotatable high-gain antennas become feasible due to shorter element lengths (0% chose this)
C.
Their high angle of radiation facilitates long-range communications (0% chose this)
D.
Their wide bandwidth provides a good match over an entire band (0% chose this)

B-006-011-008

What does "antenna front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

A.
The ratio of the power radiated by the director element, to the power radiated by the reflector element (0% chose this)
B.
The ratio of the driven element-to-director spacing, to the driven element-to-reflector spacing (0% chose this)
C.
The ratio of the length of the director element, to the length of the reflector element (0% chose this)
D.
The ratio of the power radiated in the forward direction to the power radiated in the opposite direction (0% chose this)

B-006-011-009

How can the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna be increased?

A.
Increase the diameter of the elements (0% chose this)
B.
Decrease the element spacing (0% chose this)
C.
Install loading coils in the elements (0% chose this)
D.
Use tapered elements (0% chose this)

B-006-011-010

For a three-element Yagi antenna, what approximate element spacing (in wavelengths) provides the best compromise between gain and front-to-back ratio?

A.
0.20 (0% chose this)
B.
0.50 (0% chose this)
C.
0.75 (0% chose this)
D.
0.10 (0% chose this)

B-006-011-011

If the forward gain of a six-element Yagi is about 10 dBi, what would the gain of two of these antennas be if they were "stacked"?

A.
7 dBi (0% chose this)
B.
13 dBi (0% chose this)
C.
10 dBi (0% chose this)
D.
20 dBi (0% chose this)

B-006-012-001

If you made a half-wavelength dipole antenna for 28.150 MHz, approximately how long would it be?

A.
10.66 metres (0% chose this)
B.
2.53 metres (0% chose this)
C.
5.33 metres (0% chose this)
D.
5.08 metres (0% chose this)

B-006-012-002

What is one disadvantage of a random wire antenna?

A.
It must be longer than 1 wavelength (0% chose this)
B.
It must be installed in a straight line, without bends (0% chose this)
C.
It usually produces vertically polarized radiation (0% chose this)
D.
You may experience RF feedback in your station (0% chose this)

B-006-012-003

What is the three-dimensional radiation pattern of a half-wavelength dipole in free space?

A.
Spherical (equal radiation in all directions) (0% chose this)
B.
A torus (donut shape) around the antenna (0% chose this)
C.
A major lobe off each end of the antenna (0% chose this)
D.
Major lobes at 45-degree angles to the antenna (0% chose this)

B-006-012-004

What is the impedance at the feed point of a half-wave dipole in free space?

A.
300 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
450 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
52 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
73 ohms (0% chose this)

B-006-012-005

Ignoring ground effects, what is the radiation pattern of a horizontal half-wave dipole installed with the ends pointing North/South?

A.
Radiates equally in all directions (0% chose this)
B.
Radiates mostly to the East and West (0% chose this)
C.
Radiates mostly to the South (0% chose this)
D.
Radiates mostly to the South and North (0% chose this)

B-006-012-006

What is a major advantage of an end-fed half-wave antenna (EFHW)?

A.
Matching network not needed to feed with coaxial cable (0% chose this)
B.
Capable of multi-band operation (0% chose this)
C.
High resistance to local noise pickup (0% chose this)
D.
Develops minimal common-mode current (0% chose this)

B-006-012-007

What is a disadvantage of using an antenna equipped with traps?

A.
It may radiate harmonics more readily (0% chose this)
B.
It can only be used for one band (0% chose this)
C.
It picks up more noise than a simple dipole (0% chose this)
D.
It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies (0% chose this)

B-006-012-008

What is an advantage of using a trap antenna?

A.
It has high directivity at the higher frequencies (0% chose this)
B.
It minimizes harmonic radiation (0% chose this)
C.
It may be used for multi-band operation (0% chose this)
D.
It has high gain (0% chose this)

B-006-012-009

If you were to cut a half-wave dipole for 3.75 MHz, what would be its approximate length?

A.
40.00 metres (0% chose this)
B.
38.13 metres (0% chose this)
C.
80.00 metres (0% chose this)
D.
62.40 metres (0% chose this)

B-006-013-001

What is a quad antenna?

A.
Four straight, parallel elements in line with each other, each approximately a half-wavelength long (0% chose this)
B.
A quarter-wavelength vertical conductor fed at the bottom (0% chose this)
C.
Two or more parallel four-sided wire loops, each approximately one wavelength long (0% chose this)
D.
A centre-fed half-wavelength long wire (0% chose this)

B-006-013-002

What is a delta loop antenna with parasitic elements?

A.
An antenna system made of three vertical antennas, arranged in a triangular shape (0% chose this)
B.
An antenna consisting of multiple elements, each a triangular loop whose total length is approximately one wavelength (0% chose this)
C.
An antenna made from several triangular coils of wire on an insulating form (0% chose this)
D.
An antenna made of a large multi-turn triangular loop (0% chose this)

B-006-013-003

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a quad antenna designed for 21.4 MHz?

A.
3.57 metres (0% chose this)
B.
7.01 metres (0% chose this)
C.
14.30 metres (0% chose this)
D.
10.93 metres (0% chose this)

B-006-013-004

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a quad antenna designed for 14.3 MHz?

A.
16.36 metres (0% chose this)
B.
21.40 metres (0% chose this)
C.
10.49 metres (0% chose this)
D.
5.35 metres (0% chose this)

B-006-013-005

What is the approximate length of a delta loop antenna designed for 28.7 MHz?

A.
4.98 metres (0% chose this)
B.
10.66 metres (0% chose this)
C.
3.55 metres (0% chose this)
D.
8.15 metres (0% chose this)

B-006-013-006

What is a major disadvantage of a quad antenna, as compared to a Yagi antenna with the same number of elements and boom length?

A.
Requires a more heavy-duty mast or tower (0% chose this)
B.
Requires matching to the transmission line (0% chose this)
C.
More susceptible to weather damage (0% chose this)
D.
Lower gain (0% chose this)

B-006-013-007

You are constructing an HF delta loop antenna. It is oriented with the bottom element parallel to the ground. Where should you locate the feed point for horizontal polarization?

A.
In the centre of a side element (0% chose this)
B.
On a side element, one quarter wavelength from the top (0% chose this)
C.
In the centre of the bottom element (0% chose this)
D.
At a junction of the bottom element and a side element (0% chose this)

B-006-013-008

Moving the feed point of a quad antenna from a side parallel to the ground to a side perpendicular to the ground will have what effect?

A.
It will significantly decrease the antenna feed point impedance (0% chose this)
B.
It will significantly increase the antenna feed point impedance (0% chose this)
C.
It will change the antenna polarization from vertical to horizontal (0% chose this)
D.
It will change the antenna polarization from horizontal to vertical (0% chose this)

B-006-013-009

What is the approximate length of the wire for a horizontal loop tuned at 7.15 MHz?

A.
41.96 metres (0% chose this)
B.
42.80 metres (0% chose this)
C.
20.00 metres (0% chose this)
D.
10.49 metres (0% chose this)

B-006-013-010

The quad antenna consists of two or more square loops of wire. The driven element has an approximate overall length of:

A.
one half wavelength (0% chose this)
B.
one wavelength (0% chose this)
C.
two wavelengths (0% chose this)
D.
three quarters of a wavelength (0% chose this)

B-006-013-011

What is the approximate overall length of a delta loop antenna?

A.
One quarter of a wavelength (0% chose this)
B.
One wavelength (0% chose this)
C.
Two wavelengths (0% chose this)
D.
One half of a wavelength (0% chose this)

B-007-001-001

What type of wave propagation usually occurs between two nearby VHF transceivers?

A.
Ionospheric (0% chose this)
B.
Line-of-sight (0% chose this)
C.
Auroral (0% chose this)
D.
Ducting (0% chose this)

B-007-001-002

What does near vertical incidence sky-wave (NVIS) propagation enable?

A.
Multi-hop HF worldwide communications (0% chose this)
B.
Regional communications above the critical frequency (0% chose this)
C.
Medium range HF communications, especially in difficult terrain (0% chose this)
D.
Continent-wide communications (0% chose this)

B-007-001-003

When a signal is returned to Earth by the ionosphere, what is this called?

A.
Sky-wave propagation (0% chose this)
B.
Earth-Moon-Earth propagation (0% chose this)
C.
Ground-wave propagation (0% chose this)
D.
Tropospheric propagation (0% chose this)

B-007-001-004

On VHF and higher frequencies, why does the radio horizon extend beyond the visible horizon?

A.
Diffraction caused by soil conductivity (0% chose this)
B.
Normal refraction in the troposphere (0% chose this)
C.
Ionization in the troposphere (0% chose this)
D.
Refraction in the D-region (0% chose this)

B-007-001-005

What type of wave is commonly known as sky wave?

A.
Space wave (0% chose this)
B.
Scattered wave (0% chose this)
C.
Ionospheric wave (0% chose this)
D.
Tropospheric wave (0% chose this)

B-007-001-006

What portion of a radio signal is directly affected by the surface of the Earth?

A.
Tropospheric wave (0% chose this)
B.
Ionospheric wave (0% chose this)
C.
Scattered wave (0% chose this)
D.
Ground wave (0% chose this)

B-007-001-007

What makes radiocommunication out to 200 km possible at lower HF frequencies during the daytime?

A.
Space wave (0% chose this)
B.
Tropospheric ducting (0% chose this)
C.
Skip wave (0% chose this)
D.
Ground wave (0% chose this)

B-007-001-008

Considering the bands from 160 metres to 6 metres, which band offers the greatest ground-wave propagation distance?

A.
160 metres (0% chose this)
B.
6 metres (0% chose this)
C.
40 metres (0% chose this)
D.
10 metres (0% chose this)

B-007-001-009

What type of radio wave follows a path from the transmitter to the ionosphere and back to Earth?

A.
Sky wave (0% chose this)
B.
Plane wave (0% chose this)
C.
Scattered wave (0% chose this)
D.
Direct wave (0% chose this)

B-007-001-010

Reception of high frequency (HF) radio waves beyond 4000 km is generally made possible by:

A.
space wave (0% chose this)
B.
ionospheric wave (0% chose this)
C.
ground wave (0% chose this)
D.
scattered wave (0% chose this)

B-007-002-001

What causes the ionosphere to form?

A.
Release of fluorocarbons into the atmosphere (0% chose this)
B.
Temperature changes ionizing the outer atmosphere (0% chose this)
C.
Lightning ionizing the outer atmosphere (0% chose this)
D.
Solar radiation ionizing the outer atmosphere (0% chose this)

B-007-002-002

What type of solar radiation is most responsible for ionization in the outer atmosphere?

A.
Ionized particles (0% chose this)
B.
Infrared (0% chose this)
C.
Ultraviolet (0% chose this)
D.
Microwave (0% chose this)

B-007-002-003

Which ionospheric region is closest to the Earth?

A.
The F region (0% chose this)
B.
The A region (0% chose this)
C.
The E region (0% chose this)
D.
The D region (0% chose this)

B-007-002-004

Which region of the ionosphere is the least useful for long-distance radio-wave propagation?

A.
The E region (0% chose this)
B.
The F2 region (0% chose this)
C.
The F1 region (0% chose this)
D.
The D region (0% chose this)

B-007-002-005

Which region of the ionosphere separates into two sub-regions in the daytime?

A.
The G region (0% chose this)
B.
The D region (0% chose this)
C.
The E region (0% chose this)
D.
The F region (0% chose this)

B-007-002-006

When is the ionosphere most ionized?

A.
Dusk (0% chose this)
B.
Midday (0% chose this)
C.
Dawn (0% chose this)
D.
Midnight (0% chose this)

B-007-002-007

When is ionization at a minimum in the ionosphere?

A.
Just after dusk (0% chose this)
B.
Shortly before midnight (0% chose this)
C.
Just after noon (0% chose this)
D.
Shortly before dawn (0% chose this)

B-007-002-008

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio-wave propagation?

A.
Because it is the highest ionospheric region (0% chose this)
B.
Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions (0% chose this)
C.
Because it exists only at night (0% chose this)
D.
Because it is the lowest ionospheric region (0% chose this)

B-007-002-009

What is the main reason the 160-metre and 80-metre bands tend to be useful only for short-distance communications during daylight hours?

A.
Because of E region ionization (0% chose this)
B.
Because of E region absorption (0% chose this)
C.
Because of signal scattering (0% chose this)
D.
Because of D region absorption (0% chose this)

B-007-002-010

During the day, what two sub-regions appear in the ionosphere?

A.
F1 and F2 (0% chose this)
B.
B1 and B2 (0% chose this)
C.
D1 and D2 (0% chose this)
D.
E1 and E2 (0% chose this)

B-007-002-011

What is the position of the E region in the ionosphere?

A.
Above the F region (0% chose this)
B.
Below the F region (0% chose this)
C.
Above the C region (0% chose this)
D.
Below the D region (0% chose this)

B-007-003-001

What term describes an area that is too distant for reception of ground waves, but too close for reception of ionospheric waves?

A.
Scatter zone (0% chose this)
B.
Propagation zone (0% chose this)
C.
Skip zone (0% chose this)
D.
Shadow zone (0% chose this)

B-007-003-002

What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

A.
12 000 km (0% chose this)
B.
4 000 km (0% chose this)
C.
300 km (0% chose this)
D.
2 000 km (0% chose this)

B-007-003-003

What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

A.
2000 km (0% chose this)
B.
4000 km (0% chose this)
C.
300 km (0% chose this)
D.
1000 km (0% chose this)

B-007-003-004

Skip zone is:

A.
a zone between the end of the ground wave and the point where the first ionosphere-refracted wave returns to Earth (0% chose this)
B.
a zone of silence caused by lost sky waves (0% chose this)
C.
a zone between the antenna and the return of the first refracted wave (0% chose this)
D.
a zone between any two refracted waves (0% chose this)

B-007-003-005

The distance to Europe from your location is approximately 5000 km. What type of high frequency (HF) propagation is the most likely to work?

A.
Tropospheric scatter (0% chose this)
B.
Back scatter (0% chose this)
C.
Sporadic "E" (0% chose this)
D.
Multi-hop (0% chose this)

B-007-003-006

Assuming constant ionosphere region height, how does a higher radiation angle affect skip distance?

A.
It increases, due to the increase in critical frequency (0% chose this)
B.
It increases, due to the geometry of the signal path (0% chose this)
C.
It decreases, due to the geometry of the signal path (0% chose this)
D.
It decreases, due to the decrease in critical frequency (0% chose this)

B-007-003-007

On a double-hop path involving the surface of the Earth as a middle point, what phenomenon returns the radio wave to the ionosphere?

A.
Scattering (0% chose this)
B.
Refraction (0% chose this)
C.
Diffraction (0% chose this)
D.
Reflection (0% chose this)

B-007-003-008

Skip distance is the:

A.
maximum distance reached by a signal after one reflection by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
B.
minimum distance reached by a signal after one reflection by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
C.
minimum distance reached by a ground-wave signal (0% chose this)
D.
maximum distance a signal will travel by both a ground wave and reflected wave (0% chose this)

B-007-003-009

Skip is a term associated with signals from the ionosphere. What causes skip?

A.
Selective fading of local signals (0% chose this)
B.
Refraction by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
C.
Local cloud cover (0% chose this)
D.
High gain antennas are being used (0% chose this)

B-007-003-010

The skip distance of a sky wave will be greatest when the:

A.
signal given out is strongest (0% chose this)
B.
polarization is vertical (0% chose this)
C.
angle between the ground and the emitted radiation is smallest (0% chose this)
D.
ionosphere is most densely ionized (0% chose this)

B-007-003-011

How does an increase in the height of the refracting region affect skip distance?

A.
It decreases, due to the geometry of the signal path (0% chose this)
B.
It increases, due to the increase in critical frequency (0% chose this)
C.
It decreases, due to the increase in critical frequency (0% chose this)
D.
It increases, due to the geometry of the signal path (0% chose this)

B-007-004-001

What effect does the D region of the ionosphere have on lower frequency HF waves in the daytime?

A.
It absorbs the waves (0% chose this)
B.
It bends the radio waves out into space (0% chose this)
C.
It refracts the radio waves back to Earth (0% chose this)
D.
It distorts the waves (0% chose this)

B-007-004-002

Why can you not hear distant 160-metre and AM broadcast stations during daytime hours?

A.
The presence of ionized clouds in the E region (0% chose this)
B.
The ionization of the D region (0% chose this)
C.
The weather below the ionosphere (0% chose this)
D.
The splitting of the F region into two sub-regions (0% chose this)

B-007-004-003

A radio transmission may follow two or more different paths during propagation, and this may result in phase differences at the receiver. What is the effect at the receiver?

A.
Intermodulation (0% chose this)
B.
Absorption (0% chose this)
C.
Fading (0% chose this)
D.
Wavering (0% chose this)

B-007-004-004

While using a 2-metre hand-held transceiver in an urban setting, you notice that moving less than one metre can severely attenuate your received signal. What is the likely cause?

A.
Underground conduits change ground conductivity (0% chose this)
B.
Overhead power lines create a Faraday cage (0% chose this)
C.
Passing vehicles absorb the radio signals (0% chose this)
D.
Signals arriving on different paths cancel one another (0% chose this)

B-007-004-005

A transmitted radio signal reaches a receiver by both one-hop and two-hop skip paths. What can small changes in the ionosphere cause?

A.
Consistently weaker signals (0% chose this)
B.
A shift in signal frequency (0% chose this)
C.
Consistently stronger signals (0% chose this)
D.
Variations in signal strength (0% chose this)

B-007-004-006

What can be done to continue HF communications during a sudden ionospheric disturbance (SID)?

A.
Try a higher frequency band (0% chose this)
B.
Try a different antenna polarization (0% chose this)
C.
Try the other sideband (0% chose this)
D.
Try a different frequency shift (0% chose this)

B-007-004-007

On the VHF and UHF bands, the polarization of the receiving antenna in relation to the transmitting antenna is very important, yet on HF bands it is relatively unimportant. Why is that so?

A.
The refraction forces the wave's polarization to vertical (0% chose this)
B.
The polarization of ground waves and ionospheric waves continually varies (0% chose this)
C.
The refraction in the ionosphere changes the wave's polarization (0% chose this)
D.
The polarization of ionospheric waves varies depending on the entry angle into the refracting region (0% chose this)

B-007-004-008

What causes selective fading?

A.
Small changes in directional antenna heading at the receiving station (0% chose this)
B.
Phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station (0% chose this)
C.
Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations (0% chose this)
D.
Large changes in the height of the ionosphere at the receiving station ordinarily occurring shortly before sunrise and sunset (0% chose this)

B-007-004-009

How does the bandwidth of a transmitted signal affect selective fading?

A.
It is the same for both wide and narrow bandwidths (0% chose this)
B.
It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths (0% chose this)
C.
Only the receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect (0% chose this)
D.
It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths (0% chose this)

B-007-004-010

What effect do refraction, reflection and Faraday rotation have on a radio wave?

A.
Change the wavelength (0% chose this)
B.
Change the polarization (0% chose this)
C.
Increase the speed of propagation (0% chose this)
D.
Increase the occupied bandwidth (0% chose this)

B-007-004-011

If a radio transmission follows two or more different paths during propagation, the received signal may degrade due to fading. What other type of degradation can occur?

A.
Phase-shift distortion (0% chose this)
B.
Frequency shift (0% chose this)
C.
Heterodyne squeal (0% chose this)
D.
Higher noise floor (0% chose this)

B-007-005-001

How do sunspots change the ionization of the atmosphere?

A.
The more sunspots there are, the lesser the ionization (0% chose this)
B.
They have no effect (0% chose this)
C.
The more sunspots there are, the greater the ionization (0% chose this)
D.
Unless there are sunspots, the ionization is zero (0% chose this)

B-007-005-002

How long is an average sunspot cycle?

A.
5 years (0% chose this)
B.
11 years (0% chose this)
C.
17 years (0% chose this)
D.
7 years (0% chose this)

B-007-005-003

What is solar flux?

A.
The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the Earth (0% chose this)
B.
The density of the sun's magnetic field (0% chose this)
C.
The radio frequency energy emitted by the sun (0% chose this)
D.
A measure of the tilt of the Earth's ionosphere on the side toward the sun (0% chose this)

B-007-005-004

What is the solar-flux index?

A.
A measure of solar activity that is taken annually (0% chose this)
B.
Another name for the smoothed sunspot number (SSN) (0% chose this)
C.
A measure of solar activity that is taken at a specific frequency (0% chose this)
D.
A measure of solar activity that compares daily readings with results from the last six months (0% chose this)

B-007-005-005

What influences all radiocommunication beyond ground wave or line-of-sight ranges?

A.
Solar radiation (0% chose this)
B.
The F1 region of the ionosphere (0% chose this)
C.
Lunar tidal effects (0% chose this)
D.
The F2 region of the ionosphere (0% chose this)

B-007-005-006

What effect of the sun's activity influences ionospheric propagation on a daily basis?

A.
Electromagnetic and particle radiation (0% chose this)
B.
Infrared radiation (0% chose this)
C.
Solar wind (0% chose this)
D.
Coronal mass ejections (CME) (0% chose this)

B-007-005-007

When sunspot numbers are high, how is propagation affected?

A.
High frequency radio signals become weak and distorted (0% chose this)
B.
High frequency radio signals are absorbed (0% chose this)
C.
Frequencies up to 40 MHz or even higher become usable for long-distance communication (0% chose this)
D.
Frequencies up to 100 MHz or higher are normally usable for long-distance communication (0% chose this)

B-007-005-008

All communication frequencies throughout the spectrum are affected in varying degrees by:

A.
the sun (0% chose this)
B.
the ionosphere (0% chose this)
C.
auroras (0% chose this)
D.
meteor showers (0% chose this)

B-007-005-009

Average duration of a solar cycle is:

A.
6 years (0% chose this)
B.
1 year (0% chose this)
C.
3 years (0% chose this)
D.
11 years (0% chose this)

B-007-005-010

The ability of the ionosphere to refract high frequency radio signals depends on:

A.
the receiver sensitivity (0% chose this)
B.
the amount of solar radiation (0% chose this)
C.
the power of the transmitted signal (0% chose this)
D.
upper atmosphere weather conditions (0% chose this)

B-007-005-011

What is the major cause of cyclical changes in HF propagation?

A.
Magnetic pole drift cycle (0% chose this)
B.
Jet stream cycle (0% chose this)
C.
Auroral cycle (0% chose this)
D.
Solar cycle (0% chose this)

B-007-006-001

Observatories probe the ionosphere at vertical incidence. What term describes the highest frequency that a region can reflect at the time?

A.
Critical frequency (0% chose this)
B.
Optimum working frequency (0% chose this)
C.
Maximum usable frequency (0% chose this)
D.
Doppler frequency (0% chose this)

B-007-006-002

What causes the maximum usable frequency to vary?

A.
The amount of radiation received from the sun (0% chose this)
B.
The temperature of the ionosphere (0% chose this)
C.
The type of weather just below the ionosphere (0% chose this)
D.
The speed of the winds in the upper atmosphere (0% chose this)

B-007-006-003

What does maximum usable frequency mean?

A.
The lowest frequency that is most absorbed by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
B.
The highest frequency that is most absorbed by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
C.
The highest frequency at which a signal will reach a given destination (0% chose this)
D.
The lowest frequency at which a signal will reach a given destination (0% chose this)

B-007-006-004

Why is communication possible between two continents at a frequency above the local critical frequency?

A.
Ionization is not uniform around the globe (0% chose this)
B.
A higher frequency cuts through absorption more easily (0% chose this)
C.
The signal enters the ionosphere at an oblique (inclined) angle (0% chose this)
D.
The sun's relative position differs between the two locations (0% chose this)

B-007-006-005

What is one way to determine if the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is high enough to support 28 MHz propagation between your station and western Europe?

A.
Listen for 10-metre beacon stations (0% chose this)
B.
Listen for WWVH time signals on 15 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
Listen for 20-metre beacon stations (0% chose this)
D.
Listen for 31-metre broadcast stations (0% chose this)

B-007-006-006

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the maximum usable frequency (MUF) when they are sent into the ionosphere?

A.
They are changed to a frequency above the MUF (0% chose this)
B.
They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
C.
They pass through the ionosphere (0% chose this)
D.
They are bent back to the Earth (0% chose this)

B-007-006-007

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-metre band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

A.
Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle (0% chose this)
B.
Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle (0% chose this)
C.
At any point in the solar cycle (0% chose this)
D.
At the beginning of the solar cycle (0% chose this)

B-007-006-008

What happens daily when the solar UV radiation increases?

A.
The atmospheric noise level decreases (0% chose this)
B.
Ground wave propagation decreases (0% chose this)
C.
The maximum usable frequency increases (0% chose this)
D.
Weather in the ionosphere changes (0% chose this)

B-007-006-009

When is propagation on the 80-metre band generally the LEAST effective?

A.
Evening in summer (0% chose this)
B.
Evening in winter (0% chose this)
C.
Daytime in summer (0% chose this)
D.
Daytime in winter (0% chose this)

B-007-006-010

The optimum working frequency provides the best long-range HF communication. Compared with the maximum usable frequency (MUF), it is usually:

A.
half the MUF (0% chose this)
B.
double the MUF (0% chose this)
C.
slightly lower (0% chose this)
D.
slightly higher (0% chose this)

B-007-006-011

During summer daytime, which bands are the most difficult for communications beyond ground wave?

A.
30 metres (0% chose this)
B.
20 metres (0% chose this)
C.
160 metres and 80 metres (0% chose this)
D.
40 metres (0% chose this)

B-007-007-001

Which ionospheric region most affects sky-wave propagation on the 6-metre band?

A.
The D region (0% chose this)
B.
The E region (0% chose this)
C.
The F1 region (0% chose this)
D.
The F2 region (0% chose this)

B-007-007-002

What effect does tropospheric bending have on 2-metre radio waves?

A.
It lets you contact stations farther away (0% chose this)
B.
It distorts the signal (0% chose this)
C.
It causes them to travel shorter distances (0% chose this)
D.
It interferes with short-range communications (0% chose this)

B-007-007-003

What causes tropospheric ducting of radio waves?

A.
An aurora to the north (0% chose this)
B.
A temperature inversion (0% chose this)
C.
Lightning between the transmitting and receiving stations (0% chose this)
D.
A very low-pressure area (0% chose this)

B-007-007-004

What term describes that portion of a transmitted wave kept close to the Earth's surface due to bending in the atmosphere?

A.
Ground wave (0% chose this)
B.
Ionospheric wave (0% chose this)
C.
Tropospheric wave (0% chose this)
D.
Scattered wave (0% chose this)

B-007-007-005

What is a sporadic-E condition?

A.
Patches of dense ionization at E-region height (0% chose this)
B.
A brief decrease in VHF signals caused by sunspot variations (0% chose this)
C.
Variations in E-region height caused by sunspot variations (0% chose this)
D.
Occasional duct formation in the E region (0% chose this)

B-007-007-006

On which amateur radio band is the extended-distance propagation effect of sporadic-E most often observed?

A.
6 metres (0% chose this)
B.
2 metres (0% chose this)
C.
20 metres (0% chose this)
D.
160 metres (0% chose this)

B-007-007-007

In the northern hemisphere, in which direction should a directional antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation?

A.
West (0% chose this)
B.
South (0% chose this)
C.
East (0% chose this)
D.
North (0% chose this)

B-007-007-008

Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur?

A.
At D-region height (0% chose this)
B.
At F-region height (0% chose this)
C.
At E-region height (0% chose this)
D.
In the equatorial band (0% chose this)

B-007-007-009

Which analog emission mode is the most reliable in auroral propagation?

A.
CW, because it is readable even when distorted (0% chose this)
B.
CW, because it resists fading (0% chose this)
C.
FM, because it is readable even when distorted (0% chose this)
D.
FM, because it resists fading (0% chose this)

B-007-007-010

Excluding enhanced propagation modes, what is the approximate range of normal VHF tropospheric propagation?

A.
1600 km (0% chose this)
B.
3200 km (0% chose this)
C.
2400 km (0% chose this)
D.
800 km (0% chose this)

B-007-007-011

What effect is responsible for propagating a VHF signal over 800 km?

A.
Ionospheric refraction (0% chose this)
B.
Faraday rotation (0% chose this)
C.
Tropospheric ducting (0% chose this)
D.
D-region refraction (0% chose this)

B-007-008-001

What kind of unusual HF propagation allows weak signals from the skip zone to be heard?

A.
Ducting (0% chose this)
B.
Scatter-mode (0% chose this)
C.
Ground wave (0% chose this)
D.
Sky-wave with low radiation angle (0% chose this)

B-007-008-002

If you receive a weak, distorted signal close to the maximum usable frequency, what type of propagation is probably occurring?

A.
Scatter (0% chose this)
B.
Line-of-sight (0% chose this)
C.
Ground wave (0% chose this)
D.
Ducting (0% chose this)

B-007-008-003

What type of VHF/UHF propagation depends upon small variations in density and water-vapour content?

A.
Tropospheric scatter (0% chose this)
B.
Tropospheric ducting (0% chose this)
C.
Ionospheric scatter (0% chose this)
D.
Sporadic-E (0% chose this)

B-007-008-004

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

A.
Auroral activity and changes in the Earth's magnetic field (0% chose this)
B.
Energy scattered into the skip zone through several radio-wave paths (0% chose this)
C.
The state of the E-region at the point of refraction (0% chose this)
D.
Propagation through ground waves that absorb much of the signal (0% chose this)

B-007-008-005

Why are HF scatter signals usually weak?

A.
Auroral activity absorbs most of the signal energy (0% chose this)
B.
Propagation through ground waves absorbs most of the signal energy (0% chose this)
C.
Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone (0% chose this)
D.
The F region of the ionosphere absorbs most of the signal energy (0% chose this)

B-007-008-006

What type of propagation may allow a weak high frequency (HF) signal to be heard at a distance too far for ground-wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

A.
Scatter (0% chose this)
B.
Sporadic-E skip (0% chose this)
C.
Tropospheric scatter (0% chose this)
D.
Short-path skip (0% chose this)

B-007-008-007

On the HF bands, when is scatter propagation most likely involved?

A.
At night when propagation is poor (0% chose this)
B.
When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum and D-region absorption is high (0% chose this)
C.
When the F1 and F2 regions are combined (0% chose this)
D.
When you receive weak and distorted signals near the maximum usable frequency (MUF) (0% chose this)

B-007-008-008

Tropospheric scatter frequently explains VHF/UHF communications well beyond the radio horizon. What makes this propagation mode possible?

A.
Increased daytime ionization of the D region (0% chose this)
B.
Small variations in the properties of the lower atmosphere (0% chose this)
C.
Local cloud cover (0% chose this)
D.
Ionized patches in the troposphere (0% chose this)

B-007-008-009

Meteor scatter is most effective on what band?

A.
40 metres (0% chose this)
B.
6 metres (0% chose this)
C.
160 metres (0% chose this)
D.
15 metres (0% chose this)

B-007-008-010

What is the effect of scattering on a radio wave?

A.
The wave gets redirected in many directions (0% chose this)
B.
A portion of the wave abruptly changes direction (0% chose this)
C.
The wave is gradually bent (0% chose this)
D.
The wave is absorbed by the medium (0% chose this)

B-007-008-011

In which frequency range is meteor scatter most effective for extended-range communication?

A.
100 MHz to 150 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
10 MHz to 30 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
30 MHz to 100 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
3 MHz to 10 MHz (0% chose this)

B-008-001-001

What is the cause of receiver overload?

A.
Frequency instability of a transmitter (0% chose this)
B.
Overmodulation of a transmitter (0% chose this)
C.
Parasitic oscillations in a transmitter (0% chose this)
D.
Very strong signal from a transmitter (0% chose this)

B-008-001-002

What is one way to tell if your HF transmitter causes front-end overload interference to a neighbour's receiver?

A.
Interference is heard regardless of the volume setting on the receiver (0% chose this)
B.
Adding receiver shielding has no effect (0% chose this)
C.
Adding a low-pass filter at the transmitter solves the problem (0% chose this)
D.
Transmitting on various frequencies produces similar interference (0% chose this)

B-008-001-003

If a neighbour reports television interference whenever you transmit, no matter what band you use, what is probably the cause of the interference?

A.
Receiver overload (0% chose this)
B.
Deficient harmonic suppression (0% chose this)
C.
Incorrect antenna length (0% chose this)
D.
Spurious emissions (0% chose this)

B-008-001-004

What type of filter should be connected to a TV receiver as the first step in trying to prevent receiver overload from an amateur radio HF transmission?

A.
Band-pass (0% chose this)
B.
AC line filter (0% chose this)
C.
High-pass (0% chose this)
D.
Low-pass (0% chose this)

B-008-001-005

During a club Field Day outing, reception on the 20-metre SSB station is compromised every time the 20-metre CW station is on the air. What might cause such interference?

A.
Improper station grounding (0% chose this)
B.
Harmonic emission (0% chose this)
C.
Both stations are fed from the same generator (0% chose this)
D.
Receiver desensitization (0% chose this)

B-008-001-006

The signals from two commercial transmitters combine outside your receiver to produce noise on a desired frequency. What type of interference is this?

A.
Receiver overload (0% chose this)
B.
Spurious emissions (0% chose this)
C.
Intermodulation (0% chose this)
D.
Harmonic emissions (0% chose this)

B-008-001-007

You have connected your hand-held VHF transceiver to an outside gain antenna. You now hear a mixture of signals together with different modulation on your desired frequency. What is the nature of this interference?

A.
Receiver intermodulation (0% chose this)
B.
Harmonics from other stations (0% chose this)
C.
Audio stage overload (0% chose this)
D.
Audio stage intermodulation (0% chose this)

B-008-001-008

Two or more strong signals mix in your receiver to produce interference on a desired frequency. What is this called?

A.
Front-end desensitization (0% chose this)
B.
Harmonic interference (0% chose this)
C.
Capture effect (0% chose this)
D.
Intermodulation interference (0% chose this)

B-008-001-009

Two mobile stations are communicating through a repeater. As they arrive in close proximity to each other, they begin to have difficulty communicating. What is the most likely cause?

A.
CTCSS tones are activating the receivers' squelch circuits (0% chose this)
B.
Transmitter signals are desensitizing the receivers (0% chose this)
C.
Transmitter signals are mixing with the repeater signal to cause intermodulation (0% chose this)
D.
They have entered a null area of their antenna patterns (0% chose this)

B-008-001-010

A television receiver suffers interference on channel 5 (76 MHz - 82 MHz) only when you transmit on 14 MHz. From your home you see the tower of a commercial FM station known to broadcast on 92.5 MHz. Which of these solutions would you try first?

A.
Insert a low-pass filter at the HF transmitter (0% chose this)
B.
Insert a low-pass filter at the television receiver (0% chose this)
C.
Insert a high-pass filter at the television receiver (0% chose this)
D.
Insert a high-pass filter at the HF transmitter (0% chose this)

B-008-001-011

You are experiencing interference in your VHF receiver. You have determined that signals from two nearby transmitters are mixing in your receiver to cause the interference. What device can you install to reduce the interference?

A.
Narrow band IF filter (0% chose this)
B.
Common-mode choke (0% chose this)
C.
Suitable filter at the receiver (0% chose this)
D.
RF attenuator (0% chose this)

B-008-002-001

What devices would you install to reduce or eliminate interference to a home entertainment system from an HF transmitter?

A.
Metal oxide varistors (0% chose this)
B.
Bypass inductors (0% chose this)
C.
Coils on ferrite cores (0% chose this)
D.
Bypass resistors (0% chose this)

B-008-002-002

What should be done if a properly operating amateur radio station is the cause of interference to a nearby telephone?

A.
Make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment (0% chose this)
B.
Stop transmitting whenever the telephone is in use (0% chose this)
C.
Ground and shield the telephone distribution amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
Install a modular plug-in telephone RFI filter close to the telephone device (0% chose this)

B-008-002-003

What sound is heard from a public address system if audio rectification of a nearby single-sideband transmission occurs?

A.
On-and-off humming or clicking (0% chose this)
B.
Distorted speech from the transmitter's signals (0% chose this)
C.
A steady hum (0% chose this)
D.
Clearly audible speech from the transmitter's signals (0% chose this)

B-008-002-004

What sound is heard from a public address system if audio rectification of a nearby CW transmission occurs?

A.
On-and-off humming or clicking (0% chose this)
B.
Muffled, severely distorted speech (0% chose this)
C.
A steady whistling (0% chose this)
D.
Audible, possibly distorted speech (0% chose this)

B-008-002-005

If an amateur radio transmission is heard in a device that contains no RF components, what type of interference is this?

A.
Front-end overload (0% chose this)
B.
Intermodulation (0% chose this)
C.
Audio rectification (0% chose this)
D.
Splatter (0% chose this)

B-008-002-006

An amateur radio transmitter is being heard across the entire dial of a broadcast receiver. The receiver is most probably suffering from:

A.
harmonics interference (0% chose this)
B.
poor image rejection (0% chose this)
C.
splatter from the transmitter (0% chose this)
D.
audio rectification (0% chose this)

B-008-002-007

Your SSB HF transmissions are heard muffled on a sound system in the living room regardless of its volume setting. What causes this?

A.
Improper filtering in the transmitter (0% chose this)
B.
Audio rectification of strong signals (0% chose this)
C.
Harmonics generated at the transmitter (0% chose this)
D.
Lack of receiver selectivity (0% chose this)

B-008-002-008

What device can be used to minimize the effect of RF pickup by audio wires connected to stereo speakers, intercom amplifiers, telephones, etc.?

A.
Surge suppressor (0% chose this)
B.
Attenuator (0% chose this)
C.
High-pass filter (0% chose this)
D.
Coil on ferrite core (0% chose this)

B-008-002-009

Stereo speaker leads often act as antennas to pick up RF signals. What is one method you can use to minimize this effect?

A.
Shorten the leads (0% chose this)
B.
Connect the speakers through audio attenuators (0% chose this)
C.
Lengthen the leads (0% chose this)
D.
Connect the speakers through series capacitors (0% chose this)

B-008-002-010

One method of preventing RF from entering a stereo set through the speaker leads is to wrap each of the speaker leads:

A.
around a ferrite core (0% chose this)
B.
around a wooden dowel (0% chose this)
C.
around an iron bar (0% chose this)
D.
around a copper bar (0% chose this)

B-008-002-011

Stereo amplifiers often have long leads that pick up transmitted signals because they act as:

A.
frequency discriminators (0% chose this)
B.
parasitic elements (0% chose this)
C.
resonant circuits (0% chose this)
D.
receiving antennas (0% chose this)

B-008-003-001

What term describes the undesired creation of new frequency components when one or more signals enter a non-linear device?

A.
Phase distortion (0% chose this)
B.
Aliasing (0% chose this)
C.
Intermodulation (0% chose this)
D.
Linear distortion (0% chose this)

B-008-003-002

If someone tells you that signals from your hand-held transceiver are interfering with other signals on a frequency near yours, what could be the cause?

A.
Your hand-held has a chirp due to low battery voltage (0% chose this)
B.
Your hand-held offset is wrong (0% chose this)
C.
You need to reduce your output power (0% chose this)
D.
Your hand-held is transmitting spurious emissions (0% chose this)

B-008-003-003

If your transmitter sends signals outside the band where it is transmitting, what is this called?

A.
Side tones (0% chose this)
B.
Off-frequency emissions (0% chose this)
C.
Spurious emissions (0% chose this)
D.
Transmitter chirping (0% chose this)

B-008-003-004

What problem may occur if your transmitter is operated without its cover or other shielding in place?

A.
It may radiate spurious emissions (0% chose this)
B.
It may transmit a weak signal (0% chose this)
C.
It may draw excessive current (0% chose this)
D.
It may transmit a chirpy signal (0% chose this)

B-008-003-005

In Morse code transmission, local RF interference (key clicks) is produced by:

A.
high frequency parasitic oscillations (0% chose this)
B.
frequency shifting caused by poor voltage regulation (0% chose this)
C.
poor wave-shaping caused by a defective filter capacitor (0% chose this)
D.
the making and breaking of the circuit at the Morse key (0% chose this)

B-008-003-006

Key clicks, heard from a Morse code transmitter at a distant receiver, are the result of:

A.
sparks emitting RF from the key contacts (0% chose this)
B.
too sharp rise and decay times of the keyed carrier (0% chose this)
C.
power supply hum modulating the carrier (0% chose this)
D.
changes in oscillator frequency on keying (0% chose this)

B-008-003-007

In a Morse code transmission, broad bandwidth RF interference (key clicks) heard at a distance is produced by:

A.
mechanical instability in the oscillator (0% chose this)
B.
sparking at the key contacts (0% chose this)
C.
poor shaping of the waveform (0% chose this)
D.
frequency shifting during keying (0% chose this)

B-008-003-008

What should you do if you learn your transmitter is producing key clicks?

A.
Check the keying filter and the functioning of later stages (0% chose this)
B.
Use a choke in the RF power output (0% chose this)
C.
Regulate the oscillator supply voltage (0% chose this)
D.
Adjust your key (0% chose this)

B-008-003-009

What term describes an unwanted oscillation in an amplifier or oscillator circuit?

A.
Secondary emission (0% chose this)
B.
Harmonic emission (0% chose this)
C.
Parasitic oscillation (0% chose this)
D.
Frequency instability (0% chose this)

B-008-003-010

What can cause parasitic oscillations in a stage?

A.
Unwanted negative feedback (0% chose this)
B.
Oscillator drift (0% chose this)
C.
Power supply instability (0% chose this)
D.
Unwanted positive feedback (0% chose this)

B-008-003-011

Transmitter RF amplifiers can generate parasitic oscillations:

A.
above or below the transmitter frequency (0% chose this)
B.
on the transmitter fundamental frequency (0% chose this)
C.
on VHF frequencies only (0% chose this)
D.
on harmonics of the transmitter frequency (0% chose this)

B-008-004-001

If a neighbour reports television interference on one or two channels only when you transmit on 15 metres, what is probably the cause of the interference?

A.
Harmonic emissions from your transmitter (0% chose this)
B.
Splatter due to overmodulation (0% chose this)
C.
Television receiver front-end overload (0% chose this)
D.
Parasitic oscillations from your transmitter (0% chose this)

B-008-004-002

What are harmonic emissions?

A.
Unwanted signals that are combined with a 60 Hz hum (0% chose this)
B.
Unwanted signals at frequencies which are multiples of the fundamental (operating) frequency (0% chose this)
C.
Unwanted signals caused by mixing with a nearby transmitter (0% chose this)
D.
Signals which cause skip propagation to occur (0% chose this)

B-008-004-003

Why are harmonic emissions from an amateur radio station not wanted?

A.
They may result in excessive power dissipation (0% chose this)
B.
They may overload a nearby transmitter (0% chose this)
C.
They may cause interference to other stations (0% chose this)
D.
They may interfere with stations on adjacent frequencies (0% chose this)

B-008-004-004

What term describes unwanted radio energy transmitted just outside the necessary bandwidth?

A.
Harmonic emissions (0% chose this)
B.
Parasitic emissions (0% chose this)
C.
Spurious emissions (0% chose this)
D.
"Out-of-band" emissions (0% chose this)

B-008-004-005

If you are told your station was heard on 21.375 MHz but at the time you were operating on 7.125 MHz. What is one reason that could cause this to happen?

A.
Your transmitter radiates harmonic signals (0% chose this)
B.
You were sending CW too fast (0% chose this)
C.
Your transmitter's power-supply filter choke is defective (0% chose this)
D.
Your transmitter's power-supply filter capacitor is defective (0% chose this)

B-008-004-006

What causes splatter interference?

A.
Overmodulating a transmitter (0% chose this)
B.
Unwanted feedback in an amplifier stage (0% chose this)
C.
Keying a transmitter too fast (0% chose this)
D.
The transmitting antenna is non-resonant (0% chose this)

B-008-004-007

A television tuned to channel 3 (60 MHz - 66 MHz) experiences interference when you are transmitting on the 15-metre band. Other channels are not affected. What is the most likely cause?

A.
Front-end overload of the TV (0% chose this)
B.
No high-pass filter on the TV (0% chose this)
C.
Harmonic emission from your transmitter (0% chose this)
D.
No high-pass filter at your transmitter (0% chose this)

B-008-004-008

What is the probable cause of "flat topping" (non-linear operation) of an amplifier in an SSB transmitter?

A.
Excessive microphone gain (0% chose this)
B.
Defective sideband filter (0% chose this)
C.
Insufficient power supply current capacity (0% chose this)
D.
Defective low-pass filter (0% chose this)

B-008-004-009

Which of the following may cause excessive harmonics in a transmitter?

A.
Use of a non-resonant antenna (0% chose this)
B.
Overdriven stages (0% chose this)
C.
Internal antenna tuner malfunction (0% chose this)
D.
Defective driver circuit (0% chose this)

B-008-004-010

An interfering signal from an HF transmitter is found to have a frequency of 56 MHz. What could be the source?

A.
Third harmonic of a 15-metre transmission (0% chose this)
B.
Crystal oscillator operating on its fundamental (0% chose this)
C.
Second harmonic of a 10-metre transmission (0% chose this)
D.
Seventh harmonic of an 80-metre transmission (0% chose this)

B-008-004-011

Harmonics may be produced in the RF power amplifier of a transmitter if:

A.
the oscillator frequency is unstable (0% chose this)
B.
modulation is applied to a high-level stage (0% chose this)
C.
the output tank circuit is tuned to the fundamental frequency (0% chose this)
D.
excessive drive signal is applied to it (0% chose this)

B-008-005-001

What is the frequency response of an ideal notch filter?

A.
Attenuate one frequency and pass all others (0% chose this)
B.
Attenuate all frequencies except one single frequency (0% chose this)
C.
Attenuate a range of frequencies and pass all others (0% chose this)
D.
Attenuate all frequencies except a range of frequencies (0% chose this)

B-008-005-002

A filter attenuates frequencies below its cut-off frequency of 60 MHz. What type of filter is it?

A.
Low-pass (0% chose this)
B.
Notch (0% chose this)
C.
Band-pass (0% chose this)
D.
High-pass (0% chose this)

B-008-005-003

What type of filter attenuates RF energy above and below a certain range of frequencies?

A.
Band-pass (0% chose this)
B.
Notch (0% chose this)
C.
High-pass (0% chose this)
D.
Low-pass (0% chose this)

B-008-005-004

Why should the impedance of a filter match the transmission line where it is inserted?

A.
To minimize noise in the receiver (0% chose this)
B.
To avoid unwanted reflection (0% chose this)
C.
To prevent spurious emissions (0% chose this)
D.
To preserve the balance of the line (0% chose this)

B-008-005-005

Listening to shortwave on a low-cost software defined receiver (SDR), you hear several stations known to operate on much higher frequencies. What type of filter could help?

A.
Band-reject (0% chose this)
B.
Band-pass (0% chose this)
C.
Low-pass (0% chose this)
D.
High-pass (0% chose this)

B-008-005-006

You need to install an AC line filter to reduce radio frequency noise heard in your station equipment. What type of frequency response should it have?

A.
Band-pass (0% chose this)
B.
Low-pass (0% chose this)
C.
Band-reject (0% chose this)
D.
High-pass (0% chose this)

B-008-005-007

A strong interfering signal is very close to your receive frequency. Which type of filter can effectively suppress it?

A.
Low-pass (0% chose this)
B.
High-pass (0% chose this)
C.
Notch (0% chose this)
D.
Band-reject (0% chose this)

B-008-005-008

In a Field Day operation with separate transmitters assigned to specific bands, what type of filter is needed on the receivers to minimize interference?

A.
Band-pass (0% chose this)
B.
Low-pass (0% chose this)
C.
Band-reject (0% chose this)
D.
High-pass (0% chose this)

B-008-005-009

A nearby high-power HF broadcast station in the 31-metre band is interfering with your reception on the 40-metre and 30-metre bands. What type of filter is needed on the receiver to minimize interference?

A.
Band-pass (0% chose this)
B.
Low-pass (0% chose this)
C.
High-pass (0% chose this)
D.
Band-reject (0% chose this)

B-008-005-010

Your 2-metre station suffers receiver overload from several land mobile service transmitters on adjacent bands. What type of filter could help?

A.
Low-pass (0% chose this)
B.
Band-pass (0% chose this)
C.
Notch (0% chose this)
D.
High-pass (0% chose this)

B-008-005-011

A filter attenuates frequencies above its cut-off frequency of 40 MHz. What type of filter is it?

A.
Low-pass (0% chose this)
B.
Notch (0% chose this)
C.
High-pass (0% chose this)
D.
Band-pass (0% chose this)

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