2021 Basic Qualification pool
951 / 972 questions need explanations
All explanations are written and maintained by ordinary users like you! Please help us finish the explanations in this pool.
The "amateur radio service" is defined in:
-
the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service (0% chose this)
-
the FCC's Part 97 rules (0% chose this)
-
the Radiocommunication Regulations (0% chose this)
-
the Radiocommunication Act (0% chose this)
What must you do to notify your mailing address changes?
-
Contact Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada and provide details of your address change (0% chose this)
-
Telephone your local club, and give them your new address (0% chose this)
-
Contact an accredited examiner and provide details of your address change (0% chose this)
-
Write amateur organizations advising them of your new address, enclosing your certificate (0% chose this)
An Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is valid for:
-
five years (0% chose this)
-
three years (0% chose this)
-
one year (0% chose this)
-
life (0% chose this)
Whenever a change of address is made:
-
within the same province, there is no need to notify Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
-
Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada must be advised of any change in postal address (0% chose this)
-
Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada must be notified within 14 days of operation at the new address (0% chose this)
-
the station shall not be operated until a change of address card is forwarded to Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
The Amateur Radio Operator Certificate:
-
must be kept on the person to whom it is issued (0% chose this)
-
must be retained at the station (0% chose this)
-
must be put on file (0% chose this)
-
must be kept in a safe place (0% chose this)
The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate shall, at the request of a duly appointed radio inspector, produce the certificate, or a copy thereof, to the inspector, within ____ hours after the request:
-
72 (0% chose this)
-
48 (0% chose this)
-
12 (0% chose this)
-
24 (0% chose this)
The fee for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is:
-
$10 (0% chose this)
-
$24 (0% chose this)
-
free (0% chose this)
-
$32 (0% chose this)
The Amateur Radio Operator Certificate should be:
-
retained on the radio amateur's person (0% chose this)
-
retained in the radio amateur's vehicle (0% chose this)
-
retained at the address provided to Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
-
retained in a safety deposit box (0% chose this)
Out of amateur band transmissions:
-
must be identified with your call sign (0% chose this)
-
are permitted (0% chose this)
-
are permitted for short tests only (0% chose this)
-
are prohibited - penalties could be assessed to the control operator (0% chose this)
If an amateur pretends there is an emergency and transmits the word "MAYDAY," what is this called?
-
A traditional greeting in May (0% chose this)
-
An emergency test transmission (0% chose this)
-
Nothing special: "MAYDAY" has no meaning in an emergency (0% chose this)
-
False or deceptive signals (0% chose this)
A person found guilty of transmitting a false or fraudulent distress signal, or interfering with, or obstructing any radio communication, without lawful cause, may be liable, on summary conviction, to a penalty of:
-
a fine of $10 000 (0% chose this)
-
a prison term of two years (0% chose this)
-
a fine of $1 000 (0% chose this)
-
a fine, not exceeding $5 000, or a prison term of one year, or both (0% chose this)
What government document states the offences and penalties for non compliance of the rules governing radiocommunications?
-
The Radiocommunications Law Reform Act of 2002 (0% chose this)
-
The Radiocommunication Act (0% chose this)
-
The Official Radio Rules of Canada (0% chose this)
-
The Radiocommunications Regulations (0% chose this)
Which of the following is not correct? The Minister may suspend an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate:
-
Where the holder has contravened the Radiocommunication Act, its Regulations, or the terms and conditions of the certificate (0% chose this)
-
Where the certificate was obtained through misrepresentation (0% chose this)
-
Where the holder has failed to comply with a request to pay fees or interest due (0% chose this)
-
With no notice, or opportunity to make representation thereto (0% chose this)
Which of the following statements is not correct?
-
The person in charge of a place entered by a radio inspector shall give the inspector information that the inspector requests (0% chose this)
-
A radio inspector may enter a dwelling without the consent of the occupant and without a warrant (0% chose this)
-
Where entry is refused, and is necessary to perform his duties under the Act, a radio inspector may obtain a warrant (0% chose this)
-
In executing a warrant, a radio inspector shall not use force, unless accompanied by a peace officer, and force is authorized (0% chose this)
What age must you be to hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic Qualification?
-
70 years or younger (0% chose this)
-
18 years or older (0% chose this)
-
14 years or older (0% chose this)
-
There are no age limits (0% chose this)
Which examination must be passed before an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is issued?
-
Advanced (0% chose this)
-
Basic (0% chose this)
-
Personality test (0% chose this)
-
Morse code (0% chose this)
Holders of which one of the following certificates may be issued an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate?
-
Canadian Radiocommunication Operator General Certificate Maritime (RGMC) (0% chose this)
-
Canadian Restricted Operator Certificate - Maritime (ROC-M) (0% chose this)
-
Canadian Restricted Operator's Certificate - Maritime Commercial (ROC-MC) (0% chose this)
-
Canadian Restricted Operator Certificate - Aeronautical (ROC-A) (0% chose this)
After an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic qualifications is issued, the holder may be examined for additional qualifications in the following order:
-
Morse code after passing the Basic with Honours (0% chose this)
-
Advanced after passing Morse code (0% chose this)
-
any order (0% chose this)
-
Morse code after passing the Advanced (0% chose this)
One Morse code qualification is available for the Amateur Radio Operator Certificate. It is:
-
7 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
-
15 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
-
12 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
-
5 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with the Basic Qualification is authorized to operate following stations:
-
a station authorized in the maritime service (0% chose this)
-
any authorized station except stations authorized in the amateur, aeronautical or maritime services (0% chose this)
-
a station authorized in the amateur service (0% chose this)
-
a station authorized in the aeronautical service (0% chose this)
What conditions must candidates to amateur radio certification meet?
-
Be at least 14 years of age and a Canadian citizen or permanent resident (0% chose this)
-
Have a valid address in Canada (0% chose this)
-
Be a Canadian citizen (0% chose this)
-
Be a Canadian citizen or permanent resident (0% chose this)
Radio apparatus may be installed, placed in operation, repaired or maintained by the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Advanced Qualification on behalf of another person:
-
if the transmitter of a station, for which a radio authorization is to be applied for, is type approved and crystal controlled (0% chose this)
-
if the other person is the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate to operate in the amateur radio service (0% chose this)
-
pending the granting of a radio authorization, if the apparatus covers the amateur and commercial frequency bands (0% chose this)
-
pending the granting of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate if the apparatus covers the amateur frequency bands only (0% chose this)
The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate may design and build from scratch transmitting equipment for use in the amateur radio service provided that person has the:
-
Basic qualification (0% chose this)
-
Advanced qualification (0% chose this)
-
Basic and Morse code qualification (0% chose this)
-
Morse code with Honours qualification (0% chose this)
Where a friend is not the holder of any type of radio operator certificate, you, as a holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic Qualification, may, on behalf of your friend:
-
modify and repair the radio apparatus but not install it (0% chose this)
-
not install, place in operation, modify, repair, maintain, or permit the operation of the radio apparatus (0% chose this)
-
install an amateur station, but not operate or permit the operation of the apparatus (0% chose this)
-
install and operate the radio apparatus, using your own call sign (0% chose this)
A radio amateur with Basic and Morse code qualifications may install an amateur station for another person:
-
only if the other person is the holder of a valid Amateur Radio Operator Certificate (0% chose this)
-
only if the final power input does not exceed 100 watts (0% chose this)
-
only if the station is for use on one of the VHF bands (0% chose this)
-
only if the DC power input to the final stage does not exceed 200 watts (0% chose this)
Which of these statements is not correct?
-
An accredited volunteer examiner must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic, Advanced, and Morse code qualifications (0% chose this)
-
The fee for taking an examination for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate at an Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada office is $20 per qualification (0% chose this)
-
The fee for taking an examination for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate at an Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada office is $5 per qualification (0% chose this)
-
An accredited examiner may recover the cost of administering an examination (0% chose this)
Which of the following statements is not correct?
-
A disabled candidate must pass a normal amateur radio certificate examination before being granted any qualification (0% chose this)
-
A disabled candidate, taking a Morse code sending test, may be allowed to recite the examination text in Morse code sounds (0% chose this)
-
Examinations for disabled candidates may be given orally, or tailored to the candidate's ability to complete the examination (0% chose this)
-
An accredited examiner may recover the cost of administering an examination (0% chose this)
The fee for taking examinations for amateur radio operator certificates by an accredited volunteer examiner is:
-
to be negotiated between examiner and candidate (0% chose this)
-
always $20 per qualification (0% chose this)
-
always free of charge (0% chose this)
-
always $20 per visit regardless of the number of examinations (0% chose this)
The fee for taking amateur radio certificate examinations at an Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada office is:
-
$20 per visit, regardless of the number of qualification examinations (0% chose this)
-
no charge for qualification examinations (0% chose this)
-
$5 per qualification examination (0% chose this)
-
$20 per qualification (0% chose this)
Which of the following statements is false?
-
A candidate who fails a written examination for lack of reading skills may be given an oral examination (0% chose this)
-
A candidate who fails a written examination due to not usually speaking English or French may be given an oral examination (0% chose this)
-
An examiner may request medical evidence from a practicing medical physician before accommodating testing (0% chose this)
-
A candidate with insufficient knowledge of English or French may be accompanied by an interpreter (0% chose this)
How much voltage does a standard automobile battery usually supply?
-
About 120 volts (0% chose this)
-
About 9 volts (0% chose this)
-
About 12 volts (0% chose this)
-
About 240 volts (0% chose this)
Which component has a positive and a negative side?
-
A battery (0% chose this)
-
A potentiometer (0% chose this)
-
A fuse (0% chose this)
-
A resistor (0% chose this)
A cell, that can be repeatedly recharged by supplying it with electrical energy, is known as a:
-
low leakage cell (0% chose this)
-
memory cell (0% chose this)
-
primary cell (0% chose this)
-
storage cell (0% chose this)
Which of the following is a source of electromotive force (EMF)?
-
carbon resistor (0% chose this)
-
lithium-ion battery (0% chose this)
-
germanium diode (0% chose this)
-
P channel FET (0% chose this)
An important difference between a conventional flashlight battery and a lead acid battery is that only the lead acid battery:
-
has two terminals (0% chose this)
-
can be completely discharged (0% chose this)
-
contains an electrolyte (0% chose this)
-
can be repeatedly recharged (0% chose this)
An alkaline cell has a nominal voltage of 1.5 volts. When supplying a great deal of current, the voltage may drop to 1.2 volts. This is caused by the cell's:
-
voltage capacity (0% chose this)
-
internal resistance (0% chose this)
-
electrolyte becoming dry (0% chose this)
-
current capacity (0% chose this)
An inexpensive primary cell in use today is the carbon-zinc or flashlight cell. This type of cell can be recharged:
-
never (0% chose this)
-
twice (0% chose this)
-
many times (0% chose this)
-
once (0% chose this)
Battery capacity is commonly stated as a value of current delivered over a specified period of time. What is the effect of exceeding that specified current?
-
The battery will accept the subsequent charge in shorter time (0% chose this)
-
The voltage delivered will be higher (0% chose this)
-
A battery charge will not last as long (0% chose this)
-
The internal resistance of the cell is short-circuited (0% chose this)
To increase the current capacity of a cell, several cells should be connected in:
-
parallel (0% chose this)
-
series (0% chose this)
-
parallel resonant (0% chose this)
-
series resonant (0% chose this)
To increase the voltage output, several cells are connected in:
-
parallel (0% chose this)
-
series-parallel (0% chose this)
-
resonance (0% chose this)
-
series (0% chose this)
A lithium-ion battery should never be:
-
left disconnected (0% chose this)
-
left overnight at room temperature (0% chose this)
-
short-circuited (0% chose this)
-
recharged (0% chose this)
How do you find a resistor's tolerance rating?
-
By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors (0% chose this)
-
By reading its Baudot code (0% chose this)
-
By using a voltmeter (0% chose this)
-
By reading the resistor's colour code (0% chose this)
What do the first three-colour bands on a resistor indicate?
-
The resistance material (0% chose this)
-
The power rating in watts (0% chose this)
-
The resistance tolerance in percent (0% chose this)
-
The value of the resistor in ohms (0% chose this)
What would the fourth colour band on a 47 ohm resistor indicate?
-
The resistance tolerance in percent (0% chose this)
-
The value of the resistor in ohms (0% chose this)
-
The power rating in watts (0% chose this)
-
The resistance material (0% chose this)
What are the possible values of a 100 ohm resistor with a 10% tolerance?
-
90 to 110 ohms (0% chose this)
-
90 to 100 ohms (0% chose this)
-
10 to 100 ohms (0% chose this)
-
80 to 120 ohms (0% chose this)
How do you find a resistor's value?
-
By using the Baudot code (0% chose this)
-
By using the resistor's colour code (0% chose this)
-
By using a voltmeter (0% chose this)
-
By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors (0% chose this)
A club project requires that a resistive voltage divider provide a very accurate and predictable ratio. Out of the list below, which resistor tolerance would you select?
-
10% (0% chose this)
-
20% (0% chose this)
-
0.1% (0% chose this)
-
5% (0% chose this)
You need a current limiting resistor for a light-emitting diode (LED). The actual resistance is not critical at all. Out of the list below, which resistor tolerance would you select?
-
10% (0% chose this)
-
20% (0% chose this)
-
0.1% (0% chose this)
-
5% (0% chose this)
If a carbon resistor's temperature is increased, what will happen to the resistance?
-
It will stay the same (0% chose this)
-
It will become time dependent (0% chose this)
-
It will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees centigrade (0% chose this)
-
It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient rating (0% chose this)
A gold tolerance band on a resistor indicates the tolerance is:
-
10% (0% chose this)
-
1% (0% chose this)
-
5% (0% chose this)
-
20% (0% chose this)
Which colour band would differentiate a 120-ohm from a 1200-ohm resistor?
-
Second band (0% chose this)
-
Fourth band (0% chose this)
-
Third band (0% chose this)
-
First band (0% chose this)
Given that red=2, violet=7 and yellow=4, what is the nominal value of a resistor whose colour code reads "red", "violet" and "yellow"?
-
270 kilohms (0% chose this)
-
274 ohms (0% chose this)
-
72 kilohms (0% chose this)
-
27 megohms (0% chose this)
If an ammeter marked in amperes is used to measure a 3000 milliampere current, what reading would it show?
-
3 000 000 amperes (0% chose this)
-
3 amperes (0% chose this)
-
0.003 ampere (0% chose this)
-
0.3 ampere (0% chose this)
If a voltmeter marked in volts is used to measure a 3500 millivolt potential, what reading would it show?
-
3.5 volts (0% chose this)
-
0.35 volt (0% chose this)
-
35 volts (0% chose this)
-
350 volts (0% chose this)
A kilohm is:
-
0.1 ohm (0% chose this)
-
0.001 ohm (0% chose this)
-
10 ohms (0% chose this)
-
1000 ohms (0% chose this)
6.6 kilovolts is equal to:
-
660 volts (0% chose this)
-
66 volts (0% chose this)
-
66 000 volts (0% chose this)
-
6600 volts (0% chose this)
A current of one quarter ampere may be written as:
-
0.25 milliampere (0% chose this)
-
250 microamperes (0% chose this)
-
250 milliamperes (0% chose this)
-
0.5 amperes (0% chose this)
How many millivolts are equivalent to two volts?
-
0.002 (0% chose this)
-
2 000 (0% chose this)
-
0.000002 (0% chose this)
-
2 000 000 (0% chose this)
Name three good electrical conductors.
-
Copper, aluminum, paper (0% chose this)
-
Copper, gold, mica (0% chose this)
-
Gold, silver, aluminum (0% chose this)
-
Gold, silver, wood (0% chose this)
Name four good electrical insulators.
-
Plastic, rubber, wood, carbon (0% chose this)
-
Paper, glass, air, aluminum (0% chose this)
-
Glass, wood, copper, porcelain (0% chose this)
-
Glass, air, plastic, porcelain (0% chose this)
Why do resistors sometimes get hot when in use?
-
Some electrical energy passing through them is lost as heat (0% chose this)
-
Their reactance makes them heat up (0% chose this)
-
Hotter circuit components nearby heat them up (0% chose this)
-
They absorb magnetic energy which makes them hot (0% chose this)
What is the best conductor among the following materials?
-
silicon (0% chose this)
-
aluminium (0% chose this)
-
copper (0% chose this)
-
carbon (0% chose this)
Which type of material listed will most readily allow an electric current to flow?
-
a dielectric (0% chose this)
-
a conductor (0% chose this)
-
an insulator (0% chose this)
-
a semiconductor (0% chose this)
A length of metal is connected in a circuit and is found to conduct electricity very well. It would be best described as having a:
-
high wattage (0% chose this)
-
low wattage (0% chose this)
-
low resistance (0% chose this)
-
high resistance (0% chose this)
The letter "R" is the symbol for:
-
reactance (0% chose this)
-
resistance (0% chose this)
-
impedance (0% chose this)
-
reluctance (0% chose this)
The reciprocal of resistance is:
-
conductance (0% chose this)
-
reactance (0% chose this)
-
reluctance (0% chose this)
-
permeability (0% chose this)
Voltage drop means:
-
the voltage developed across the terminals of a component (0% chose this)
-
any point in a radio circuit which has zero voltage (0% chose this)
-
the difference in voltage at output terminals of a transformer (0% chose this)
-
the voltage which is dissipated before useful work is accomplished (0% chose this)
The resistance of a conductor changes with:
-
current (0% chose this)
-
humidity (0% chose this)
-
temperature (0% chose this)
-
voltage (0% chose this)
The most common material used to make a resistor is:
-
gold (0% chose this)
-
mica (0% chose this)
-
lead (0% chose this)
-
carbon (0% chose this)
Which electrical circuit will have no current?
-
A complete circuit (0% chose this)
-
A closed circuit (0% chose this)
-
An open circuit (0% chose this)
-
A short circuit (0% chose this)
Which electrical circuit draws too much current?
-
A closed circuit (0% chose this)
-
An open circuit (0% chose this)
-
A short circuit (0% chose this)
-
A dead circuit (0% chose this)
What term means the number of times per second that an alternating current flows back and forth?
-
Pulse rate (0% chose this)
-
Inductance (0% chose this)
-
Frequency (0% chose this)
-
Speed (0% chose this)
Approximately what frequency range can most humans hear?
-
0 - 20 Hz (0% chose this)
-
20 - 20 000 Hz (0% chose this)
-
20 000 - 30 000 Hz (0% chose this)
-
200 - 200 000 Hz (0% chose this)
Why do we call signals in the range 20 Hz to 20 000 Hz audio frequencies?
-
Because the human ear cannot sense anything in this range (0% chose this)
-
Because this range is too low for radio energy (0% chose this)
-
Because the human ear can sense radio waves in this range (0% chose this)
-
Because the human ear can sense sounds in this range (0% chose this)
What does 60 hertz (Hz) mean?
-
60 cycles per second (0% chose this)
-
6000 metres per second (0% chose this)
-
60 metres per second (0% chose this)
-
6000 cycles per second (0% chose this)
If the frequency of the waveform is 100 Hz, the time for one cycle is:
-
0.01 second (0% chose this)
-
10 seconds (0% chose this)
-
0.0001 second (0% chose this)
-
1 second (0% chose this)
Current in an AC circuit goes through a complete cycle in 0.1 second. This means the AC has a frequency of:
-
1 Hz (0% chose this)
-
100 Hz (0% chose this)
-
1000 Hz (0% chose this)
-
10 Hz (0% chose this)
A signal is composed of a fundamental frequency of 2 kHz and another of 4 kHz. This 4 kHz signal is referred to as:
-
a fundamental of the 2 kHz signal (0% chose this)
-
the DC component of the main signal (0% chose this)
-
a dielectric signal of the main signal (0% chose this)
-
a harmonic of the 2 kHz signal (0% chose this)
A force of repulsion exists between two _________ magnetic poles.
-
unlike (0% chose this)
-
positive (0% chose this)
-
negative (0% chose this)
-
like (0% chose this)
A permanent magnet would most likely be made from:
-
steel (0% chose this)
-
copper (0% chose this)
-
aluminum (0% chose this)
-
brass (0% chose this)
How is a voltmeter usually connected to a circuit under test?
-
In quadrature with the circuit (0% chose this)
-
In phase with the circuit (0% chose this)
-
In parallel with the circuit (0% chose this)
-
In series with the circuit (0% chose this)
How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit under test?
-
In quadrature with the circuit (0% chose this)
-
In phase with the circuit (0% chose this)
-
In parallel with the circuit (0% chose this)
-
In series with the circuit (0% chose this)
What does a multimeter measure?
-
Voltage, current and resistance (0% chose this)
-
Resistance, capacitance and inductance (0% chose this)
-
Resistance and reactance (0% chose this)
-
SWR and power (0% chose this)
The correct instrument to measure plate current or collector current of a transmitter is:
-
a voltmeter (0% chose this)
-
an ammeter (0% chose this)
-
an ohmmeter (0% chose this)
-
a wattmeter (0% chose this)
Which of the following meters would you use to measure the power supply current drawn by a small hand-held transistorized receiver?
-
An electrostatic voltmeter (0% chose this)
-
A DC ammeter (0% chose this)
-
An RF ammeter (0% chose this)
-
An RF power meter (0% chose this)
When measuring current drawn from a DC power supply, it is true to say that the meter will act in circuit as:
-
an extra current drain (0% chose this)
-
an insulator (0% chose this)
-
a low value resistance (0% chose this)
-
a perfect conductor (0% chose this)
When measuring the current drawn by a receiver from a power supply, the current meter should be placed:
-
in parallel with one of the receiver power leads (0% chose this)
-
in series with one of the receiver power leads (0% chose this)
-
in series with both receiver power leads (0% chose this)
-
in parallel with both receiver power supply leads (0% chose this)
Potential difference is measured by means of:
-
a voltmeter (0% chose this)
-
a wattmeter (0% chose this)
-
an ohmmeter (0% chose this)
-
an ammeter (0% chose this)
The instrument used for measuring the flow of electrical current is the:
-
wattmeter (0% chose this)
-
voltmeter (0% chose this)
-
ammeter (0% chose this)
-
faradmeter (0% chose this)
In measuring volts and amperes, the connections should be made with:
-
the voltmeter in parallel and ammeter in series (0% chose this)
-
the voltmeter in series and ammeter in parallel (0% chose this)
-
both voltmeter and ammeter in series (0% chose this)
-
both voltmeter and ammeter in parallel (0% chose this)
If you have a hand-held transceiver which puts out 500 milliwatts, how many watts would this be?
-
50 (0% chose this)
-
0.02 (0% chose this)
-
0.5 (0% chose this)
-
5 (0% chose this)
What is the word used to describe the rate at which electrical energy is used?
-
Resistance (0% chose this)
-
Power (0% chose this)
-
Current (0% chose this)
-
Voltage (0% chose this)
If you have light bulbs marked 40 watts, 60 watts and 100 watts, which one will use electrical energy the fastest?
-
The 100 watt bulb (0% chose this)
-
They will all be the same (0% chose this)
-
The 40 watt bulb (0% chose this)
-
The 60 watt bulb (0% chose this)
What is the basic unit of electrical power?
-
The ampere (0% chose this)
-
The volt (0% chose this)
-
The ohm (0% chose this)
-
The watt (0% chose this)
Power is expressed in:
-
volts (0% chose this)
-
amperes (0% chose this)
-
ohms (0% chose this)
-
watts (0% chose this)
Which of the following two quantities should be multiplied together to find power?
-
Voltage and inductance (0% chose this)
-
Resistance and capacitance (0% chose this)
-
Voltage and current (0% chose this)
-
Inductance and capacitance (0% chose this)
Which two electrical units multiplied together give the unit "watts"?
-
Volts and farads (0% chose this)
-
Farads and henrys (0% chose this)
-
Amperes and henrys (0% chose this)
-
Volts and amperes (0% chose this)
A resistor in a circuit becomes very hot and starts to burn. This is because the resistor is dissipating too much:
-
voltage (0% chose this)
-
resistance (0% chose this)
-
current (0% chose this)
-
power (0% chose this)
High power resistors are usually large with heavy leads. The size aids the operation of the resistor by:
-
making it shock proof (0% chose this)
-
allowing heat to dissipate more readily (0% chose this)
-
allowing higher voltage to be handled (0% chose this)
-
increasing the effective resistance of the resistor (0% chose this)
The resistor that could dissipate the most heat would be marked:
-
2 ohms (0% chose this)
-
0.5 watt (0% chose this)
-
20 watts (0% chose this)
-
100 ohms (0% chose this)
If a current of 2 amperes flows through a 50-ohm resistor, what is the voltage across the resistor?
-
25 volts (0% chose this)
-
100 volts (0% chose this)
-
48 volts (0% chose this)
-
52 volts (0% chose this)
How is the current in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage and resistance are known?
-
Current equals resistance multiplied by voltage (0% chose this)
-
Current equals resistance divided by voltage (0% chose this)
-
Current equals power divided by voltage (0% chose this)
-
Current equals voltage divided by resistance (0% chose this)
How is the resistance in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage and current are known?
-
Resistance equals current divided by voltage (0% chose this)
-
Resistance equals voltage divided by current (0% chose this)
-
Resistance equals current multiplied by voltage (0% chose this)
-
Resistance equals power divided by voltage (0% chose this)
How is the voltage in a DC circuit calculated when the current and resistance are known?
-
Voltage equals current multiplied by resistance (0% chose this)
-
Voltage equals current divided by resistance (0% chose this)
-
Voltage equals resistance divided by current (0% chose this)
-
Voltage equals power divided by current (0% chose this)
If a 12-volt battery supplies 0.25 ampere to a circuit, what is the circuit's resistance?
-
3 ohms (0% chose this)
-
12 ohms (0% chose this)
-
0.25 ohm (0% chose this)
-
48 ohms (0% chose this)
Calculate the value of resistance necessary to drop 100 volts with current flow of 0.8 milliamperes:
-
1250 ohms (0% chose this)
-
1.25 kilohms (0% chose this)
-
125 kilohms (0% chose this)
-
125 ohms (0% chose this)
The voltage required to force a current of 4.4 amperes through a resistance of 50 ohms is:
-
22.0 volts (0% chose this)
-
0.220 volt (0% chose this)
-
220 volts (0% chose this)
-
2220 volts (0% chose this)
A lamp has a resistance of 30 ohms and a 6 volt battery is connected. The current flow will be:
-
2 amperes (0% chose this)
-
0.5 ampere (0% chose this)
-
0.005 ampere (0% chose this)
-
0.2 ampere (0% chose this)
What voltage would be needed to supply a current of 200 milliamperes, to operate an electric lamp which has a resistance of 25 ohms?
-
175 volts (0% chose this)
-
225 volts (0% chose this)
-
5 volts (0% chose this)
-
8 volts (0% chose this)
The resistance of a circuit can be found by using one of the following:
-
R = I/E (0% chose this)
-
R = E/R (0% chose this)
-
R = E x I (0% chose this)
-
R = E/I (0% chose this)
If a 3 volt battery supplies 300 milliamperes to a circuit, the circuit resistance is:
-
9 ohms (0% chose this)
-
5 ohms (0% chose this)
-
3 ohms (0% chose this)
-
10 ohms (0% chose this)
In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several branch resistors, how is the total current related to the current in the branch resistors?
-
It equals the average of the branch current through each resistor (0% chose this)
-
It decreases as more parallel resistors are added to the circuit (0% chose this)
-
It is the sum of each resistor's voltage drop multiplied by the total number of resistors (0% chose this)
-
It equals the sum of the branch current through each resistor (0% chose this)
Three resistors, respectively rated at 10, 15 and 20 ohms are connected in parallel across a 6-volt battery. Which statement is true?
-
The voltage drop across each resistance added together equals 6 volts (0% chose this)
-
The voltage drop across the 20 ohm resistance is greater than the voltage across the 10 ohm resistance (0% chose this)
-
The current through the 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 20 ohms separate resistances, when added together, equals the total current drawn from the battery (0% chose this)
-
The current flowing through the 10 ohm resistance is less than that flowing through the 20 ohm resistance (0% chose this)
Total resistance in a parallel circuit:
-
depends upon the voltage drop across each branch (0% chose this)
-
could be equal to the resistance of one branch (0% chose this)
-
depends upon the applied voltage (0% chose this)
-
is always less than the smallest resistance (0% chose this)
Two resistors are connected in parallel and are connected across a 40 volt battery. If each resistor is 1000 ohms, the total current is:
-
40 milliamperes (0% chose this)
-
80 amperes (0% chose this)
-
40 amperes (0% chose this)
-
80 milliamperes (0% chose this)
The total resistance of resistors connected in series is:
-
equal to the lowest resistance present (0% chose this)
-
greater than the resistance of any one resistor (0% chose this)
-
less than the resistance of any one resistor (0% chose this)
-
equal to the highest resistance present (0% chose this)
Five 10 ohm resistors connected in series equals:
-
5 ohms (0% chose this)
-
10 ohms (0% chose this)
-
1 ohm (0% chose this)
-
50 ohms (0% chose this)
Which series combination of resistors would replace a single 120 ohm resistor?
-
Six 22 ohm (0% chose this)
-
Two 62 ohm (0% chose this)
-
Five 100 ohm (0% chose this)
-
Five 24 ohm (0% chose this)
If ten resistors of equal value were wired in parallel, the total resistance would be:
-
10 + R (0% chose this)
-
R / 10 (0% chose this)
-
10 / R (0% chose this)
-
10 x R (0% chose this)
The total resistance of four 68 ohm resistors wired in parallel is:
-
17 ohms (0% chose this)
-
12 ohms (0% chose this)
-
34 ohms (0% chose this)
-
272 ohms (0% chose this)
Two resistors are in parallel. Resistor A carries twice the current of resistor B, which means that:
-
the voltage across A is twice that across B (0% chose this)
-
B has half the resistance of A (0% chose this)
-
A has half the resistance of B (0% chose this)
-
the voltage across B is twice that across A (0% chose this)
The total current in a parallel circuit is equal to the:
-
source voltage divided by the sum of the resistive elements (0% chose this)
-
current in any one of the parallel branches (0% chose this)
-
sum of the currents through all the parallel branches (0% chose this)
-
source voltage divided by the value of one of the resistive elements (0% chose this)
Why would a large size resistor be used instead of a smaller one of the same resistance?
-
For a higher current gain (0% chose this)
-
For less impedance in the circuit (0% chose this)
-
For greater power dissipation (0% chose this)
-
For better response time (0% chose this)
How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 volt DC light bulb that draws 0.2 ampere?
-
60 watts (0% chose this)
-
24 watts (0% chose this)
-
6 watts (0% chose this)
-
2.4 watts (0% chose this)
The DC input power of a transmitter operating at 12 volts and drawing 500 milliamperes would be:
-
12 watts (0% chose this)
-
6 watts (0% chose this)
-
20 watts (0% chose this)
-
500 watts (0% chose this)
When two 500 ohm 1 watt resistors are connected in series, the maximum total power that can be dissipated by the resistors is:
-
1 watt (0% chose this)
-
1/2 watt (0% chose this)
-
4 watts (0% chose this)
-
2 watts (0% chose this)
When two 500 ohm 1 watt resistors are connected in parallel, they can dissipate a maximum total power of:
-
1 watt (0% chose this)
-
4 watts (0% chose this)
-
2 watts (0% chose this)
-
1/2 watt (0% chose this)
If the voltage applied to two resistors in series is doubled, how much will the total power change?
-
Increase four times (0% chose this)
-
Decrease to half (0% chose this)
-
Double (0% chose this)
-
No change (0% chose this)
Which combination of resistors could make up a 50 ohms dummy load capable of safely dissipating 5 watts?
-
Four 2-watt 200 ohms resistors in parallel (0% chose this)
-
Two 5-watt 100 ohms resistors in series (0% chose this)
-
Two 2-watt 25 ohms resistors in series (0% chose this)
-
Ten quarter-watt 500 ohms resistors in parallel (0% chose this)
A 12 volt light bulb is rated at a power of 30 watts. The current drawn would be:
-
12/30 amperes (0% chose this)
-
30/12 amperes (0% chose this)
-
18 amperes (0% chose this)
-
360 amperes (0% chose this)
If two 10 ohm resistors are connected in series with a 10 volt battery, the power consumption would be:
-
100 watts (0% chose this)
-
5 watts (0% chose this)
-
10 watts (0% chose this)
-
20 watts (0% chose this)
One advantage of replacing a 50 ohm resistor with a parallel combination of two similarly rated 100 ohm resistors is that the parallel combination will have:
-
lesser resistance and similar power rating (0% chose this)
-
the same resistance but greater power rating (0% chose this)
-
the same resistance but lesser power rating (0% chose this)
-
greater resistance and similar power rating (0% chose this)
Resistor wattage ratings are:
-
variable in steps of one hundred (0% chose this)
-
determined by heat dissipation qualities (0% chose this)
-
calculated according to physical size and tolerance rating (0% chose this)
-
expressed in joules (0% chose this)
If a dial marked in megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz, what would it show if it were marked in kilohertz?
-
3 525 000 kHz (0% chose this)
-
0.003525 kHz (0% chose this)
-
3525 kHz (0% chose this)
-
35.25 kHz (0% chose this)
One megahertz is equal to:
-
1 000 kHz (0% chose this)
-
100 kHz (0% chose this)
-
0.001 Hz (0% chose this)
-
10 Hz (0% chose this)
Electrical energy at a frequency of 7125 kHz is in what frequency range?
-
Hyper (0% chose this)
-
Super-high (0% chose this)
-
Radio (0% chose this)
-
Audio (0% chose this)
What is the name for the distance an AC signal travels during one complete cycle?
-
Wave spread (0% chose this)
-
Wavelength (0% chose this)
-
Wave speed (0% chose this)
-
Waveform (0% chose this)
What happens to a signal's wavelength as its frequency increases?
-
It disappears (0% chose this)
-
It gets shorter (0% chose this)
-
It gets longer (0% chose this)
-
It stays the same (0% chose this)
What happens to a signal's frequency as its wavelength gets longer?
-
It disappears (0% chose this)
-
It stays the same (0% chose this)
-
It goes up (0% chose this)
-
It goes down (0% chose this)
How many microfarads is 1 000 000 picofarads?
-
1000 microfarads (0% chose this)
-
0.001 microfarad (0% chose this)
-
1 microfarad (0% chose this)
-
1 000 000 000 microfarads (0% chose this)
An inductance of 10 000 microhenrys may be stated correctly as:
-
10 millihenrys (0% chose this)
-
100 millihenrys (0% chose this)
-
10 henrys (0% chose this)
-
1 000 henrys (0% chose this)
If two equal-value inductors are connected in series, what is their total inductance?
-
Half the value of one inductor (0% chose this)
-
The same as the value of either inductor (0% chose this)
-
The value of one inductor times the value of the other (0% chose this)
-
Twice the value of one inductor (0% chose this)
If two equal-value inductors are connected in parallel, what is their total inductance?
-
The value of one inductor times the value of the other (0% chose this)
-
Half the value of one inductor (0% chose this)
-
Twice the value of one inductor (0% chose this)
-
The same as the value of either inductor (0% chose this)
If two equal-value capacitors are connected in series, what is their total capacitance?
-
Twice the value of one capacitor (0% chose this)
-
The same as the value of either capacitor (0% chose this)
-
The value of one capacitor times the value of the other (0% chose this)
-
Half the value of either capacitor (0% chose this)
If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is their total capacitance?
-
The value of one capacitor times the value of the other (0% chose this)
-
Half the value of one capacitor (0% chose this)
-
Twice the value of one capacitor (0% chose this)
-
The same as the value of either capacitor (0% chose this)
What determines the inductance of a coil?
-
The coil diameter, the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil and the type of metal used for the wire (0% chose this)
-
The core material, the coil diameter, the length of the coil and whether the coil is mounted horizontally or vertically (0% chose this)
-
The core material, the coil diameter, the length of the coil and the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil (0% chose this)
-
The core material, the number of turns used to wind the coil and the frequency of the current through the coil (0% chose this)
What determines the capacitance of a capacitor?
-
The material between the plates, the area of one plate, the number of plates and the material used for the protective coating (0% chose this)
-
The material between the plates, the surface area of the plates, the number of plates and the spacing between the plates (0% chose this)
-
The material between the plates, the number of plates and the size of the wires connected to the plates (0% chose this)
-
The number of plates, the spacing between the plates and whether the dielectric material is N type or P type (0% chose this)
If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is their capacitance?
-
The value of one capacitor times the value of the other (0% chose this)
-
Half the value of either capacitor (0% chose this)
-
Twice the value of either capacitor (0% chose this)
-
The same value of either capacitor (0% chose this)
To replace a faulty 10 millihenry choke, you could use two:
-
5 millihenry chokes in series (0% chose this)
-
20 millihenry chokes in series (0% chose this)
-
30 millihenry chokes in parallel (0% chose this)
-
5 millihenry chokes in parallel (0% chose this)
Three 15 microfarad capacitors are wired in series. The total capacitance of this arrangement is:
-
12 microfarads (0% chose this)
-
18 microfarads (0% chose this)
-
5 microfarads (0% chose this)
-
45 microfarads (0% chose this)
Which series combinations of capacitors would best replace a faulty 10 microfarad capacitor?
-
Two 10 microfarad capacitors (0% chose this)
-
Twenty 2 microfarad capacitors (0% chose this)
-
Ten 2 microfarad capacitors (0% chose this)
-
Two 20 microfarad capacitors (0% chose this)
The total capacitance of two or more capacitors in series is:
-
always greater than the largest capacitor (0% chose this)
-
always less than the smallest capacitor (0% chose this)
-
found by adding each of the capacitors together and dividing by the total number of capacitors (0% chose this)
-
found by adding each of the capacitors together (0% chose this)
How does a coil react to AC?
-
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this)
-
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this)
-
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this)
-
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this)
How does a capacitor react to AC?
-
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this)
-
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this)
-
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this)
-
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this)
The reactance of capacitors increases as:
-
frequency decreases (0% chose this)
-
applied voltage increases (0% chose this)
-
applied voltage decreases (0% chose this)
-
frequency increases (0% chose this)
In inductances, AC may be opposed by both resistance of winding wire and reactance due to inductive effect. The term which includes resistance and reactance is:
-
inductance (0% chose this)
-
capacitance (0% chose this)
-
impedance (0% chose this)
-
resonance (0% chose this)
Capacitive reactance:
-
applies only to series RLC circuits (0% chose this)
-
increases as frequency increases (0% chose this)
-
increases with the time constant (0% chose this)
-
decreases as frequency increases (0% chose this)
Inductive reactance may be increased by:
-
an increase in the applied voltage (0% chose this)
-
an increase in the applied frequency (0% chose this)
-
a decrease in the applied frequency (0% chose this)
-
a decrease in the supplied current (0% chose this)
What property allows a coil wound on a ferrite core to mitigate the effects of an offending radio signal?
-
Low reactance at audio frequencies (0% chose this)
-
High reactance at audio frequencies (0% chose this)
-
High reactance at radio frequencies (0% chose this)
-
Low reactance at radio frequencies (0% chose this)
What property allows an RF bypass capacitor on an audio circuit to divert an offending radio signal?
-
High reactance at audio frequencies (0% chose this)
-
Low reactance at radio frequencies (0% chose this)
-
High reactance at radio frequencies (0% chose this)
-
Low reactance at audio frequencies (0% chose this)
What property allows an RF bypass capacitor to have little effect on an audio circuit?
-
High reactance at high frequencies (0% chose this)
-
Low reactance at low frequencies (0% chose this)
-
High reactance at low frequencies (0% chose this)
-
Low reactance at high frequencies (0% chose this)
What property allows an RF choke coil to have little effect on signals meant to flow through the coil?
-
Low reactance at high frequencies (0% chose this)
-
High reactance at high frequencies (0% chose this)
-
Low reactance at low frequencies (0% chose this)
-
High reactance at low frequencies (0% chose this)
In general, the reactance of inductors increases with:
-
decreasing applied voltage (0% chose this)
-
increasing applied voltage (0% chose this)
-
increasing AC frequency (0% chose this)
-
decreasing AC frequency (0% chose this)
If no load is attached to the secondary winding of a transformer, what is current in the primary winding called?
-
Direct current (0% chose this)
-
Latent current (0% chose this)
-
Stabilizing current (0% chose this)
-
Magnetizing current (0% chose this)
A transformer operates a 6.3 volt 2 ampere light bulb from its secondary winding. The input power to the primary winding is approximately:
-
3 watts (0% chose this)
-
13 watts (0% chose this)
-
6 watts (0% chose this)
-
8 watts (0% chose this)
A transformer has a 240 volt primary that draws a current of 250 milliamperes from the mains supply. Assuming no losses and only one secondary, what current would be available from the 12 volt secondary?
-
5 amperes (0% chose this)
-
215 amperes (0% chose this)
-
25 amperes (0% chose this)
-
50 amperes (0% chose this)
In a mains power transformer, the primary winding has 250 turns, and the secondary has 500. If the input voltage is 120 volts, the likely secondary voltage is:
-
26 V (0% chose this)
-
240 V (0% chose this)
-
480 V (0% chose this)
-
610 V (0% chose this)
The strength of the magnetic field around a conductor in air is:
-
inversely proportional to the voltage on the conductor (0% chose this)
-
directly proportional to the current in the conductor (0% chose this)
-
inversely proportional to the diameter of the conductor (0% chose this)
-
directly proportional to the diameter of the conductor (0% chose this)
Maximum induced voltage in a coil occurs when:
-
current is going through its greatest rate of change (0% chose this)
-
the current through the coil is of a DC nature (0% chose this)
-
current is going through its least rate of change (0% chose this)
-
the magnetic field around the coil is not changing (0% chose this)
The voltage induced in a conductor moving in a magnetic field is at a maximum when the movement is:
-
made in a clockwise direction (0% chose this)
-
perpendicular to the lines of force (0% chose this)
-
made in a counter clockwise direction (0% chose this)
-
parallel to the lines of force (0% chose this)
A 100% efficient transformer has a turns ratio of 1/5. If the secondary current is 50 milliamperes, the primary current is:
-
2 500 mA (0% chose this)
-
0.01 A (0% chose this)
-
0.25 mA (0% chose this)
-
0.25 A (0% chose this)
The fact that energy transfer from primary to secondary windings in a power transformer is not perfect is indicated by:
-
large secondary currents (0% chose this)
-
high primary voltages (0% chose this)
-
warm iron laminations (0% chose this)
-
electrostatic shielding (0% chose this)
Resonance is the condition that exists when:
-
inductive reactance is the only opposition in the circuit (0% chose this)
-
the circuit contains no resistance (0% chose this)
-
resistance is equal to the reactance (0% chose this)
-
inductive reactance and capacitive reactance are equal (0% chose this)
Parallel tuned circuits offer:
-
an impedance equal to resistance of the circuit (0% chose this)
-
high impedance at resonance (0% chose this)
-
low impedance at resonance (0% chose this)
-
zero impedance at resonance (0% chose this)
Resonance is an electrical property used to describe:
-
the results of tuning a varicap (varactor) (0% chose this)
-
the frequency characteristic of a coil and capacitor circuit (0% chose this)
-
an inductor (0% chose this)
-
a set of parallel inductors (0% chose this)
A tuned circuit is formed from two basic components. These are:
-
inductors and capacitors (0% chose this)
-
resistors and transistors (0% chose this)
-
directors and reflectors (0% chose this)
-
diodes and transistors (0% chose this)
When a parallel coil-capacitor combination is supplied with AC of different frequencies, there will be one frequency where the impedance will be highest. This is the:
-
reactive frequency (0% chose this)
-
resonant frequency (0% chose this)
-
impedance frequency (0% chose this)
-
inductive frequency (0% chose this)
In a parallel-resonant circuit at resonance, the circuit has a:
-
high impedance (0% chose this)
-
low impedance (0% chose this)
-
low mutual inductance (0% chose this)
-
high mutual inductance (0% chose this)
In a series resonant circuit at resonance, the circuit has:
-
high mutual inductance (0% chose this)
-
low impedance (0% chose this)
-
high impedance (0% chose this)
-
low mutual inductance (0% chose this)
A coil and an air-spaced capacitor are arranged to form a resonant circuit. The resonant frequency will remain the same if we:
-
wind more turns on the coil (0% chose this)
-
add a resistor to the circuit (0% chose this)
-
increase the area of plates in the capacitor (0% chose this)
-
insert Mylar sheets between the plates of the capacitor (0% chose this)
Resonant circuits in a receiver are used to:
-
select signal frequencies (0% chose this)
-
filter direct current (0% chose this)
-
increase power (0% chose this)
-
adjust voltage levels (0% chose this)
Resonance is the condition that exists when:
-
resistance is equal to the reactance (0% chose this)
-
inductive reactance and capacitive reactance are equal and opposite in sign (0% chose this)
-
inductive reactance is the only opposition in the circuit (0% chose this)
-
the circuit contains no resistance (0% chose this)
When a series LCR circuit is tuned to the frequency of the source, the:
-
line current leads the applied voltage (0% chose this)
-
impedance is maximum (0% chose this)
-
line current reaches maximum (0% chose this)
-
line current lags the applied voltage (0% chose this)
When will a power source deliver maximum output to the load?
-
When the load resistance is infinite (0% chose this)
-
When the impedance of the load is equal to the impedance of the source (0% chose this)
-
When air wound transformers are used instead of iron-core transformers (0% chose this)
-
When the power-supply fuse rating equals the primary winding current (0% chose this)
What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the internal impedance of the power source?
-
The source delivers minimum power to the load (0% chose this)
-
The source delivers maximum power to the load (0% chose this)
-
The electrical load is shorted (0% chose this)
-
No current can flow through the circuit (0% chose this)
Why is impedance matching important?
-
So the source can deliver maximum power to the load (0% chose this)
-
So the load will draw minimum power from the source (0% chose this)
-
To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit (0% chose this)
-
To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal (0% chose this)
An amateur radio station with a maximum input power to the final stage of 2 watts:
-
is exempt from regulatory control by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
-
must be operated by a person with an Amateur Certificate and call sign (0% chose this)
-
must be licensed by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
-
need not be licensed in isolated areas only (0% chose this)
An amateur station may be used to communicate with:
-
any station transmitting in the amateur bands (0% chose this)
-
stations operated under similar authorizations (0% chose this)
-
any stations which are identified for special contests (0% chose this)
-
armed forces stations during special contests and training exercises (0% chose this)
Which of the following statements is not correct?
-
A radio amateur may not operate, or permit to be operated, a radio apparatus which he knows is not performing to the Radiocommunication Regulations (0% chose this)
-
A radio amateur may use a linear amplifier to amplify the output of a licence-exempt transmitter outside any amateur radio allocations (0% chose this)
-
A considerate operator does not transmit unnecessary signals (0% chose this)
-
A courteous operator refrains from using offensive language (0% chose this)
Which of the following statements is not correct?
-
An amateur radio operator transmitting unnecessary or offensive signals does not violate accepted practice (0% chose this)
-
Except for a certified radio amateur operating within authorized amateur radio allocations, no person shall possess or operate any device for the purpose of amplifying the output power of a licence-exempt radio apparatus (0% chose this)
-
A person may operate or permit the operation of radio apparatus only where the apparatus is maintained to the Radiocommunication Regulations tolerances (0% chose this)
-
A person may operate an amateur radio station when the person complies with the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service (0% chose this)
Which of the following statements is not correct? A person may operate radio apparatus, authorized in the amateur service:
-
except for the amplification of the output power of licence-exempt radio apparatus operating outside authorized amateur radio service allocations (0% chose this)
-
on aeronautical, marine or land mobile frequencies (0% chose this)
-
only where the person complies with the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service (0% chose this)
-
only where the apparatus is maintained within the performance standards set by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada regulations and policies (0% chose this)
Some VHF and UHF FM radios purchased for use in the amateur service can also be programmed to communicate on frequencies used for the land mobile service. Under what conditions is this permissible?
-
The equipment has a RF power output of 2 watts or less (0% chose this)
-
The equipment is used in remote areas north of 60 degrees latitude (0% chose this)
-
The radio is certified under the proper Radio Standard Specification for use in Canada and licensed by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada on the specified frequencies (0% chose this)
-
The radio operator has a Restricted Operator's Certificate (0% chose this)
Which of the following cannot be discussed on an amateur club net?
-
Recreation planning (0% chose this)
-
Code practice planning (0% chose this)
-
Emergency planning (0% chose this)
-
Business planning (0% chose this)
When is a radio amateur allowed to broadcast information to the general public?
-
Only when broadcasts last less than 1 hour (0% chose this)
-
Only when broadcasts last longer than 15 minutes (0% chose this)
-
Never (0% chose this)
-
Only when the operator is being paid (0% chose this)
When may false or deceptive amateur signals or communications be transmitted?
-
When you need to hide the meaning of a message for secrecy (0% chose this)
-
Never (0% chose this)
-
When operating a beacon transmitter in a "fox hunt" exercise (0% chose this)
-
When playing a harmless "practical joke" (0% chose this)
Which of the following one-way communications may not be transmitted in the amateur service?
-
Morse code practice (0% chose this)
-
Broadcasts intended for the general public (0% chose this)
-
Radio control commands to model craft (0% chose this)
-
Brief transmissions to make adjustments to the station (0% chose this)
You wish to develop and use a new digital encoding technique to transmit data over amateur radio spectrum. Under what conditions is this permissible?
-
When it is used for commercial traffic (0% chose this)
-
When it includes sending the amateur station's call sign (0% chose this)
-
When the encoding technique is published in the public domain (0% chose this)
-
When it is used for music streaming content (0% chose this)
When may an amateur station in two-way communication transmit an encoded message?
-
During contests (0% chose this)
-
When transmitting above 450 MHz (0% chose this)
-
Only when the encoding or cipher is not secret (0% chose this)
-
During a declared communications emergency (0% chose this)
What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?
-
They are not permitted because they obscure the meaning of a message to government monitoring stations (0% chose this)
-
Only "10 codes" are permitted (0% chose this)
-
They may be used if the signals or codes are not secret (0% chose this)
-
There are no restrictions (0% chose this)
What should you do to keep you station from retransmitting music or signals from a non-amateur station?
-
Adjust your transceiver noise blanker (0% chose this)
-
Turn down the volume of background audio (0% chose this)
-
Turn up the volume of your transmitter (0% chose this)
-
Speak closer to the microphone to increase your signal strength (0% chose this)
The transmission of a secret code by the operator of an amateur station:
-
is permitted for contests (0% chose this)
-
must be approved by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
-
is permitted for third-party traffic (0% chose this)
-
is not permitted (0% chose this)
A radio amateur may be engaged in communication which include the transmission of:
-
radiocommunication in support of industrial, business, or professional activities (0% chose this)
-
commercially recorded material (0% chose this)
-
Q signals (0% chose this)
-
programming that originates from a broadcasting undertaking (0% chose this)
In the amateur radio service, business communications:
-
are only permitted if they are for the safety of life or immediate protection of property (0% chose this)
-
are not prohibited by regulation (0% chose this)
-
are not permitted under any circumstance (0% chose this)
-
are permitted on some bands (0% chose this)
Where may the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate operate an amateur radio station in Canada?
-
Anywhere in Canada (0% chose this)
-
Anywhere in Canada during times of emergency (0% chose this)
-
Only at the address shown on Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada records (0% chose this)
-
Anywhere in your call sign prefix area (0% chose this)
Which type of station may transmit one-way communications?
-
HF station (0% chose this)
-
VHF station (0% chose this)
-
Beacon station (0% chose this)
-
Repeater station (0% chose this)
Amateur radio operators may install or operate radio apparatus:
-
at the address which is on record at Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada and at one other location (0% chose this)
-
at the address which is on record at Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada and in two mobiles (0% chose this)
-
at any location in Canada (0% chose this)
-
only at the address which is on record at Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
In order to install any radio apparatus, to be used specifically for receiving and automatically retransmitting radiotelephone communications within the same frequency band, a radio amateur must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate, with a minimum of:
-
Basic and Morse code qualifications (0% chose this)
-
Basic qualification (0% chose this)
-
Basic with Honours qualification (0% chose this)
-
Basic and Advanced qualifications (0% chose this)
In order to install any radio apparatus, to be used specifically for an amateur radio club station, the radio amateur must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate, with a minimum of the following qualifications:
-
Basic with Honours (0% chose this)
-
Basic and Advanced (0% chose this)
-
Basic, Advanced and Morse code (0% chose this)
-
Basic (0% chose this)
In order to install or operate a transmitter or RF amplifier that is neither professionally designed nor commercially manufactured for use in the amateur service, a radio amateur must hold an Amateur Operator's Certificate, with a minimum of which qualifications?
-
Basic and Advanced (0% chose this)
-
Basic with Honours (0% chose this)
-
Basic and Morse code (0% chose this)
-
Basic, Advanced and Morse code (0% chose this)
Who is responsible for the proper operation of an amateur station?
-
The person who owns the station equipment (0% chose this)
-
Only the control operator (0% chose this)
-
Both the control operator and the station owner (0% chose this)
-
Only the station owner who is the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate (0% chose this)
If you transmit from another amateur's station, who is responsible for its proper operation?
-
You (0% chose this)
-
The station owner, unless the station records show that you were the control operator at the time (0% chose this)
-
The station owner (0% chose this)
-
Both of you (0% chose this)
What is your responsibility as a station owner?
-
You are responsible for the proper operation of the station in accordance with the regulations (0% chose this)
-
You must allow another amateur to operate your station upon request (0% chose this)
-
You must be present whenever the station is operated (0% chose this)
-
You must notify Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada if another amateur acts as the control operator (0% chose this)
Who may be the control operator of an amateur station?
-
Any qualified amateur chosen by the station owner (0% chose this)
-
Any person over 21 years of age with a Basic Qualification (0% chose this)
-
Any person over 21 years of age with Basic and Morse code qualifications (0% chose this)
-
Any person over 21 years of age (0% chose this)
When must an amateur station have a control operator?
-
A control operator is not needed (0% chose this)
-
Whenever the station receiver is operated (0% chose this)
-
Only when training another amateur (0% chose this)
-
Whenever the station is transmitting (0% chose this)
When an amateur station is transmitting, where must its control operator be?
-
Anywhere within 50 km of the station location (0% chose this)
-
At the station's control point (0% chose this)
-
Anywhere in the same building as the transmitter (0% chose this)
-
At the station's entrance, to control entry to the room (0% chose this)
Why can't family members without qualifications transmit using your amateur station if they are alone with your equipment?
-
They must first know how to use the right abbreviations and Q signals (0% chose this)
-
They must first know the right frequencies and emission modes for transmitting (0% chose this)
-
They must hold suitable amateur radio qualifications before they are allowed to be control operators (0% chose this)
-
They must not use your equipment without your permission (0% chose this)
The owner of an amateur station may:
-
permit any person to operate the station under the supervision and in the presence of the holder of the amateur operator certificate (0% chose this)
-
permit anyone to take part in communications only if prior written permission is received from Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
-
permit anyone to use the station without restrictions (0% chose this)
-
permit anyone to use the station and take part in communications (0% chose this)
Which of the following statements is correct?
-
Any person may operate an amateur station under supervision, and in the presence of, a person holding appropriate qualifications (0% chose this)
-
A person, holding only Basic Qualification, may operate another station on 14.2 MHz (0% chose this)
-
Radio amateurs may permit any person to operate the station without supervision (0% chose this)
-
Any person may operate a station in the amateur radio service (0% chose this)
What is a transmission called that disturbs other communications?
-
Harmful interference (0% chose this)
-
Interrupted CW (0% chose this)
-
Transponder signals (0% chose this)
-
Unidentified transmissions (0% chose this)
When may you deliberately interfere with another station's communications?
-
Never (0% chose this)
-
Only if the station is operating illegally (0% chose this)
-
Only if the station begins transmitting on a frequency you are using (0% chose this)
-
You may expect, and cause, deliberate interference because it can't be helped during crowded band conditions (0% chose this)
If the regulations say that the amateur service is a secondary user of a frequency band, and another service is a primary user, what does this mean?
-
Amateurs must increase transmitter power to overcome any interference caused by primary users (0% chose this)
-
Amateurs are allowed to use the frequency band only if they do not cause interference to primary users (0% chose this)
-
Nothing special: all users of a frequency band have equal rights to operate (0% chose this)
-
Amateurs are only allowed to use the frequency band during emergencies (0% chose this)
What rule applies if two amateurs want to use the same frequency?
-
Station operators in ITU Regions 1 and 3 must yield the frequency to stations in ITU Region 2 (0% chose this)
-
Both station operators have an equal right to operate on the frequency (0% chose this)
-
The station operator with a lesser qualification must yield the frequency to an operator of higher qualification (0% chose this)
-
The station operator with a lower power output must yield the frequency to the station with a higher power output (0% chose this)
What name is given to a form of interference that seriously degrades, obstructs or repeatedly interrupts a radiocommunication service?
-
Intentional interference (0% chose this)
-
Adjacent interference (0% chose this)
-
Disruptive interference (0% chose this)
-
Harmful interference (0% chose this)
Where interference to the reception of radiocommunications is caused by the operation of an amateur station:
-
the Minister may require that the necessary steps for the prevention of the interference be taken by the radio amateur (0% chose this)
-
the amateur station operator is not obligated to take any action (0% chose this)
-
the amateur station operator may continue to operate without restrictions (0% chose this)
-
the amateur station operator may continue to operate and the necessary steps can be taken when the amateur operator can afford it (0% chose this)
Radio amateur operation must not cause interference to other radio services operating in which of the following bands?
-
7.0 to 7.1 MHz (0% chose this)
-
144.0 to 148.0 MHz (0% chose this)
-
14.0 to 14.2 MHz (0% chose this)
-
430.0 to 450.0 MHz (0% chose this)
Radio amateur operations are not ARE NOT protected from interference caused by another service operating in which of the following frequency bands?
-
144 to 148 MHz (0% chose this)
-
222 to 225 MHz (0% chose this)
-
50 to 54 MHz (0% chose this)
-
902 to 928 MHz (0% chose this)
Which of the following is not correct? The operator of an amateur station:
-
shall not cause harmful interference to a station in another service which has primary use of that band (0% chose this)
-
may conduct technical experiments using the station apparatus (0% chose this)
-
may make trials or tests, except if there is a possibility of interference to other stations (0% chose this)
-
may make trials or tests, even though there is a possibility of interfering with other stations (0% chose this)
Which of these amateur bands may be heavily occupied by licence exempt devices?
-
3.5 to 4.0 MHz (0% chose this)
-
430 to 450 MHz (0% chose this)
-
135.7 to 137.8 kHz (0% chose this)
-
902 to 928 MHz (0% chose this)
The amateur radio service is authorized to share a portion of what Industrial Scientific Medical (ISM) band that is heavily used by licence exempt devices?
-
2300 to 2450 MHz (0% chose this)
-
430 to 450 MHz (0% chose this)
-
144 to 148 MHz (0% chose this)
-
1240 to 1300 MHz (0% chose this)
Amateur radio stations may communicate:
-
with any station involved in a real or simulated emergency (0% chose this)
-
only with other amateur stations (0% chose this)
-
with anyone who uses international Morse code (0% chose this)
-
with non amateur stations (0% chose this)
During relief operations in the days following a disaster, when may an amateur use his equipment to communicate on frequencies outside amateur bands?
-
Never (0% chose this)
-
When relaying messages on behalf of government agencies (0% chose this)
-
When messages are destined to agencies without amateur radio support (0% chose this)
-
When normal communication systems are overloaded, damaged or disrupted (0% chose this)
If you hear an unanswered distress signal on an amateur band where you do not have privileges to communicate:
-
you may offer assistance after contacting Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada for permission to do so (0% chose this)
-
you may not offer assistance (0% chose this)
-
you should offer assistance (0% chose this)
-
you may offer assistance using international Morse code only (0% chose this)
In the amateur radio service, it is permissible to broadcast:
-
programming that originates from a broadcast undertaking (0% chose this)
-
radio communications required for the immediate safety of life of individuals or the immediate protection of property (0% chose this)
-
music (0% chose this)
-
commercially recorded material (0% chose this)
An amateur radio station in distress may:
-
only use radiocommunication bands for which the operator is qualified to use (0% chose this)
-
use any means of radiocommunication, but only on internationally recognized emergency channels (0% chose this)
-
only Morse code communications on internationally recognized emergency channels (0% chose this)
-
any means of radiocommunication (0% chose this)
During a disaster, when may an amateur station make transmissions necessary to meet essential communication needs and assist relief operations?
-
Never: only official emergency stations may transmit in a disaster (0% chose this)
-
When normal communication systems are working but are not convenient (0% chose this)
-
Only when the local emergency net is activated (0% chose this)
-
When normal communication systems are overloaded, damaged or disrupted (0% chose this)
During an emergency, what power output limitations must be observed by a station in distress?
-
200 watts PEP (0% chose this)
-
There are no limitations for a station in distress (0% chose this)
-
1000 watts PEP during daylight hours, reduced to 200 watts PEP during the night (0% chose this)
-
1500 watts PEP (0% chose this)
During a disaster:
-
use any United Nations approved frequency (0% chose this)
-
most communications are handled by nets using predetermined frequencies in amateur bands. Operators not directly involved with disaster communications are requested to avoid making unnecessary transmissions on or near frequencies being used for disaster communications (0% chose this)
-
use only frequencies in the 80 metre band (0% chose this)
-
use only frequencies in the 40 metre band (0% chose this)
Messages from recognized public service agencies may be handled by amateur radio stations:
-
during peace time and civil emergencies and exercises (0% chose this)
-
using Morse code only (0% chose this)
-
when Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada has issued a special authorization (0% chose this)
-
only on the 7 and 14 MHz bands (0% chose this)
It is permissible to interfere with the working of another station if:
-
you both wish to contact the same station (0% chose this)
-
the other station is interfering with your transmission (0% chose this)
-
your station is directly involved with a distress situation (0% chose this)
-
the other station is not operating according to the Radiocommunication Regulations (0% chose this)
What kind of payment is allowed for third-party messages sent by an amateur station?
-
No payment of any kind is allowed (0% chose this)
-
Donation of amateur equipment (0% chose this)
-
Donation of equipment repairs (0% chose this)
-
Any amount agreed upon in advance (0% chose this)
Radiocommunications transmitted by stations other than a broadcasting station may be divulged or used:
-
during peacetime civil emergencies (0% chose this)
-
if it is transmitted by an amateur station (0% chose this)
-
if transmitted by any station using the international Morse code (0% chose this)
-
if transmitted in English or French (0% chose this)
The operator of an amateur station:
-
may accept a gift or gratuity in lieu of remuneration for any message that the person transmits or receives (0% chose this)
-
shall not demand or accept remuneration in any form, in respect of a radiocommunication that the person transmits or receives (0% chose this)
-
shall charge no less than $10 for each message that the person transmits or receives (0% chose this)
-
shall charge no more than $10 for each message that the person transmits or receives (0% chose this)
Which of the following is not an exception from the penalties under the Act, for divulging, intercepting or using information obtained through radiocommunication, other than broadcasting?
-
Where it is for the purpose of preserving or protecting property, or for the prevention of harm to a person (0% chose this)
-
Where it is for the purpose of giving evidence in a criminal or civil proceeding in which persons are required to give evidence (0% chose this)
-
Where it is on behalf of Canada, for the purpose of international or national defence or security (0% chose this)
-
Where it is to provide information for a journalist (0% chose this)
Which of the following call signs is a valid Canadian amateur radio call sign?
-
SM2CAN (0% chose this)
-
BY7HY (0% chose this)
-
KA9OLS (0% chose this)
-
VA3XYZ (0% chose this)
How often must an amateur station be identified?
-
At the beginning and end of each transmission (0% chose this)
-
At least every thirty minutes, and at the beginning and at the end of a contact (0% chose this)
-
At the beginning of a contact and at least every thirty minutes after that (0% chose this)
-
At least once during each transmission (0% chose this)
What do you transmit to identify your amateur station?
-
Your first name and your location (0% chose this)
-
Your full name (0% chose this)
-
Your call sign (0% chose this)
-
Your "handle" (0% chose this)
What identification, if any, is required when two amateur stations begin communications?
-
Each station must transmit its own call sign (0% chose this)
-
No identification is required (0% chose this)
-
Both stations must transmit both call signs (0% chose this)
-
One of the stations must give both stations' call signs (0% chose this)
What identification, if any, is required when two amateur stations end communications?
-
Each station must transmit its own call sign (0% chose this)
-
No identification is required (0% chose this)
-
One of the stations must transmit both stations' call signs (0% chose this)
-
Both stations must transmit both call signs (0% chose this)
What is the longest period of time an amateur station can transmit, without identifying by call sign?
-
10 minutes (0% chose this)
-
30 minutes (0% chose this)
-
20 minutes (0% chose this)
-
15 minutes (0% chose this)
When may an amateur transmit unidentified communications?
-
Never, except to control a model craft (0% chose this)
-
Only for brief tests not meant as messages (0% chose this)
-
Only if it does not interfere with others (0% chose this)
-
Only for two-way or third-party communications (0% chose this)
What language may you use when identifying your station?
-
Any language being used for a contact (0% chose this)
-
Any language being used for a contact, providing Canada has a third-party communications agreement with that country (0% chose this)
-
Any language of a country which is a member of the International Telecommunication Union (0% chose this)
-
English or French (0% chose this)
The call sign of an amateur station must be transmitted:
-
at intervals not greater than three minutes when using voice communications (0% chose this)
-
at intervals not greater than ten minutes when using Morse code (0% chose this)
-
when requested to do so by the station being called (0% chose this)
-
at the beginning and at the end of each exchange of communications and at intervals not greater than 30 minutes (0% chose this)
The call sign of an amateur station must be sent:
-
once after initial contact (0% chose this)
-
at the beginning and end of each exchange of communications, and at least every 30 minutes, while in communications (0% chose this)
-
every minute (0% chose this)
-
every 15 minutes (0% chose this)
The call sign of a Canadian amateur radio station would normally start with the letters:
-
VA, VE, VO or VY (0% chose this)
-
GA, GE, MO or VQ (0% chose this)
-
A, K, N or W (0% chose this)
-
EA, EI, RO or UY (0% chose this)
A two-times increase in power results in a change of how many dB?
-
1 dB higher (0% chose this)
-
3 dB higher (0% chose this)
-
6 dB higher (0% chose this)
-
12 dB higher (0% chose this)
How can you decrease your transmitter's power by 3 dB?
-
Divide the original power by 4 (0% chose this)
-
Divide the original power by 2 (0% chose this)
-
Divide the original power by 1.5 (0% chose this)
-
Divide the original power by 3 (0% chose this)
How can you increase your transmitter's power by 6 dB?
-
Multiply the original power by 3 (0% chose this)
-
Multiply the original power by 2 (0% chose this)
-
Multiply the original power by 1.5 (0% chose this)
-
Multiply the original power by 4 (0% chose this)
If a signal-strength report is "10 dB over S9", what should the report be if the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to 150 watts?
-
S9 plus 3 dB (0% chose this)
-
S9 minus 10 dB (0% chose this)
-
S9 plus 5 dB (0% chose this)
-
S9 (0% chose this)
If a signal-strength report is "20 dB over S9", what should the report be if the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to 150 watts?
-
S9 (0% chose this)
-
S9 plus 10 dB (0% chose this)
-
S9 plus 5 dB (0% chose this)
-
S9 plus 3 dB (0% chose this)
The unit "decibel" is used to indicate:
-
certain radio waves (0% chose this)
-
a single side band signal (0% chose this)
-
a mathematical ratio (0% chose this)
-
an oscilloscope wave form (0% chose this)
The power output from a transmitter increases from 1 watt to 2 watts. This is a dB increase of:
-
3 (0% chose this)
-
30 (0% chose this)
-
6 (0% chose this)
-
1 (0% chose this)
The power of a transmitter is increased from 5 watts to 50 watts by a linear amplifier. The power gain, expressed in dB, is:
-
10 dB (0% chose this)
-
30 dB (0% chose this)
-
40 dB (0% chose this)
-
20 dB (0% chose this)
You add a 9 dB gain amplifier to your 2 watt handheld. What is the power output of the combination?
-
20 watts (0% chose this)
-
18 watts (0% chose this)
-
16 watts (0% chose this)
-
11 watts (0% chose this)
The power of a transmitter is increased from 2 watts to 8 watts. This is a power gain of __________ dB.
-
8 dB (0% chose this)
-
9 dB (0% chose this)
-
6 dB (0% chose this)
-
3 dB (0% chose this)
A local amateur reports your 100W 2M simplex VHF transmission as 30 dB over S9. To reduce your signal to S9, you would reduce your power to ______ watts.
-
33.3 W (0% chose this)
-
100 mW (0% chose this)
-
1 W (0% chose this)
-
10 W (0% chose this)
What connects your transceiver to your antenna?
-
A ground wire (0% chose this)
-
A dummy load (0% chose this)
-
A transmission line (0% chose this)
-
The power cord (0% chose this)
The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is determined by the:
-
length of the line (0% chose this)
-
frequency at which the line is operated (0% chose this)
-
load placed on the line (0% chose this)
-
physical dimensions and relative positions of the conductors (0% chose this)
The characteristic impedance of a 20 metre piece of transmission line is 52 ohms. If 10 metres were cut off, the impedance would be:
-
13 ohms (0% chose this)
-
52 ohms (0% chose this)
-
26 ohms (0% chose this)
-
39 ohms (0% chose this)
The characteristic impedance of a coaxial line:
-
can be the same for different diameter line (0% chose this)
-
changes significantly with the frequency of the energy it carries (0% chose this)
-
is correct for only one size of line (0% chose this)
-
is greater for larger diameter line (0% chose this)
What commonly available antenna transmission line can be buried directly in the ground for some distance without adverse effects?
-
600 ohm open wire line (0% chose this)
-
75 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
-
Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
-
300 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is:
-
the dynamic impedance of the line at the operating frequency (0% chose this)
-
the ratio of the power supplied to the line to the power delivered to the load (0% chose this)
-
equal to the pure resistance which, if connected to the end of the line, will absorb all the power arriving along it (0% chose this)
-
the impedance of a section of the line one wavelength long (0% chose this)
A transmission line differs from an ordinary circuit or network in communications or signalling devices in one very important way. That important aspect is:
-
inductive reactance (0% chose this)
-
resistance (0% chose this)
-
propagation delay (0% chose this)
-
capacitive reactance (0% chose this)
The characteristic impedance of a parallel wire transmission line does not depend on the:
-
centre to centre distance between conductors (0% chose this)
-
dielectric (0% chose this)
-
velocity of energy on the line (0% chose this)
-
radius of the conductors (0% chose this)
If the impedance terminating a transmission line differs significantly from the characteristic impedance of the line, what will be observed at the input of the line?
-
An impedance nearly equal to the characteristic impedance (0% chose this)
-
Some value of impedance influenced by line length (0% chose this)
-
An infinite impedance (0% chose this)
-
A negative impedance (0% chose this)
What factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel-conductor antenna transmission line?
-
The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal (0% chose this)
-
The frequency of the signal and the length of the line (0% chose this)
-
The distance between the centres of the conductors and the radius of the conductors (0% chose this)
-
The distance between the centres of the conductors and the length of the line (0% chose this)
What factors determine the characteristic impedance of a coaxial antenna transmission line?
-
The diameter of the shield and the length of the line (0% chose this)
-
The diameter of the shield and the frequency of the signal (0% chose this)
-
The frequency of the signal and the length of the line (0% chose this)
-
The ratio of the diameter of the inner conductor to the diameter of the outer shield (0% chose this)
What is a coaxial cable?
-
Two wires twisted around each other in a spiral (0% chose this)
-
A center wire inside an insulating material which is covered by a metal sleeve or shield (0% chose this)
-
Two wires side-by-side in a plastic ribbon (0% chose this)
-
Two wires side-by-side held apart by insulating rods (0% chose this)
What is parallel-conductor transmission line?
-
Two wires twisted around each other in a spiral (0% chose this)
-
A center wire inside an insulating material which is covered by a metal sleeve or shield (0% chose this)
-
A metal pipe which is as wide or slightly wider than a wavelength of the signal it carries (0% chose this)
-
Two wires side-by-side held apart by insulating material (0% chose this)
What kind of antenna transmission line is made of two conductors held apart by insulated rods?
-
Twisted pair (0% chose this)
-
Open wire line (0% chose this)
-
Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
-
Twin lead in a plastic ribbon (0% chose this)
What does the term "balun" mean?
-
Balanced antenna network (0% chose this)
-
Balanced to unbalanced (0% chose this)
-
Balanced unloader (0% chose this)
-
Balanced unmodulator (0% chose this)
Where would you install a balun to feed a dipole antenna with 50-ohm coaxial cable?
-
Between the antenna and the ground (0% chose this)
-
Between the coaxial cable and the ground (0% chose this)
-
Between the coaxial cable and the antenna (0% chose this)
-
Between the transmitter and the coaxial cable (0% chose this)
What is an unbalanced line?
-
Transmission line with both conductors connected to each other (0% chose this)
-
Transmission line with one conductor connected to ground (0% chose this)
-
Transmission line with neither conductor connected to ground (0% chose this)
-
Transmission line with both conductors connected to ground (0% chose this)
What device can be installed to feed a balanced antenna with an unbalanced transmission line?
-
A triaxial transformer (0% chose this)
-
A wave trap (0% chose this)
-
A loading coil (0% chose this)
-
A balun (0% chose this)
A flexible coaxial line contains:
-
four or more conductors running parallel (0% chose this)
-
only one conductor (0% chose this)
-
two parallel conductors separated by spacers (0% chose this)
-
braided shield conductor and insulation around a central conductor (0% chose this)
A balanced transmission line:
-
carries RF current on one wire only (0% chose this)
-
is made of one conductor only (0% chose this)
-
is made of two parallel wires (0% chose this)
-
has one conductor inside the other (0% chose this)
A 75 ohm transmission line could be matched to the 300 ohm feed point of an antenna:
-
with an extra 250 ohm resistor (0% chose this)
-
by using a 4 to 1 trigatron (0% chose this)
-
by inserting a diode in one leg of the antenna (0% chose this)
-
by using a 4 to 1 impedance transformer (0% chose this)
What kind of antenna transmission line can be constructed using two conductors which are maintained a uniform distance apart using insulated spreaders?
-
75 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
-
300 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
-
600 ohm open wire line (0% chose this)
-
Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
Why does coaxial cable make a good antenna transmission line?
-
It is weatherproof, and its impedance matches most amateur antennas (0% chose this)
-
It is weatherproof, and its impedance is higher than that of most amateur antennas (0% chose this)
-
It can be used near metal objects, and its impedance is higher than that of most amateur antennas (0% chose this)
-
You can make it at home, and its impedance matches most amateur antennas (0% chose this)
What is the best antenna transmission line to use, if it must be put near grounded metal objects?
-
Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
-
Ladder-line (0% chose this)
-
Twisted pair (0% chose this)
-
Twin lead (0% chose this)
What are some reasons not to use parallel-conductor transmission line?
-
It does not work well when tied down to metal objects, and you should use a balun and may have to use an impedance-matching device with your transceiver (0% chose this)
-
You must use an impedance-matching device with your transceiver, and it does not work very well with a high SWR (0% chose this)
-
It does not work well when tied down to metal objects, and it cannot operate under high power (0% chose this)
-
It is difficult to make at home, and it does not work very well with a high SWR (0% chose this)
What common connector type usually joins RG-213 coaxial cable to an HF transceiver?
-
A banana plug connector (0% chose this)
-
A binding post connector (0% chose this)
-
A PL-259 connector (0% chose this)
-
An F-type cable connector (0% chose this)
What common connector usually joins a hand-held transceiver to its antenna?
-
A binding post connector (0% chose this)
-
An SMA connector (0% chose this)
-
A PL-259 connector (0% chose this)
-
An F-type cable connector (0% chose this)
Which of these common connectors has the lowest loss at UHF?
-
A type-N connector (0% chose this)
-
An F-type cable connector (0% chose this)
-
A BNC connector (0% chose this)
-
A PL-259 connector (0% chose this)
If you install a 6 metre Yagi on a tower 60 metres (200 ft) from your transmitter, which of the following transmission lines provides the least loss?
-
RG-59 (0% chose this)
-
RG-58 (0% chose this)
-
RG-213 (0% chose this)
-
RG-174 (0% chose this)
Why should you regularly clean and tighten all antenna connectors?
-
To increase their capacitance (0% chose this)
-
To help keep their contact resistance at a minimum (0% chose this)
-
To keep them looking nice (0% chose this)
-
To keep them from getting stuck in place (0% chose this)
What commonly available antenna transmission line can be buried directly in the ground for some distance without adverse effects?
-
300 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
-
Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
-
75 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
-
600 ohm open wire line (0% chose this)
When antenna transmission lines must be placed near grounded metal objects, which of the following transmission lines should be used?
-
600 ohm open wire line (0% chose this)
-
75 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
-
Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
-
300 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
TV twin-lead transmission line can be used for a transmission line in an amateur station. The impedance of this line is approximately:
-
70 ohms (0% chose this)
-
300 ohms (0% chose this)
-
600 ohms (0% chose this)
-
50 ohms (0% chose this)
Why should you use only good quality coaxial cable and connectors for a UHF antenna system?
-
To keep RF loss low (0% chose this)
-
To keep television interference high (0% chose this)
-
To keep the power going to your antenna system from getting too high (0% chose this)
-
To keep the standing wave ratio of your antenna system high (0% chose this)
What are some reasons to use parallel-conductor transmission line?
-
It has low impedance, and will operate with a high SWR (0% chose this)
-
It will operate with a high SWR, and it works well when tied down to metal objects (0% chose this)
-
It has a low impedance, and has less loss than coaxial cable (0% chose this)
-
It will operate with a high SWR, and has less loss than coaxial cable (0% chose this)
If your transmitter and antenna are 15 metres (50 ft) apart, but are connected by 60 metres (200 ft) of RG-58 coaxial cable, what should be done to reduce transmission line loss?
-
Roll the excess cable into a coil which is as small as possible (0% chose this)
-
Shorten the excess cable so the transmission line is an even number of wavelengths long (0% chose this)
-
Shorten the excess cable (0% chose this)
-
Shorten the excess cable so the transmission line is an odd number of wavelengths long (0% chose this)
As the length of a transmission line is changed, what happens to signal loss?
-
Signal loss is the same for any length of transmission line (0% chose this)
-
Signal loss increases as length increases (0% chose this)
-
Signal loss decreases as length increases (0% chose this)
-
Signal loss is the least when the length is the same as the signal's wavelength (0% chose this)
As the frequency of a signal is changed, what happens to signal loss in a transmission line?
-
Signal loss is the least when the signal's wavelength is the same as the transmission line's length (0% chose this)
-
Signal loss is the same for any frequency (0% chose this)
-
Signal loss increases with increasing frequency (0% chose this)
-
Signal loss increases with decreasing frequency (0% chose this)
Losses occurring on a transmission line between transmitter and antenna results in:
-
an SWR reading of 1:1 (0% chose this)
-
reflections occurring in the line (0% chose this)
-
the wire radiating RF energy (0% chose this)
-
less RF power being radiated (0% chose this)
The lowest loss transmission line on HF is:
-
open wire line (0% chose this)
-
75 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
-
coaxial cable (0% chose this)
-
300 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
In what values are RF transmission line losses expressed?
-
Ohms per metre (0% chose this)
-
dB per unit length (0% chose this)
-
Ohms per MHz (0% chose this)
-
dB per MHz (0% chose this)
If the length of coaxial transmission line is increased from 20 metres (66 ft) to 40 metres (132 ft), how would this affect the line loss?
-
It would be increased by 10% (0% chose this)
-
It would be reduced to 50% (0% chose this)
-
It would be increased by 100% (0% chose this)
-
It would be reduced by 10% (0% chose this)
If the frequency is increased, how would this affect the loss on a transmission line?
-
It is independent of frequency (0% chose this)
-
It depends on the line length (0% chose this)
-
It would decrease (0% chose this)
-
It would increase (0% chose this)
What does an SWR reading of 1:1 mean?
-
The best impedance match has been attained (0% chose this)
-
An antenna for another frequency band is probably connected (0% chose this)
-
No power is going to the antenna (0% chose this)
-
The SWR meter is broken (0% chose this)
What does an SWR reading of less than 1.5:1 mean?
-
An antenna gain of 1.5 (0% chose this)
-
A fairly good impedance match (0% chose this)
-
An impedance match which is too low (0% chose this)
-
A serious impedance mismatch; something may be wrong with the antenna system (0% chose this)
What kind of SWR reading may mean poor electrical contact between parts of an antenna system?
-
A very low reading (0% chose this)
-
A jumpy reading (0% chose this)
-
A negative reading (0% chose this)
-
No reading at all (0% chose this)
What does a very high SWR reading mean?
-
The antenna is the wrong length for the operating frequency, or the transmission line may be open or short circuited (0% chose this)
-
The transmitter is putting out more power than normal, showing that it is about to go bad (0% chose this)
-
There is a large amount of solar radiation, which means very poor radio conditions (0% chose this)
-
The signals coming from the antenna are unusually strong, which means very good radio condition (0% chose this)
What does standing-wave ratio mean?
-
The ratio of maximum to minimum inductances on a transmission line (0% chose this)
-
The ratio of maximum to minimum resistances on a transmission line (0% chose this)
-
The ratio of maximum to minimum impedances on a transmission line (0% chose this)
-
The ratio of maximum to minimum voltages on a transmission line (0% chose this)
If your antenna transmission line gets hot when you are transmitting, what might this mean?
-
You should transmit using less power (0% chose this)
-
The conductors in the transmission line are not insulated very well (0% chose this)
-
The transmission line is too long (0% chose this)
-
The SWR may be too high, or the transmission line loss may be high (0% chose this)
If the characteristic impedance of the transmission line does not match the antenna input impedance then:
-
the antenna will not radiate any signal (0% chose this)
-
standing waves are produced in the transmission line (0% chose this)
-
heat is produced at the junction (0% chose this)
-
the SWR reading falls to 1:1 (0% chose this)
The result of the presence of standing waves on a transmission line is:
-
lack of radiation from the transmission line (0% chose this)
-
reduced transfer of RF energy to the antenna (0% chose this)
-
perfect impedance match between transmitter and transmission line (0% chose this)
-
maximum transfer of energy to the antenna from the transmitter (0% chose this)
An SWR meter measures the degree of match between transmission line and antenna by:
-
comparing forward and reflected voltage (0% chose this)
-
measuring radiated RF energy (0% chose this)
-
measuring the conductor temperature (0% chose this)
-
inserting a diode in the transmission line (0% chose this)
A resonant antenna having a feed point impedance of 200 ohms is connected to a transmission line which has an impedance of 50 ohms. What will the standing wave ratio of this system be?
-
6:1 (0% chose this)
-
3:1 (0% chose this)
-
5:1 (0% chose this)
-
4:1 (0% chose this)
The type of transmission line best suited to operating at a high standing wave ratio is:
-
300 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
-
600 ohm open wire line (0% chose this)
-
75 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
-
coaxial line (0% chose this)
What would you use to connect a coaxial cable of 50 ohms impedance to an antenna of 17 ohms impedance?
-
A terminating resistor (0% chose this)
-
An impedance-matching device (0% chose this)
-
An SWR meter (0% chose this)
-
A low pass filter (0% chose this)
To obtain efficient power transmission from a transmitter to an antenna requires:
-
matching of impedances (0% chose this)
-
high load impedance (0% chose this)
-
low load resistance (0% chose this)
-
inductive impedance (0% chose this)
To obtain efficient transfer of power from a transmitter to an antenna, it is important that there is a:
-
matching of impedance (0% chose this)
-
high load impedance (0% chose this)
-
proper method of balance (0% chose this)
-
low load resistance (0% chose this)
If an antenna is correctly matched to a transmitter, the length of transmission line:
-
must be a full wavelength long (0% chose this)
-
must be an odd number of quarter-wave (0% chose this)
-
must be an even number of half-waves (0% chose this)
-
will have no effect on the matching (0% chose this)
The reason that an RF transmission line should be matched at the transmitter end is to:
-
ensure that the radiated signal has the intended polarization (0% chose this)
-
prevent frequency drift (0% chose this)
-
overcome fading of the transmitted signal (0% chose this)
-
transfer the maximum amount of power to the antenna (0% chose this)
If the centre impedance of a folded dipole is approximately 300 ohms, and you are using RG8U (50 ohms) coaxial lines, what is the ratio required to have the line and the antenna matched?
-
6:1 (0% chose this)
-
2:1 (0% chose this)
-
4:1 (0% chose this)
-
10:1 (0% chose this)
A circuit designed to increase the level of its input signal is called:
-
a receiver (0% chose this)
-
an amplifier (0% chose this)
-
a modulator (0% chose this)
-
an oscillator (0% chose this)
If an amplifier becomes non-linear, the output signal would:
-
be saturated (0% chose this)
-
cause oscillations (0% chose this)
-
overload the power supply (0% chose this)
-
become distorted (0% chose this)
To increase the level of very weak radio signals from an antenna, you would use:
-
an RF amplifier (0% chose this)
-
an RF oscillator (0% chose this)
-
an audio oscillator (0% chose this)
-
an audio amplifier (0% chose this)
To increase the level of very weak signals from a microphone you would use:
-
an RF amplifier (0% chose this)
-
an audio oscillator (0% chose this)
-
an audio amplifier (0% chose this)
-
an RF oscillator (0% chose this)
The range of frequencies to be amplified by a speech amplifier is typically:
-
300 to 1000 Hz (0% chose this)
-
40 to 40 000 Hz (0% chose this)
-
300 to 3000 Hz (0% chose this)
-
3 to 300 Hz (0% chose this)
Which of the following is not amplified by an amplifier?
-
Current (0% chose this)
-
Power (0% chose this)
-
Voltage (0% chose this)
-
Resistance (0% chose this)
The increase in signal level by an amplifier is called:
-
modulation (0% chose this)
-
gain (0% chose this)
-
attenuation (0% chose this)
-
amplitude (0% chose this)
A device with gain has the property of:
-
oscillation (0% chose this)
-
modulation (0% chose this)
-
amplification (0% chose this)
-
attenuation (0% chose this)
A device labelled "Gain = 10 dB" is likely to be an:
-
attenuator (0% chose this)
-
oscillator (0% chose this)
-
audio fader (0% chose this)
-
amplifier (0% chose this)
Amplifiers can amplify:
-
voltage, current, or inductance (0% chose this)
-
voltage, current, or power (0% chose this)
-
current, power, or inductance (0% chose this)
-
voltage, power, or inductance (0% chose this)
Which of the following is not a property of an amplifier?
-
Distortion (0% chose this)
-
Loss (0% chose this)
-
Gain (0% chose this)
-
Linearity (0% chose this)
Zener diodes are used as:
-
RF detectors (0% chose this)
-
AF detectors (0% chose this)
-
voltage regulators (0% chose this)
-
current regulators (0% chose this)
One important application for diodes is recovering information from transmitted signals. This is referred to as:
-
biasing (0% chose this)
-
demodulation (0% chose this)
-
regeneration (0% chose this)
-
ionization (0% chose this)
The primary purpose of a Zener diode is to:
-
to boost the power supply voltage (0% chose this)
-
provide a path through which current can flow (0% chose this)
-
regulate or maintain a constant voltage (0% chose this)
-
provide a voltage phase shift (0% chose this)
The action of changing alternating current to direct current is called:
-
amplification (0% chose this)
-
transformation (0% chose this)
-
modulation (0% chose this)
-
rectification (0% chose this)
The electrodes of a semiconductor diode are known as:
-
cathode and drain (0% chose this)
-
anode and cathode (0% chose this)
-
gate and source (0% chose this)
-
collector and base (0% chose this)
If alternating current is applied to the anode of a diode, what would you expect to see at the cathode?
-
No signal (0% chose this)
-
Steady direct current (0% chose this)
-
Pulsating alternating current (0% chose this)
-
Pulsating direct current (0% chose this)
In a semiconductor diode, electrons flow from:
-
grid to anode (0% chose this)
-
cathode to anode (0% chose this)
-
anode to cathode (0% chose this)
-
cathode to grid (0% chose this)
What semiconductor device glows different colours, depending upon its chemical composition?
-
A vacuum diode (0% chose this)
-
A light-emitting diode (0% chose this)
-
A fluorescent bulb (0% chose this)
-
A neon bulb (0% chose this)
Voltage regulation is the principal application of the:
-
Zener diode (0% chose this)
-
junction diode (0% chose this)
-
light-emitting diode (0% chose this)
-
vacuum diode (0% chose this)
In order for a diode to conduct, it must be:
-
enhanced (0% chose this)
-
reverse-biased (0% chose this)
-
forward-biased (0% chose this)
-
close coupled (0% chose this)
Which component can amplify a small signal using low voltages?
-
A multiple-cell battery (0% chose this)
-
A PNP transistor (0% chose this)
-
A variable resistor (0% chose this)
-
An electrolytic capacitor (0% chose this)
The basic semiconductor amplifying device is the:
-
transistor (0% chose this)
-
tube (0% chose this)
-
P-N junction (0% chose this)
-
diode (0% chose this)
The three leads from a PNP transistor are named:
-
drain, base and source (0% chose this)
-
collector, source and drain (0% chose this)
-
gate, source and drain (0% chose this)
-
collector, emitter and base (0% chose this)
If a low level signal is placed at the input to a transistor, a higher level of signal is produced at the output lead. This effect is known as:
-
detection (0% chose this)
-
modulation (0% chose this)
-
rectification (0% chose this)
-
amplification (0% chose this)
Bipolar transistors usually have:
-
2 leads (0% chose this)
-
4 leads (0% chose this)
-
3 leads (0% chose this)
-
1 lead (0% chose this)
A semiconductor is described as a "general purpose audio NPN device". This would be:
-
a triode (0% chose this)
-
an audio detector (0% chose this)
-
a bipolar transistor (0% chose this)
-
a silicon diode (0% chose this)
The two basic types of bipolar transistors are:
-
diode and triode types (0% chose this)
-
varicap and Zener types (0% chose this)
-
P and N channel types (0% chose this)
-
NPN and PNP types (0% chose this)
A transistor can be destroyed in a circuit by:
-
saturation (0% chose this)
-
cut-off (0% chose this)
-
excessive heat (0% chose this)
-
excessive light (0% chose this)
In a bipolar transistor, the _____________ compares closest to the control grid of a triode vacuum tube.
-
base (0% chose this)
-
emitter (0% chose this)
-
source (0% chose this)
-
collector (0% chose this)
In a bipolar transistor, the _____________ compares closest to the plate of a triode vacuum tube.
-
gate (0% chose this)
-
emitter (0% chose this)
-
base (0% chose this)
-
collector (0% chose this)
In a bipolar transistor, the _____________ compares closest to the cathode of a triode vacuum tube.
-
collector (0% chose this)
-
base (0% chose this)
-
drain (0% chose this)
-
emitter (0% chose this)
The two basic types of field effect transistors (FET) are:
-
NPN and PNP (0% chose this)
-
germanium and silicon (0% chose this)
-
inductive and capacitive (0% chose this)
-
N and P channel (0% chose this)
A semiconductor having its leads labelled gate, drain, and source is best described as a:
-
field-effect transistor (0% chose this)
-
gated transistor (0% chose this)
-
bipolar transistor (0% chose this)
-
silicon diode (0% chose this)
In a field effect transistor, the ___________ is the terminal that controls the conductance of the channel.
-
collector (0% chose this)
-
gate (0% chose this)
-
drain (0% chose this)
-
source (0% chose this)
In a field effect transistor, the ___________ is the terminal where the charge carriers enter the channel.
-
source (0% chose this)
-
gate (0% chose this)
-
drain (0% chose this)
-
emitter (0% chose this)
In a field effect transistor, the ___________ is the terminal where the charge carriers leave the channel.
-
source (0% chose this)
-
gate (0% chose this)
-
drain (0% chose this)
-
collector (0% chose this)
Which semiconductor device has characteristics most similar to a triode vacuum tube?
-
Zener diode (0% chose this)
-
Bipolar transistor (0% chose this)
-
Field effect transistor (0% chose this)
-
Junction diode (0% chose this)
The control element in the field effect transistor is the:
-
source (0% chose this)
-
drain (0% chose this)
-
base (0% chose this)
-
gate (0% chose this)
If you wish to reduce the current flowing in a field effect transistor, you could:
-
increase the forward bias voltage (0% chose this)
-
increase the forward bias gain (0% chose this)
-
increase the reverse bias voltage (0% chose this)
-
decrease the reverse bias voltage (0% chose this)
The source of a field effect transistor corresponds to the _______ of a bipolar transistor.
-
collector (0% chose this)
-
emitter (0% chose this)
-
base (0% chose this)
-
drain (0% chose this)
The drain of a field effect transistor corresponds to the _______ of a bipolar transistor.
-
emitter (0% chose this)
-
collector (0% chose this)
-
base (0% chose this)
-
source (0% chose this)
Which two elements in a field effect transistor exhibit fairly similar characteristics?
-
Source and gate (0% chose this)
-
Gate and drain (0% chose this)
-
Source and base (0% chose this)
-
Source and drain (0% chose this)
What is one reason a triode vacuum tube might be used instead of a transistor in a circuit?
-
It may be able to handle higher power (0% chose this)
-
It uses less current (0% chose this)
-
It is much smaller (0% chose this)
-
It uses lower voltages (0% chose this)
Which component can amplify a small signal but must use high voltages?
-
An electrolytic capacitor (0% chose this)
-
A multiple-cell battery (0% chose this)
-
A vacuum tube (0% chose this)
-
A transistor (0% chose this)
A feature common to triode tubes and transistors is that both:
-
convert electrical energy to radio waves (0% chose this)
-
use heat to cause electron movement (0% chose this)
-
can amplify signals (0% chose this)
-
have electrons drifting through a vacuum (0% chose this)
In a vacuum tube, the electrode that is operated with the highest positive potential is the _________.
-
filament (heater) (0% chose this)
-
cathode (0% chose this)
-
grid (0% chose this)
-
plate (0% chose this)
In a vacuum tube, the electrode that is usually a cylinder of wire mesh is the _______.
-
grid (0% chose this)
-
filament (heater) (0% chose this)
-
cathode (0% chose this)
-
plate (0% chose this)
In a vacuum tube, the element that is furthest away from the plate is the __________.
-
filament (heater) (0% chose this)
-
grid (0% chose this)
-
emitter (0% chose this)
-
cathode (0% chose this)
In a vacuum tube, the electrode that emits electrons is the __________.
-
grid (0% chose this)
-
collector (0% chose this)
-
plate (0% chose this)
-
cathode (0% chose this)
What is inside the envelope of a triode tube?
-
Argon (0% chose this)
-
Air (0% chose this)
-
Neon (0% chose this)
-
A vacuum (0% chose this)
How many grids are there in a triode vacuum tube?
-
Three plus a filament (0% chose this)
-
One (0% chose this)
-
Two (0% chose this)
-
Three (0% chose this)
In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the ____________ is primarily for mechanical support purposes.
-
driven element (0% chose this)
-
director (0% chose this)
-
boom (0% chose this)
-
reflector (0% chose this)
In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the ________ is the longest radiating element.
-
reflector (0% chose this)
-
director (0% chose this)
-
driven element (0% chose this)
-
boom (0% chose this)
In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the ______________ is the shortest radiating element.
-
reflector (0% chose this)
-
driven element (0% chose this)
-
director (0% chose this)
-
boom (0% chose this)
In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the ______________is not the longest nor the shortest radiating element.
-
director (0% chose this)
-
reflector (0% chose this)
-
driven element (0% chose this)
-
boom (0% chose this)
What does horizontal wave polarization mean?
-
The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
-
The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
-
The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
-
The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
What does vertical wave polarization mean?
-
The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
-
The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
-
The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
-
The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
What electromagnetic wave polarization does a Yagi antenna have when its elements are parallel to the Earth's surface?
-
Circular (0% chose this)
-
Horizontal (0% chose this)
-
Helical (0% chose this)
-
Vertical (0% chose this)
What electromagnetic wave polarization does a half-wavelength antenna have when it is perpendicular to the Earth's surface?
-
Horizontal (0% chose this)
-
Parabolical (0% chose this)
-
Vertical (0% chose this)
-
Circular (0% chose this)
Polarization of an antenna is determined by:
-
the magnetic field (0% chose this)
-
the orientation of the electric field relative to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
-
the height of the antenna (0% chose this)
-
the type of antenna (0% chose this)
An isotropic antenna is:
-
a dummy load (0% chose this)
-
a half-wave reference dipole (0% chose this)
-
a hypothetical point source (0% chose this)
-
an infinitely long piece of wire (0% chose this)
What is the antenna radiation pattern for an isotropic radiator?
-
A parabola (0% chose this)
-
A cardioid (0% chose this)
-
A unidirectional cardioid (0% chose this)
-
A sphere (0% chose this)
VHF signals from a mobile station using a vertical whip antenna will normally be best received using a:
-
vertical ground-plane antenna (0% chose this)
-
random length of wire (0% chose this)
-
horizontal ground-plane antenna (0% chose this)
-
horizontal dipole antenna (0% chose this)
A dipole antenna will emit a vertically polarized wave if it is:
-
fed with the correct type of RF (0% chose this)
-
too near to the ground (0% chose this)
-
parallel with the ground (0% chose this)
-
mounted vertically (0% chose this)
If an electromagnetic wave leaves an antenna vertically polarized, it will arrive at the receiving antenna, by ground wave:
-
horizontally polarized (0% chose this)
-
polarized in any plane (0% chose this)
-
vertically polarized (0% chose this)
-
polarized at right angles to original (0% chose this)
Compared with a horizontal antenna, a vertical antenna will receive a vertically polarized radio wave:
-
at weaker strength (0% chose this)
-
without any comparative difference (0% chose this)
-
if the antenna changes the polarization (0% chose this)
-
at greater strength (0% chose this)
If an antenna is made longer, what happens to its resonant frequency?
-
It stays the same (0% chose this)
-
It disappears (0% chose this)
-
It decreases (0% chose this)
-
It increases (0% chose this)
If an antenna is made shorter, what happens to its resonant frequency?
-
It increases (0% chose this)
-
It stays the same (0% chose this)
-
It disappears (0% chose this)
-
It decreases (0% chose this)
The wavelength for a frequency of 25 MHz is:
-
4 metres (13.1 ft) (0% chose this)
-
32 metres (105 ft) (0% chose this)
-
12 metres (39.4 ft) (0% chose this)
-
15 metres (49.2 ft) (0% chose this)
The velocity of propagation of radio frequency energy in free space is:
-
300 000 kilometres per second (0% chose this)
-
3000 kilometres per second (0% chose this)
-
150 kilometres per second (0% chose this)
-
186 000 kilometres per second (0% chose this)
Adding a series inductance to an antenna would:
-
increase the resonant frequency (0% chose this)
-
have little effect (0% chose this)
-
have no change on the resonant frequency (0% chose this)
-
decrease the resonant frequency (0% chose this)
The resonant frequency of an antenna may be increased by:
-
lengthening the radiating element (0% chose this)
-
shortening the radiating element (0% chose this)
-
lowering the radiating element (0% chose this)
-
increasing the height of the radiating element (0% chose this)
The speed of a radio wave:
-
is the same as the speed of light (0% chose this)
-
is infinite in space (0% chose this)
-
is always less than half speed of light (0% chose this)
-
varies directly with frequency (0% chose this)
At the end of suspended antenna wire, insulators are used. These act to:
-
limit the electrical length of the antenna (0% chose this)
-
increase the effective antenna length (0% chose this)
-
allow the antenna to be more easily held vertically (0% chose this)
-
prevent any loss of radio waves by the antenna (0% chose this)
To lower the resonant frequency of an antenna, the operator should:
-
ground one end (0% chose this)
-
centre feed it with TV ribbon transmission line (0% chose this)
-
lengthen it (0% chose this)
-
shorten it (0% chose this)
One solution to multiband operation with a shortened radiator is the "trap dipole" or trap vertical. These "traps" are actually:
-
large wire-wound resistors (0% chose this)
-
coils wrapped around a ferrite rod (0% chose this)
-
hollow metal cans (0% chose this)
-
a coil and capacitor in parallel (0% chose this)
The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 2 MHz is:
-
150 m (492 ft) (0% chose this)
-
360 m (1181 ft) (0% chose this)
-
1500 m (4921 ft) (0% chose this)
-
30 m (98 ft) (0% chose this)
What is a parasitic beam antenna?
-
An antenna where the driven element obtains its radio energy by induction or radiation from director elements (0% chose this)
-
An antenna where all elements are driven by direct connection to the transmission line (0% chose this)
-
An antenna where wave traps are used to magnetically couple the elements (0% chose this)
-
An antenna where some elements obtain their radio energy by induction or radiation from a driven element (0% chose this)
How can the bandwidth of a parasitic beam antenna be increased?
-
Use larger diameter elements (0% chose this)
-
Use traps on the elements (0% chose this)
-
Use tapered-diameter elements (0% chose this)
-
Use closer element spacing (0% chose this)
If a parasitic element slightly shorter than a horizontal dipole antenna is placed parallel to the dipole 0.1 wavelength from it and at the same height, what effect will this have on the antenna's radiation pattern?
-
A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, from the dipole toward the parasitic element (0% chose this)
-
A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel to the two elements (0% chose this)
-
A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from the ground (0% chose this)
-
The radiation pattern will not be affected (0% chose this)
If a parasitic element slightly longer than a horizontal dipole antenna is placed parallel to the dipole 0.1 wavelength from it and at the same height, what effect will this have on the antenna's radiation pattern?
-
A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel to the two elements (0% chose this)
-
A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from the ground (0% chose this)
-
The radiation pattern will not be affected (0% chose this)
-
A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, from the parasitic element toward the dipole (0% chose this)
The property of an antenna, which defines the range of frequencies to which it will respond, is called its:
-
bandwidth (0% chose this)
-
front-to-back ratio (0% chose this)
-
impedance (0% chose this)
-
polarization (0% chose this)
Approximately how much gain does a half-wave dipole have over an isotropic radiator?
-
6.0 dB (0% chose this)
-
2.1 dB (0% chose this)
-
1.5 dB (0% chose this)
-
3.0 dB (0% chose this)
What is meant by antenna gain?
-
The numerical ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the signal in the back direction (0% chose this)
-
The numerical ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power (0% chose this)
-
The power amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses (0% chose this)
-
The numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of another antenna (0% chose this)
What is meant by antenna bandwidth?
-
Antenna length divided by the number of elements (0% chose this)
-
The angle between the half-power radiation points (0% chose this)
-
The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the ends of the elements (0% chose this)
-
The frequency range over which the antenna may be expected to perform well (0% chose this)
In free space, what is the radiation characteristic of a half-wave dipole?
-
Omnidirectional (0% chose this)
-
Maximum radiation at 45 degrees to the plane of the antenna (0% chose this)
-
Minimum radiation from the ends, maximum broadside (0% chose this)
-
Maximum radiation from the ends, minimum broadside (0% chose this)
If you made a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 21.125 MHz, how long would it be?
-
6.76 metres (22.2 ft) (0% chose this)
-
3.36 metres (11.0 ft) (0% chose this)
-
3.6 metres (11.8 ft) (0% chose this)
-
7.2 metres (23.6 ft) (0% chose this)
If you made a half-wavelength vertical antenna for 223 MHz, how long would it be?
-
64 cm (25.2 in) (0% chose this)
-
128 cm (50.4 in) (0% chose this)
-
105 cm (41.3 in) (0% chose this)
-
134.6 cm (53 in) (0% chose this)
Why is a 5/8-wavelength vertical antenna better than a 1/4-wavelength vertical antenna for VHF or UHF mobile operations?
-
A 5/8-wavelength antenna is easier to install on a car (0% chose this)
-
A 5/8-wavelength antenna can handle more power (0% chose this)
-
A 5/8-wavelength antenna has more gain (0% chose this)
-
A 5/8-wavelength antenna has less corona loss (0% chose this)
If a magnetic-base whip antenna is placed on the roof of a car, in what direction does it send out radio energy?
-
Most of it goes in one direction (0% chose this)
-
It goes out equally well in all horizontal directions (0% chose this)
-
Most of it is aimed high into the sky (0% chose this)
-
Most of it goes equally in two opposite directions (0% chose this)
What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a ground plane antenna?
-
It lowers the radiation angle (0% chose this)
-
It brings the feed point impedance closer to 50 ohms (0% chose this)
-
It increases the radiation angle (0% chose this)
-
It brings the feed point impedance closer to 300 ohms (0% chose this)
What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward-sloping?
-
It approaches zero (0% chose this)
-
It increases (0% chose this)
-
It decreases (0% chose this)
-
It stays the same (0% chose this)
Which of the following transmission lines will give the best match to the base of a quarter-wave ground-plane antenna?
-
300 ohms coaxial cable (0% chose this)
-
50 ohms coaxial cable (0% chose this)
-
300 ohms balanced transmission line (0% chose this)
-
75 ohms balanced transmission line (0% chose this)
The main characteristic of a vertical antenna is that it will:
-
be very sensitive to signals coming from horizontal antennas (0% chose this)
-
require few insulators (0% chose this)
-
be easy to feed with TV ribbon transmission line (0% chose this)
-
receive signals equally well from all compass points around it (0% chose this)
Why is a loading coil often used with an HF mobile vertical antenna?
-
To filter out electrical noise (0% chose this)
-
To tune out capacitive reactance (0% chose this)
-
To lower the losses (0% chose this)
-
To lower the Q (0% chose this)
What is the main reason why so many VHF base and mobile antennas are 5/8 of a wavelength?
-
The angle of radiation is high giving excellent local coverage (0% chose this)
-
It is easy to match the antenna to the transmitter (0% chose this)
-
It's a convenient length on VHF (0% chose this)
-
The angle of radiation is low (0% chose this)
How many directly driven elements do most Yagi antennas have?
-
Two (0% chose this)
-
Three (0% chose this)
-
None (0% chose this)
-
One (0% chose this)
Approximately how long is the driven element of a Yagi antenna for 14.0 MHz?
-
5.21 metres (17 feet) (0% chose this)
-
10.67 metres (35 feet) (0% chose this)
-
20.12 metres (66 feet) (0% chose this)
-
10.21 metres (33.5 feet) (0% chose this)
Approximately how long is the director element of a Yagi antenna for 21.1 MHz?
-
5.18 metres (17 feet) (0% chose this)
-
3.2 metres (10.5 feet) (0% chose this)
-
12.8 metres (42 feet) (0% chose this)
-
6.4 metres (21 feet) (0% chose this)
Approximately how long is the reflector element of a Yagi antenna for 28.1 MHz?
-
2.66 metres (8.75 feet) (0% chose this)
-
5.33 metres (17.5 feet) (0% chose this)
-
4.88 metres (16 feet) (0% chose this)
-
10.67 metres (35 feet) (0% chose this)
What is one effect of increasing the boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?
-
SWR increases (0% chose this)
-
Weight decreases (0% chose this)
-
Wind load decreases (0% chose this)
-
Gain increases (0% chose this)
What are some advantages of a Yagi with wide element spacing?
-
High gain, less critical tuning and wider bandwidth (0% chose this)
-
High gain, lower loss and a low SWR (0% chose this)
-
High front-to-back ratio and lower input resistance (0% chose this)
-
Shorter boom length, lower weight and wind resistance (0% chose this)
Why is a Yagi antenna often used for radiocommunications on the 20-metre band?
-
It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a dipole or vertical antenna (0% chose this)
-
It provides the highest possible angle of radiation for the HF bands (0% chose this)
-
It helps reduce interference from other stations off to the side or behind (0% chose this)
-
It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the horizontal plane (0% chose this)
What does "antenna front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
-
The number of directors versus the number of reflectors (0% chose this)
-
The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction (0% chose this)
-
The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors (0% chose this)
-
The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction (0% chose this)
What is a good way to get maximum performance from a Yagi antenna?
-
Use a reactance bridge to measure the antenna performance from each direction around the antenna (0% chose this)
-
Avoid using towers higher than 9 metres (30 feet) above the ground (0% chose this)
-
Optimize the lengths and spacing of the elements (0% chose this)
-
Use RG-58 transmission line (0% chose this)
The spacing between the elements on a three-element Yagi antenna, representing the best overall choice, is _____ of a wavelength.
-
0.10 (0% chose this)
-
0.50 (0% chose this)
-
0.75 (0% chose this)
-
0.20 (0% chose this)
If the forward gain of a six-element Yagi is about 10 dBi, what would the gain of two of these antennas be if they were "stacked"?
-
20 dBi (0% chose this)
-
10 dBi (0% chose this)
-
13 dBi (0% chose this)
-
7 dBi (0% chose this)
If you made a half-wavelength dipole antenna for 28.150 MHz, how long would it be?
-
10.5 metres (34.37 ft) (0% chose this)
-
28.55 metres (93.45 ft) (0% chose this)
-
10.16 metres (33.26 ft) (0% chose this)
-
5.08 metres (16.62 ft) (0% chose this)
What is one disadvantage of a random wire antenna?
-
You must use an inverted T matching network for multi-band operation (0% chose this)
-
You may experience RF feedback in your station (0% chose this)
-
It usually produces vertically polarized radiation (0% chose this)
-
It must be longer than 1 wavelength (0% chose this)
What is the low angle radiation pattern of an ideal half-wavelength dipole HF antenna in free space installed parallel to the Earth?
-
It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions) (0% chose this)
-
It is two smaller lobes on one side of the antenna, and one larger lobe on the other side (0% chose this)
-
It is a figure-eight, off both ends of the antenna (0% chose this)
-
It is a figure-eight, perpendicular to the antenna (0% chose this)
The impedances in ohms at the feed point of the dipole and folded dipole in free space are, respectively:
-
52 and 100 (0% chose this)
-
52 and 200 (0% chose this)
-
73 and 300 (0% chose this)
-
73 and 150 (0% chose this)
A horizontal dipole transmitting antenna, installed at an ideal height so that the ends are pointing North/South, radiates:
-
mostly to the East and West (0% chose this)
-
mostly to the South and North (0% chose this)
-
mostly to the South (0% chose this)
-
equally in all directions (0% chose this)
How does the bandwidth of a folded dipole antenna compare with that of a simple dipole antenna?
-
It is greater (0% chose this)
-
It is essentially the same (0% chose this)
-
It is less than 50% (0% chose this)
-
It is 0.707 times the bandwidth (0% chose this)
What is a disadvantage of using an antenna equipped with traps?
-
It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies (0% chose this)
-
It must be neutralized (0% chose this)
-
It can only be used for one band (0% chose this)
-
It may radiate harmonics more readily (0% chose this)
What is an advantage of using a trap antenna?
-
It has high directivity at the higher frequencies (0% chose this)
-
It has high gain (0% chose this)
-
It minimizes harmonic radiation (0% chose this)
-
It may be used for multi-band operation (0% chose this)
If you were to cut a half wave dipole for 3.75 MHz, what would be its approximate length?
-
32 meters (105 ft) (0% chose this)
-
45 meters (145 ft) (0% chose this)
-
75 meters (245 ft) (0% chose this)
-
38 meters (125 ft) (0% chose this)
What is a cubical quad antenna?
-
A center-fed wire 1/2-electrical wavelength long (0% chose this)
-
A vertical conductor 1/4-electrical wavelength high, fed at the bottom (0% chose this)
-
Four straight, parallel elements in line with each other, each approximately 1/2-electrical wavelength long (0% chose this)
-
Two or more parallel four-sided wire loops, each approximately one-electrical wavelength long (0% chose this)
What is a delta loop antenna?
-
An antenna system made of three vertical antennas, arranged in a triangular shape (0% chose this)
-
An antenna made from several triangular coils of wire on an insulating form (0% chose this)
-
An antenna whose elements are each a three sided loop whose total length is approximately one electrical wavelength (0% chose this)
-
A large copper ring or wire loop, used in direction finding (0% chose this)
Approximately how long is each side of a cubical quad antenna driven element for 21.4 MHz?
-
3.54 metres (11.7 feet) (0% chose this)
-
0.36 metres (1.17 feet) (0% chose this)
-
14.33 metres (47 feet) (0% chose this)
-
143 metres (469 feet) (0% chose this)
Approximately how long is each side of a cubical quad antenna driven element for 14.3 MHz?
-
5.36 metres (17.6 feet) (0% chose this)
-
21.43 metres (70.3 feet) (0% chose this)
-
53.34 metres (175 feet) (0% chose this)
-
7.13 metres (23.4 feet) (0% chose this)
Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta loop antenna driven element for 28.7 MHz?
-
10.67 metres (35 feet) (0% chose this)
-
3.5 metres (11.5 feet) (0% chose this)
-
2.67 metres (8.75 feet) (0% chose this)
-
7.13 metres (23.4 feet) (0% chose this)
Which statement about two-element delta loops and quad antennas is true?
-
They are effective only when constructed using insulated wire (0% chose this)
-
They perform poorly above HF (0% chose this)
-
They compare favourably with a three-element Yagi (0% chose this)
-
They perform very well only at HF (0% chose this)
Compared to a dipole antenna, what are the directional radiation characteristics of a cubical quad antenna?
-
The quad has less directivity in the horizontal plane but more directivity in the vertical plane (0% chose this)
-
The quad has less directivity in both horizontal and vertical planes (0% chose this)
-
The quad has more directivity in both horizontal and vertical planes (0% chose this)
-
The quad has more directivity in the horizontal plane but less directivity in the vertical plane (0% chose this)
Moving the feed point of a multi-element quad antenna from a side parallel to the ground to a side perpendicular to the ground will have what effect?
-
It will change the antenna polarization from horizontal to vertical (0% chose this)
-
It will change the antenna polarization from vertical to horizontal (0% chose this)
-
It will significantly decrease the antenna feed point impedance (0% chose this)
-
It will significantly increase the antenna feed point impedance (0% chose this)
What does the term "antenna front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a delta loop antenna?
-
The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction (0% chose this)
-
The number of directors versus the number of reflectors (0% chose this)
-
The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction (0% chose this)
-
The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors (0% chose this)
The cubical "quad" or "quad" antenna consists of two or more square loops of wire. The driven element has an approximate overall length of:
-
one wavelength (0% chose this)
-
three-quarters of a wavelength (0% chose this)
-
two wavelengths (0% chose this)
-
one-half wavelength (0% chose this)
The delta loop antenna consists of two or more triangular structures mounted on a boom. The overall length of the driven element is approximately:
-
one wavelength (0% chose this)
-
one-quarter of a wavelength (0% chose this)
-
two wavelengths (0% chose this)
-
one-half of a wavelength (0% chose this)
In a regulated power supply, the transformer connects to an external source which is referred to as______________.
-
filter (0% chose this)
-
rectifier (0% chose this)
-
input (0% chose this)
-
regulator (0% chose this)
In a regulated power supply, the _______________ is between the input and the rectifier.
-
regulator (0% chose this)
-
filter (0% chose this)
-
transformer (0% chose this)
-
output (0% chose this)
In a regulated power supply, the _______________ is between the transformer and the filter.
-
output (0% chose this)
-
regulator (0% chose this)
-
rectifier (0% chose this)
-
input (0% chose this)
In a regulated power supply, the output of the rectifier is connected to the ______________.
-
transformer (0% chose this)
-
regulator (0% chose this)
-
filter (0% chose this)
-
output (0% chose this)
In a regulated power supply, the output of the filter connects to the ____________________.
-
transformer (0% chose this)
-
rectifier (0% chose this)
-
output (0% chose this)
-
regulator (0% chose this)
In a regulated power supply, the _______________ is connected to the regulator.
-
transformer (0% chose this)
-
output (0% chose this)
-
rectifier (0% chose this)
-
input (0% chose this)
If your mobile transceiver works in your car but not in your home, what should you check first?
-
The speaker (0% chose this)
-
The microphone (0% chose this)
-
The SWR meter (0% chose this)
-
The power supply (0% chose this)
What device converts household current to 12 volts DC?
-
A power supply (0% chose this)
-
A low pass filter (0% chose this)
-
An RS-232 interface (0% chose this)
-
A catalytic converter (0% chose this)
Which of these usually needs a high current capacity power supply?
-
An SWR meter (0% chose this)
-
A transceiver (0% chose this)
-
An antenna switch (0% chose this)
-
A receiver (0% chose this)
What may cause a buzzing or hum in the signal of an AC-powered transmitter?
-
Using an antenna which is the wrong length (0% chose this)
-
Energy from another transmitter (0% chose this)
-
Bad design of the transmitter's RF power output circuit (0% chose this)
-
A bad filter capacitor in the transmitter's power supply (0% chose this)
A power supply is to supply DC at 12 volts at 5 amperes. The power transformer should be rated higher than:
-
6 watts (0% chose this)
-
60 watts (0% chose this)
-
17 watts (0% chose this)
-
2.4 watts (0% chose this)
The diode is an important part of a simple power supply. It converts AC to DC, since it:
-
allows electrons to flow in only one direction from anode to cathode (0% chose this)
-
allows electrons to flow in only one direction from cathode to anode (0% chose this)
-
has a high resistance to AC but not to DC (0% chose this)
-
has a high resistance to DC but not to AC (0% chose this)
To convert AC to pulsating DC, you could use a:
-
resistor (0% chose this)
-
diode (0% chose this)
-
transformer (0% chose this)
-
capacitor (0% chose this)
Power-line voltages have been made standard over the years and the voltages generally supplied to homes are approximately:
-
130 and 260 volts (0% chose this)
-
120 and 240 volts (0% chose this)
-
110 and 220 volts (0% chose this)
-
100 and 200 volts (0% chose this)
Your mobile HF transceiver draws 22 amperes on transmit. The manufacturer suggests limiting voltage drop to 0.5 volt and the vehicle battery is 3 metres (10 feet) away. Given the losses below at that current, which minimum wire gauge must you use?
-
Number 12, 0.11 V per metre (0.03 V per foot) (0% chose this)
-
Number 8, 0.05 V per metre (0.01 V per foot) (0% chose this)
-
Number 10, 0.07 V per metre (0.02 V per foot) (0% chose this)
-
Number 14, 0.19 V per metre (0.06 V per foot) (0% chose this)
Why are fuses needed as close as possible to the vehicle battery when wiring a transceiver directly to the battery?
-
To prevent an overcurrent situation from starting a fire (0% chose this)
-
To prevent interference to the vehicle's electronic systems (0% chose this)
-
To reduce the voltage drop in the radio's DC supply (0% chose this)
-
To protect the radio from transient voltages (0% chose this)
You have a very loud low-frequency hum appearing on your transmission. In what part of the transmitter would you first look for the trouble?
-
The power supply (0% chose this)
-
The variable-frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
-
The driver circuit (0% chose this)
-
The power amplifier circuit (0% chose this)
How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using your amateur station at home?
-
Use a key-operated on/off switch in the main power line (0% chose this)
-
Use a carrier-operated relay in the main power line (0% chose this)
-
Put a "Danger - High Voltage" sign in the station (0% chose this)
-
Put fuses in the main power line (0% chose this)
How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using a mobile amateur station in your car?
-
Tune the radio to an unused frequency when you are done using it (0% chose this)
-
Turn the radio off when you are not using it (0% chose this)
-
Put a "Do not touch" sign on the radio (0% chose this)
-
Disconnect the microphone when you are not using it (0% chose this)
Why would you use a key-operated on/off switch in the main power line of your station?
-
For safety, in case the main fuses fail (0% chose this)
-
To keep the power company from turning off your electricity during an emergency (0% chose this)
-
For safety, to turn off the station in the event of an emergency (0% chose this)
-
To keep unauthorized persons from using your station (0% chose this)
Why would there be a switch in a high-voltage power supply to turn off the power if its cabinet is opened?
-
To keep dangerous RF radiation from leaking out through an open cabinet (0% chose this)
-
To keep dangerous RF radiation from coming in through an open cabinet (0% chose this)
-
To turn the power supply off when it is not being used (0% chose this)
-
To keep anyone opening the cabinet from getting shocked by dangerous high voltages (0% chose this)
How little electrical current flowing through the human body can be fatal?
-
Approximately 10 amperes (0% chose this)
-
More than 20 amperes (0% chose this)
-
Current flow through the human body is never fatal (0% chose this)
-
As little as 20 milliamperes (0% chose this)
Which body organ can be fatally affected by a very small amount of electrical current?
-
The heart (0% chose this)
-
The brain (0% chose this)
-
The liver (0% chose this)
-
The lungs (0% chose this)
What is the minimum voltage which is usually dangerous to humans?
-
1000 volts (0% chose this)
-
2000 volts (0% chose this)
-
30 volts (0% chose this)
-
100 volts (0% chose this)
What should you do if you discover someone who is being burned by high voltage?
-
Run from the area so you won't be burned too (0% chose this)
-
Turn off the power, call for emergency help and provide first-aid if needed (0% chose this)
-
Wait for a few minutes to see if the person can get away from the high voltage on their own, then try to help (0% chose this)
-
Immediately drag the person away from the high voltage (0% chose this)
What is the safest method to remove an unconscious person from contact with a high voltage source?
-
Call an electrician (0% chose this)
-
Remove the person by pulling an arm or a leg (0% chose this)
-
Turn off the high voltage switch before removing the person from contact with the source (0% chose this)
-
Wrap the person in a blanket and pull him to a safe area (0% chose this)
Before checking a fault in a mains operated power supply unit, it would be safest to first:
-
remove and check fuse from power supply (0% chose this)
-
turn off the power and remove power plug (0% chose this)
-
short out leads of filter capacitor (0% chose this)
-
check action of capacitor bleeder resistance (0% chose this)
Fault finding in a power supply of an amateur transmitter while the supply is operating is not a recommended technique because of the risk of:
-
overmodulation (0% chose this)
-
blowing the fuse (0% chose this)
-
electric shock (0% chose this)
-
damaging the transmitter (0% chose this)
What equipment should be worn for working on an antenna tower?
-
Approved equipment in accordance with applicable standards concerning fall protection (0% chose this)
-
A reflective vest of approved colour (0% chose this)
-
A flashing red, yellow or white light (0% chose this)
-
A grounding chain (0% chose this)
Why should you wear approved fall arrest equipment if you are working on an antenna tower?
-
To keep the tower from becoming unbalanced while you are working (0% chose this)
-
To safely hold your tools so they don't fall and injure someone on the ground (0% chose this)
-
To prevent you from accidentally falling (0% chose this)
-
To safely bring any tools you might use up and down the tower (0% chose this)
For safety, how high should you place a horizontal wire antenna?
-
Above high-voltage electrical lines (0% chose this)
-
Just high enough so you can easily reach it for adjustments or repairs (0% chose this)
-
As close to the ground as possible (0% chose this)
-
High enough so that no one can touch any part of it from the ground (0% chose this)
Why should you wear a hard hat if you are on the ground helping someone work on an antenna tower?
-
To keep RF energy away from your head during antenna testing (0% chose this)
-
So someone passing by will know that work is being done on the tower and will stay away (0% chose this)
-
To protect your head from something dropped from the tower (0% chose this)
-
So you won't be hurt if the tower should accidentally fall (0% chose this)
Why should your outside antennas be high enough so that no one can touch them while you are transmitting?
-
Touching the antenna might radiate harmonics (0% chose this)
-
Touching the antenna might cause television interference (0% chose this)
-
Touching the antenna might cause RF burns (0% chose this)
-
Touching the antenna might reflect the signal back to the transmitter and cause damage (0% chose this)
Why should you make sure that no one can touch an open wire transmission line while you are transmitting with it?
-
Because high-voltage radio energy might burn the person (0% chose this)
-
Because contact might break the transmission line (0% chose this)
-
Because contact might cause spurious emissions (0% chose this)
-
Because contact might cause a short circuit and damage the transmitter (0% chose this)
What safety precautions should you take before beginning repairs on an antenna?
-
Be sure you and the antenna structure are grounded (0% chose this)
-
Inform your neighbours so they are aware of your intentions (0% chose this)
-
Turn off the main power switch in your house (0% chose this)
-
Be sure to turn off the transmitter and disconnect the transmission line (0% chose this)
What precaution should you take when installing a ground-mounted antenna?
-
It should not be installed in a wet area (0% chose this)
-
It should not be installed higher than you can reach (0% chose this)
-
It should be installed so no one can come in contact with it (0% chose this)
-
It should be painted so people or animals do not accidentally run into it (0% chose this)
What should you do for safety when operating at UHF and microwave frequencies?
-
Keep antenna away from your eyes when RF is applied (0% chose this)
-
Make sure that an RF leakage filter is installed at the antenna feed point (0% chose this)
-
Make sure the standing wave ratio is low before you conduct a test (0% chose this)
-
Never use a horizontally polarized antenna (0% chose this)
What should you do for safety if you put up a UHF transmitting antenna?
-
Make sure that RF field screens are in place (0% chose this)
-
Make sure the antenna will be in a place where no one can get near it when you are transmitting (0% chose this)
-
Make sure the antenna is near the ground to keep its RF energy pointing in the correct direction (0% chose this)
-
Make sure you connect an RF leakage filter at the antenna feed point (0% chose this)
What should you do for safety, before removing the shielding on a UHF power amplifier?
-
Make sure the amplifier cannot accidentally be turned on (0% chose this)
-
Make sure that RF leakage filters are connected (0% chose this)
-
Make sure the antenna transmission line is properly grounded (0% chose this)
-
Make sure all RF screens are in place at the antenna transmission line (0% chose this)
Why should you make sure the antenna of a hand-held transceiver is not close to your head when transmitting?
-
To help the antenna radiate energy equally in all directions (0% chose this)
-
To reduce your exposure to the radio-frequency energy (0% chose this)
-
To use your body to reflect the signal in one direction (0% chose this)
-
To keep static charges from building up (0% chose this)
How should you position the antenna of a hand-held transceiver while you are transmitting?
-
Pointed towards the station you are contacting (0% chose this)
-
Pointed away from the station you are contacting (0% chose this)
-
Pointed down to bounce the signal off the ground (0% chose this)
-
Away from your head and away from others (0% chose this)
How can exposure to a large amount of RF energy affect body tissue?
-
It paralyzes the tissue (0% chose this)
-
It causes hair to fall out (0% chose this)
-
It heats the tissue (0% chose this)
-
It lowers blood pressure (0% chose this)
Which body organ is the most likely to be damaged from the heating effects of RF radiation?
-
Eyes (0% chose this)
-
Heart (0% chose this)
-
Liver (0% chose this)
-
Hands (0% chose this)
Depending on the wavelength of the signal, the energy density of the RF field, and other factors, in what way can RF energy affect body tissue?
-
It causes blood flow to stop (0% chose this)
-
It has no effect on the body (0% chose this)
-
It heats the tissue (0% chose this)
-
It causes ionizing radiation poisoning (0% chose this)
If you operate your amateur station with indoor antennas, what precautions should you take when you install them?
-
Locate the antennas as far away as possible from living spaces that will be occupied while you are operating (0% chose this)
-
Position the antennas parallel to electrical power wires to take advantage of parasitic effects (0% chose this)
-
Position the antennas along the edge of a wall where it meets the floor or ceiling to reduce parasitic radiation (0% chose this)
-
Locate the antennas close to your operating position to minimize transmission line length (0% chose this)
Why should directional high-gain antennas be mounted higher than nearby structures?
-
So they will not direct RF energy toward people in nearby structures (0% chose this)
-
So they will be dried by the wind after a heavy rain storm (0% chose this)
-
So they will not damage nearby structures with RF energy (0% chose this)
-
So they will receive more sky waves and fewer ground waves (0% chose this)
For best RF safety, where should the ends and center of a dipole antenna be located?
-
As close to the transmitter as possible so RF energy will be concentrated near the transmitter (0% chose this)
-
Close to the ground so simple adjustments can be easily made without climbing a ladder (0% chose this)
-
As high as possible to prevent people from coming in contact with the antenna (0% chose this)
-
Near or over moist ground so RF energy will be radiated away from the ground (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation transmitter, the input to the speech amplifier is connected to the:
-
frequency multiplier (0% chose this)
-
microphone (0% chose this)
-
modulator (0% chose this)
-
power amplifier (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation transmitter, the microphone is connected to the:
-
modulator (0% chose this)
-
power amplifier (0% chose this)
-
oscillator (0% chose this)
-
speech amplifier (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation transmitter, the ____________is in between the speech amplifier and the oscillator.
-
power amplifier (0% chose this)
-
microphone (0% chose this)
-
frequency multiplier (0% chose this)
-
modulator (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation transmitter, the __________is located between the modulator and the frequency multiplier.
-
microphone (0% chose this)
-
oscillator (0% chose this)
-
speech amplifier (0% chose this)
-
power amplifier (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation transmitter, the ___________is located between the oscillator and the power amplifier.
-
frequency multiplier (0% chose this)
-
microphone (0% chose this)
-
speech amplifier (0% chose this)
-
modulator (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation transmitter, the _________ is located between the frequency multiplier and the antenna.
-
oscillator (0% chose this)
-
power amplifier (0% chose this)
-
modulator (0% chose this)
-
speech amplifier (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation transmitter, the power amplifier output is connected to the:
-
modulator (0% chose this)
-
antenna (0% chose this)
-
frequency multiplier (0% chose this)
-
microphone (0% chose this)
In a CW transmitter, the output from the __________ is connected to the driver/buffer.
-
telegraph key (0% chose this)
-
power supply (0% chose this)
-
master oscillator (0% chose this)
-
power amplifier (0% chose this)
In a typical CW transmitter, the ___________ is the primary source of direct current.
-
driver/buffer (0% chose this)
-
power amplifier (0% chose this)
-
master oscillator (0% chose this)
-
power supply (0% chose this)
In a CW transmitter, the _________ is between the master oscillator and the power amplifier.
-
driver/buffer (0% chose this)
-
audio amplifier (0% chose this)
-
power supply (0% chose this)
-
telegraph key (0% chose this)
In a CW transmitter, the _____________ controls when RF energy is applied to the antenna.
-
driver/buffer (0% chose this)
-
power amplifier (0% chose this)
-
telegraph key (0% chose this)
-
master oscillator (0% chose this)
In a CW transmitter, the ______________ is in between the driver/buffer stage and the antenna.
-
power amplifier (0% chose this)
-
power supply (0% chose this)
-
telegraph key (0% chose this)
-
master oscillator (0% chose this)
In a CW transmitter, the output of the _____________ is transferred to the antenna.
-
power supply (0% chose this)
-
master oscillator (0% chose this)
-
power amplifier (0% chose this)
-
driver/buffer (0% chose this)
In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the ________ is connected to the balanced modulator.
-
variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
-
linear amplifier (0% chose this)
-
mixer (0% chose this)
-
radio frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the ____________ is connected to the filter.
-
balanced modulator (0% chose this)
-
microphone (0% chose this)
-
mixer (0% chose this)
-
radio frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
In a single sideband transmitter, the _____________ is in between the balanced modulator and the mixer.
-
speech amplifier (0% chose this)
-
microphone (0% chose this)
-
filter (0% chose this)
-
radio frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
In a single sideband transmitter, the ______________ is connected to the speech amplifier.
-
filter (0% chose this)
-
mixer (0% chose this)
-
microphone (0% chose this)
-
radio frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the ___________ is connected to the balanced modulator.
-
speech amplifier (0% chose this)
-
filter (0% chose this)
-
variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
-
linear amplifier (0% chose this)
In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the variable frequency oscillator is connected to the __________.
-
linear amplifier (0% chose this)
-
mixer (0% chose this)
-
antenna (0% chose this)
-
balanced modulator (0% chose this)
In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the _________ is connected to the mixer.
-
linear amplifier (0% chose this)
-
antenna (0% chose this)
-
variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
-
radio frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
In an single sideband transmitter, the ____________ is in between the mixer and the antenna.
-
balanced modulator (0% chose this)
-
radio frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
-
linear amplifier (0% chose this)
-
variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the linear amplifier is connected to the ______________.
-
speech amplifier (0% chose this)
-
antenna (0% chose this)
-
filter (0% chose this)
-
variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
What does chirp mean?
-
A small change in a transmitter's frequency each time it is keyed (0% chose this)
-
A high-pitched tone which is received along with a CW signal (0% chose this)
-
A slow change in transmitter frequency as the circuit warms up (0% chose this)
-
An overload in a receiver's audio circuit whenever CW is received (0% chose this)
What can be done to keep a CW transmitter from chirping?
-
Add a low pass filter (0% chose this)
-
Keep the power supply voltages very steady under transmit load (0% chose this)
-
Add a key-click filter (0% chose this)
-
Keep the power supply current very steady under transmit load (0% chose this)
What circuit has a variable-frequency oscillator connected to a buffer/driver and a power amplifier?
-
A single-sideband transmitter (0% chose this)
-
A digital radio transmitter (0% chose this)
-
A VFO-controlled CW transmitter (0% chose this)
-
A crystal-controlled AM transmitter (0% chose this)
What type of modulation system changes the amplitude of an RF wave for the purpose of conveying information?
-
Phase modulation (0% chose this)
-
Amplitude-rectification modulation (0% chose this)
-
Frequency modulation (0% chose this)
-
Amplitude modulation (0% chose this)
In what emission type does the instantaneous amplitude (envelope) of the RF signal vary in accordance with the modulating audio?
-
Amplitude modulation (0% chose this)
-
Frequency modulation (0% chose this)
-
Pulse modulation (0% chose this)
-
Frequency shift keying (0% chose this)
Morse code is usually transmitted by radio as:
-
a series of key-clicks (0% chose this)
-
a continuous carrier (0% chose this)
-
a voice-modulated carrier (0% chose this)
-
an interrupted carrier (0% chose this)
A mismatched antenna or transmission line may present an incorrect load to the transmitter. The result may be:
-
full power will not be transferred to the antenna (0% chose this)
-
loss of modulation in the transmitted signal (0% chose this)
-
the driver stage will not deliver power to the final (0% chose this)
-
the output tank circuit breaks down (0% chose this)
One result of a slight mismatch between the power amplifier of a transmitter and the antenna would be:
-
smaller DC current drain (0% chose this)
-
lower modulation percentage (0% chose this)
-
radiated key-clicks (0% chose this)
-
reduced antenna radiation (0% chose this)
An RF oscillator should be electrically and mechanically stable. This is to ensure that the oscillator does not:
-
drift in frequency (0% chose this)
-
become over modulated (0% chose this)
-
generate key-clicks (0% chose this)
-
cause undue distortion (0% chose this)
The input power to the final stage of your transmitter is 200 watts and the output is 125 watts. What has happened to the remaining power?
-
It has been used to provide greater efficiency (0% chose this)
-
It has been used to provide negative feedback (0% chose this)
-
It has been used to provide positive feedback (0% chose this)
-
It has been dissipated as heat loss (0% chose this)
The difference between DC input power and RF output power of a transmitter RF amplifier:
-
is due to oscillating (0% chose this)
-
radiates from the antenna (0% chose this)
-
appears as heat dissipation (0% chose this)
-
is lost in the transmission line (0% chose this)
What may happen if an SSB transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high?
-
It may cause digital interference to computer equipment (0% chose this)
-
It may cause splatter interference to other stations operating near its frequency (0% chose this)
-
It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band (0% chose this)
-
It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna (0% chose this)
What may happen if an SSB transmitter is operated with too much speech processing?
-
It may cause digital interference to computer equipment (0% chose this)
-
It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna (0% chose this)
-
It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band (0% chose this)
-
It may cause audio distortion or splatter interference to other stations operating near its frequency (0% chose this)
What is the term for the average power supplied to an antenna transmission line during one RF cycle, at the crest of the modulation envelope?
-
Average radio-frequency power (0% chose this)
-
Peak transmitter power (0% chose this)
-
Peak envelope power (0% chose this)
-
Peak output power (0% chose this)
What is the usual bandwidth of a single-sideband amateur signal?
-
Between 3 and 6 kHz (0% chose this)
-
Between 2 and 3 kHz (0% chose this)
-
1 kHz (0% chose this)
-
2 kHz (0% chose this)
In a typical single-sideband phone transmitter, what circuit processes signals from the balanced modulator and sends signals to the mixer?
-
Filter (0% chose this)
-
IF amplifier (0% chose this)
-
RF amplifier (0% chose this)
-
Carrier oscillator (0% chose this)
What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a double-sideband phone transmission?
-
Only half the bandwidth is required for the same information content (0% chose this)
-
Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion (0% chose this)
-
Simpler equipment can be used to receive a double-sideband suppressed-carrier signal (0% chose this)
-
More power can be put into the sidebands for a given power amplifier capacity (0% chose this)
What happens to the signal of an overmodulated single-sideband or double-sideband phone transmitter?
-
It becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth (0% chose this)
-
It becomes stronger with no other effects (0% chose this)
-
It occupies less bandwidth with poor high-frequency response (0% chose this)
-
It has higher fidelity and improved signal-to-noise ratio (0% chose this)
How should the microphone gain control be adjusted on a single-sideband phone transmitter?
-
For a dip in plate current (0% chose this)
-
For slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks (0% chose this)
-
For full deflection of the ALC meter on modulation peaks (0% chose this)
-
For 100% frequency deviation on modulation peaks (0% chose this)
The purpose of a balanced modulator in an SSB transmitter is to:
-
ensure that the percentage of modulation is kept constant (0% chose this)
-
make sure that the carrier and both sidebands are in phase (0% chose this)
-
suppress the carrier and pass on the two sidebands (0% chose this)
-
make sure that the carrier and both sidebands are 180 degrees out of phase (0% chose this)
In a SSB transmission, the carrier is:
-
transmitted with one sideband (0% chose this)
-
inserted at the transmitter (0% chose this)
-
of no use at the receiver (0% chose this)
-
reinserted at the receiver (0% chose this)
The automatic level control (ALC) in a SSB transmitter:
-
increases the occupied bandwidth (0% chose this)
-
reduces the system noise (0% chose this)
-
controls the peak audio input so that the power amplifier is not overdriven (0% chose this)
-
reduces transmitter audio feedback (0% chose this)
What may happen if an FM transmitter is operated with the microphone gain or deviation control set too high?
-
It may cause interference to other stations operating near its frequency (0% chose this)
-
It may cause digital interference to computer equipment (0% chose this)
-
It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna (0% chose this)
-
It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band (0% chose this)
What may your FM hand-held or mobile transceiver do if you shout into its microphone and the deviation adjustment is set too high?
-
It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band (0% chose this)
-
It may cause interference to other stations operating near its frequency (0% chose this)
-
It may cause digital interference to computer equipment (0% chose this)
-
It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna (0% chose this)
What can you do if you are told your FM hand-held or mobile transceiver is overdeviating?
-
Talk farther away from the microphone (0% chose this)
-
Talk louder into the microphone (0% chose this)
-
Let the transceiver cool off (0% chose this)
-
Change to a higher power level (0% chose this)
What kind of emission would your FM transmitter produce if its microphone failed to work?
-
A phase-modulated carrier (0% chose this)
-
An unmodulated carrier (0% chose this)
-
A frequency-modulated carrier (0% chose this)
-
An amplitude-modulated carrier (0% chose this)
Why is FM voice best for local VHF/UHF radio communications?
-
Its RF carrier stays on frequency better than the AM modes (0% chose this)
-
It provides good signal plus noise to noise ratio at low RF signal levels (0% chose this)
-
The carrier is not detectable (0% chose this)
-
It is more resistant to distortion caused by reflected signals (0% chose this)
What is the usual bandwidth of a frequency-modulated amateur signal for +/- 5kHz deviation?
-
Greater than 20 kHz (0% chose this)
-
Between 10 and 20 kHz (0% chose this)
-
Less than 5 kHz (0% chose this)
-
Between 5 and 10 kHz (0% chose this)
What is the result of overdeviation in an FM transmitter?
-
Poor carrier suppression (0% chose this)
-
Out-of-channel emissions (0% chose this)
-
Increased transmitter power (0% chose this)
-
Increased transmitter range (0% chose this)
What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an RF power amplifier?
-
Pulse modulation (0% chose this)
-
Phase modulation (0% chose this)
-
Multiplex modulation (0% chose this)
-
Amplitude modulation (0% chose this)
Why isn't frequency modulated (FM) phone used below 28.0 MHz?
-
The bandwidth would exceed limits in the Regulations (0% chose this)
-
The transmitter efficiency for this mode is low (0% chose this)
-
Harmonics could not be attenuated to practical levels (0% chose this)
-
The frequency stability would not be adequate (0% chose this)
You are transmitting FM on the 2 metre band. Several stations advise you that your transmission is loud and distorted. A quick check with a frequency counter tells you that the transmitter is on the proper frequency. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the distortion?
-
The power supply output voltage is low (0% chose this)
-
The repeater is reversing your sidebands (0% chose this)
-
The frequency counter is giving an incorrect reading and you are indeed off frequency (0% chose this)
-
The frequency deviation of your transmitter is set too high (0% chose this)
What type of propagation usually occurs from one hand-held VHF transceiver to another nearby?
-
Tunnel propagation (0% chose this)
-
Skywave propagation (0% chose this)
-
Auroral propagation (0% chose this)
-
Line-of-sight propagation (0% chose this)
How does the range of sky-wave propagation compare to ground-wave propagation?
-
It depends on the weather (0% chose this)
-
It is much longer (0% chose this)
-
It is much shorter (0% chose this)
-
It is about the same (0% chose this)
When a signal is returned to Earth by the ionosphere, what is this called?
-
Ground-wave propagation (0% chose this)
-
Earth-Moon-Earth propagation (0% chose this)
-
Sky-wave propagation (0% chose this)
-
Tropospheric propagation (0% chose this)
How are VHF signals propagated within the range of the visible horizon?
-
By plane wave (0% chose this)
-
By geometric wave (0% chose this)
-
By direct wave (0% chose this)
-
By sky wave (0% chose this)
Skywave is another name for:
-
ground wave (0% chose this)
-
inverted wave (0% chose this)
-
ionospheric wave (0% chose this)
-
tropospheric wave (0% chose this)
That portion of the radiation which is directly affected by the surface of the Earth is called:
-
inverted wave (0% chose this)
-
ground wave (0% chose this)
-
tropospheric wave (0% chose this)
-
ionospheric wave (0% chose this)
At lower HF frequencies, radiocommunication out to 200 km, during daytime, is made possible by:
-
troposphere (0% chose this)
-
skip wave (0% chose this)
-
ionosphere (0% chose this)
-
ground wave (0% chose this)
The distance travelled by ground waves:
-
is less at higher frequencies (0% chose this)
-
depends on the maximum usable frequency (0% chose this)
-
is more at higher frequencies (0% chose this)
-
is the same for all frequencies (0% chose this)
The radio wave which follows a path from the transmitter to the ionosphere and back to Earth is known correctly as the:
-
skip wave (0% chose this)
-
ionospheric wave (0% chose this)
-
F layer (0% chose this)
-
surface wave (0% chose this)
Reception of high frequency (HF) radio waves beyond 4000 km is generally made possible by:
-
surface wave (0% chose this)
-
ionospheric wave (0% chose this)
-
ground wave (0% chose this)
-
skip wave (0% chose this)
What causes the ionosphere to form?
-
Temperature changes ionizing the outer atmosphere (0% chose this)
-
Solar radiation ionizing the outer atmosphere (0% chose this)
-
Lightning ionizing the outer atmosphere (0% chose this)
-
Release of fluorocarbons into the atmosphere (0% chose this)
What type of solar radiation is most responsible for ionization in the outer atmosphere?
-
Thermal (0% chose this)
-
Ultraviolet (0% chose this)
-
Microwave (0% chose this)
-
Ionized particles (0% chose this)
Which ionospheric region is closest to the Earth?
-
The F region (0% chose this)
-
The A region (0% chose this)
-
The D region (0% chose this)
-
The E region (0% chose this)
Which region of the ionosphere is the least useful for long distance radio-wave propagation?
-
The F2 region (0% chose this)
-
The F1 region (0% chose this)
-
The E region (0% chose this)
-
The D region (0% chose this)
What two sub-regions of ionosphere exist only in the daytime?
-
F1 and F2 (0% chose this)
-
Troposphere and stratosphere (0% chose this)
-
Electrostatic and electromagnetic (0% chose this)
-
D and E (0% chose this)
When is the ionosphere most ionized?
-
Dawn (0% chose this)
-
Midnight (0% chose this)
-
Dusk (0% chose this)
-
Midday (0% chose this)
When is the ionosphere least ionized?
-
Shortly before dawn (0% chose this)
-
Just after noon (0% chose this)
-
Just after dusk (0% chose this)
-
Shortly before midnight (0% chose this)
Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio-wave propagation?
-
Because it exists only at night (0% chose this)
-
Because it is the lowest ionospheric region (0% chose this)
-
Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions (0% chose this)
-
Because it is the highest ionospheric region (0% chose this)
What is the main reason the 160, 80 and 40 metre amateur bands tend to be useful only for short-distance communications during daylight hours?
-
Because of a lack of activity (0% chose this)
-
Because of D-region absorption (0% chose this)
-
Because of auroral propagation (0% chose this)
-
Because of magnetic flux (0% chose this)
During the day, one of the ionospheric layers splits into two parts called:
-
D1 and D2 (0% chose this)
-
E1 and E2 (0% chose this)
-
A and B (0% chose this)
-
F1 and F2 (0% chose this)
The position of the E layer in the ionosphere is:
-
below the D layer (0% chose this)
-
sporadic (0% chose this)
-
above the F layer (0% chose this)
-
below the F layer (0% chose this)
What is a skip zone?
-
An area which is too far away for ground-wave propagation, but too close for sky-wave propagation (0% chose this)
-
An area which is too far away for ground-wave or sky-wave propagation (0% chose this)
-
An area covered by sky-wave propagation (0% chose this)
-
An area covered by ground-wave propagation (0% chose this)
What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
-
300 km (190 miles) (0% chose this)
-
4000 km (2500 miles) (0% chose this)
-
None; the F2 region does not support radio-wave propagation (0% chose this)
-
2000 km (1250 miles) (0% chose this)
What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?
-
2000 km (1250 miles) (0% chose this)
-
300 km (190 miles) (0% chose this)
-
4000 km (2500 miles) (0% chose this)
-
None; the E region does not support radio-wave propagation (0% chose this)
Skip zone is:
-
a zone between the antenna and the return of the first refracted wave (0% chose this)
-
a zone between the end of the ground wave and the point where the first refracted wave returns to Earth (0% chose this)
-
a zone of silence caused by lost sky waves (0% chose this)
-
a zone between any two refracted waves (0% chose this)
The distance to Europe from your location is approximately 5000 km. What sort of propagation is the most likely to be involved?
-
Sporadic "E" (0% chose this)
-
Back scatter (0% chose this)
-
Tropospheric scatter (0% chose this)
-
Multihop (0% chose this)
For radio signals, the skip distance is determined by the:
-
height of the ionosphere and the angle of radiation (0% chose this)
-
power fed to the power amplifier (0% chose this)
-
angle of radiation (0% chose this)
-
type of transmitting antenna used (0% chose this)
The distance from the transmitter to the nearest point where the sky wave returns to the Earth is called the:
-
angle of radiation (0% chose this)
-
maximum usable frequency (0% chose this)
-
skip distance (0% chose this)
-
skip zone (0% chose this)
Skip distance is the:
-
the maximum distance a signal will travel by both a ground wave and reflected wave (0% chose this)
-
the minimum distance reached by a signal after one reflection by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
-
the maximum distance reached by a signal after one reflection by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
-
the minimum distance reached by a ground-wave signal (0% chose this)
Skip distance is a term associated with signals from the ionosphere. Skip effects are due to:
-
selective fading of local signals (0% chose this)
-
high gain antennas being used (0% chose this)
-
local cloud cover (0% chose this)
-
reflection and refraction from the ionosphere (0% chose this)
The skip distance of a sky wave will be greatest when the:
-
ionosphere is most densely ionized (0% chose this)
-
signal given out is strongest (0% chose this)
-
angle between the ground and the radiation is smallest (0% chose this)
-
polarization is vertical (0% chose this)
If the height of the reflecting layer of the ionosphere increases, the skip distance of a high frequency (HF) transmission:
-
stays the same (0% chose this)
-
varies regularly (0% chose this)
-
decreases (0% chose this)
-
becomes greater (0% chose this)
What effect does the D region of the ionosphere have on lower frequency HF signals in the daytime?
-
It has little or no effect on 80-metre radio waves (0% chose this)
-
It absorbs the signals (0% chose this)
-
It bends the radio waves out into space (0% chose this)
-
It refracts the radio waves back to Earth (0% chose this)
What causes distant AM broadcast and 160 metre ham band stations not to be heard during daytime hours?
-
The presence of ionized clouds in the E region (0% chose this)
-
The splitting of the F region (0% chose this)
-
The weather below the ionosphere (0% chose this)
-
The ionization of the D region (0% chose this)
Two or more parts of the radio wave follow different paths during propagation and this may result in phase differences at the receiver. This "change" at the receiver is called:
-
absorption (0% chose this)
-
skip (0% chose this)
-
fading (0% chose this)
-
baffling (0% chose this)
A change or variation in signal strength at the antenna, caused by differences in path lengths, is called:
-
fading (0% chose this)
-
absorption (0% chose this)
-
fluctuation (0% chose this)
-
path loss (0% chose this)
When a transmitted radio signal reaches a station by a one-hop and two-hop skip path, small changes in the ionosphere can cause:
-
consistent fading of received signal (0% chose this)
-
consistently stronger signals (0% chose this)
-
a change in the ground-wave signal (0% chose this)
-
variations in signal strength (0% chose this)
The usual effect of ionospheric storms is to:
-
produce extreme weather changes (0% chose this)
-
prevent communications by ground wave (0% chose this)
-
increase the maximum usable frequency (0% chose this)
-
cause a fade-out of sky-wave signals (0% chose this)
On the VHF and UHF bands, polarization of the receiving antenna is very important in relation to the transmitting antenna, yet on HF bands it is relatively unimportant. Why is that so?
-
Greater selectivity is possible with HF receivers making changes in polarization redundant (0% chose this)
-
The ionosphere can change the polarization of the signal from moment to moment (0% chose this)
-
The ground wave and the sky wave continually shift the polarization (0% chose this)
-
Anomalies in the Earth's magnetic field produce a profound effect on HF polarization but not on VHF & UHF frequencies (0% chose this)
What causes selective fading?
-
Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations (0% chose this)
-
Large changes in the height of the ionosphere at the receiving station ordinarily occurring shortly before sunrise and sunset (0% chose this)
-
Phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station (0% chose this)
-
Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station (0% chose this)
How does the bandwidth of a transmitted signal affect selective fading?
-
It is the same for both wide and narrow bandwidths (0% chose this)
-
Only the receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect (0% chose this)
-
It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths (0% chose this)
-
It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths (0% chose this)
Polarization change often takes place on radio waves that are propagated over long distances. Which of these does not cause polarization change?
-
Passage through magnetic fields (Faraday rotation) (0% chose this)
-
Refractions (0% chose this)
-
Parabolic interaction (0% chose this)
-
Reflections (0% chose this)
Reflection of a SSB transmission from the ionosphere causes:
-
a high-pitch squeal at the receiver (0% chose this)
-
little or no phase-shift distortion (0% chose this)
-
phase-shift distortion (0% chose this)
-
signal cancellation at the receiver (0% chose this)
How do sunspots change the ionization of the atmosphere?
-
The more sunspots there are, the less the ionization (0% chose this)
-
Unless there are sunspots, the ionization is zero (0% chose this)
-
They have no effect (0% chose this)
-
The more sunspots there are, the greater the ionization (0% chose this)
How long is an average sunspot cycle?
-
5 years (0% chose this)
-
7 years (0% chose this)
-
11 years (0% chose this)
-
17 years (0% chose this)
What is solar flux?
-
A measure of the tilt of the Earth's ionosphere on the side toward the sun (0% chose this)
-
The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the Earth (0% chose this)
-
The density of the sun's magnetic field (0% chose this)
-
The radio energy emitted by the sun (0% chose this)
What is the solar-flux index?
-
A measure of solar activity that is taken annually (0% chose this)
-
A measure of solar activity that is taken at a specific frequency (0% chose this)
-
Another name for the American sunspot number (0% chose this)
-
A measure of solar activity that compares daily readings with results from the last six months (0% chose this)
What influences all radiocommunication beyond ground-wave or line-of-sight ranges?
-
The F2 region of the ionosphere (0% chose this)
-
The F1 region of the ionosphere (0% chose this)
-
Lunar tidal effects (0% chose this)
-
Solar radiation (0% chose this)
Which two types of radiation from the sun influence propagation?
-
Electromagnetic and particle emissions (0% chose this)
-
Subaudible and audio-frequency emissions (0% chose this)
-
Polar region and equatorial emissions (0% chose this)
-
Infrared and gamma-ray emissions (0% chose this)
When sunspot numbers are high, how is propagation affected?
-
High frequency radio signals become weak and distorted (0% chose this)
-
Frequencies up to 40 MHz or even higher become usable for long-distance communication (0% chose this)
-
High frequency radio signals are absorbed (0% chose this)
-
Frequencies up to 100 MHz or higher are normally usable for long-distance communication (0% chose this)
All communication frequencies throughout the spectrum are affected in varying degrees by the:
-
ionosphere (0% chose this)
-
aurora borealis (0% chose this)
-
atmospheric conditions (0% chose this)
-
sun (0% chose this)
Average duration of a solar cycle is:
-
1 year (0% chose this)
-
11 years (0% chose this)
-
3 years (0% chose this)
-
6 years (0% chose this)
The ability of the ionosphere to reflect high frequency radio signals depends on:
-
upper atmosphere weather conditions (0% chose this)
-
the amount of solar radiation (0% chose this)
-
the power of the transmitted signal (0% chose this)
-
the receiver sensitivity (0% chose this)
HF radio propagation cycles have a period of approximately 11:
-
centuries (0% chose this)
-
years (0% chose this)
-
months (0% chose this)
-
days (0% chose this)
What happens to signals higher in frequency than the critical frequency?
-
They are absorbed by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
-
Their frequency is changed by the ionosphere to be below the maximum usable frequency (0% chose this)
-
They are reflected back to their source (0% chose this)
-
They pass through the ionosphere (0% chose this)
What causes the maximum usable frequency to vary?
-
The type of weather just below the ionosphere (0% chose this)
-
The amount of radiation received from the sun, mainly ultraviolet (0% chose this)
-
The temperature of the ionosphere (0% chose this)
-
The speed of the winds in the upper atmosphere (0% chose this)
What does maximum usable frequency mean?
-
The highest frequency signal that will reach its intended destination (0% chose this)
-
The lowest frequency signal that will reach its intended destination (0% chose this)
-
The highest frequency signal that is most absorbed by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
-
The lowest frequency signal that is most absorbed by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
What can be done at an amateur station to continue HF communications during a sudden ionospheric disturbance?
-
Try a different frequency shift (0% chose this)
-
Try a higher frequency band (0% chose this)
-
Try the other sideband (0% chose this)
-
Try a different antenna polarization (0% chose this)
What is one way to determine if the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is high enough to support 28 MHz propagation between your station and western Europe?
-
Listen for WWVH time signals on 20 MHz (0% chose this)
-
Listen for signals from 10-metre beacon stations (0% chose this)
-
Listen for signals from 20-metre beacon stations (0% chose this)
-
Listen for signals from 39-metre broadcast stations (0% chose this)
What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the maximum usable frequency (MUF) when they are sent into the ionosphere?
-
They pass through the ionosphere (0% chose this)
-
They are bent back to the Earth (0% chose this)
-
They are changed to a frequency above the MUF (0% chose this)
-
They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-metre band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
-
Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle (0% chose this)
-
At the summer solstice (0% chose this)
-
At any point in the solar cycle (0% chose this)
-
Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle (0% chose this)
If we transmit a signal, the frequency of which is so high we no longer receive a reflection from the ionosphere, the signal frequency is above the:
-
skip distance (0% chose this)
-
speed of light (0% chose this)
-
sunspot frequency (0% chose this)
-
maximum usable frequency (0% chose this)
Communication on the 80 metre band is generally most difficult during:
-
daytime in winter (0% chose this)
-
daytime in summer (0% chose this)
-
evening in winter (0% chose this)
-
evening in summer (0% chose this)
The optimum working frequency provides the best long range HF communication. Compared with the maximum usable frequency (MUF), it is usually:
-
double the MUF (0% chose this)
-
half the MUF (0% chose this)
-
slightly higher (0% chose this)
-
slightly lower (0% chose this)
During summer daytime, which bands are the most difficult for communications beyond ground wave?
-
160 and 80 metres (0% chose this)
-
40 metres (0% chose this)
-
30 metres (0% chose this)
-
20 metres (0% chose this)
Which ionospheric region most affects sky-wave propagation on the 6 metre band?
-
The D region (0% chose this)
-
The E region (0% chose this)
-
The F2 region (0% chose this)
-
The F1 region (0% chose this)
What effect does tropospheric bending have on 2-metre radio waves?
-
It lets you contact stations farther away (0% chose this)
-
It causes them to travel shorter distances (0% chose this)
-
It garbles the signal (0% chose this)
-
It reverses the sideband of the signal (0% chose this)
What causes tropospheric ducting of radio waves?
-
A temperature inversion (0% chose this)
-
Lightning between the transmitting and receiving stations (0% chose this)
-
An aurora to the north (0% chose this)
-
A very low pressure area (0% chose this)
That portion of the radiation kept close to the Earth's surface due to bending in the atmosphere is called the:
-
tropospheric wave (0% chose this)
-
inverted wave (0% chose this)
-
ground wave (0% chose this)
-
ionospheric wave (0% chose this)
What is a sporadic-E condition?
-
A brief decrease in VHF signals caused by sunspot variations (0% chose this)
-
Patches of dense ionization at E-region height (0% chose this)
-
Partial tropospheric ducting at E-region height (0% chose this)
-
Variations in E-region height caused by sunspot variations (0% chose this)
On which amateur frequency band is the extended-distance propagation effect of sporadic-E most often observed?
-
20 metres (0% chose this)
-
2 metres (0% chose this)
-
6 metres (0% chose this)
-
160 metres (0% chose this)
In the northern hemisphere, in which direction should a directional antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation?
-
South (0% chose this)
-
North (0% chose this)
-
East (0% chose this)
-
West (0% chose this)
Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur?
-
At E-region height (0% chose this)
-
At F-region height (0% chose this)
-
In the equatorial band (0% chose this)
-
At D-region height (0% chose this)
Which emission mode is best for auroral propagation?
-
FM (0% chose this)
-
SSB (0% chose this)
-
CW (0% chose this)
-
RTTY (0% chose this)
Excluding enhanced propagation modes, what is the approximate range of normal VHF tropospheric propagation?
-
1600 km (1000 miles) (0% chose this)
-
800 km (500 miles) (0% chose this)
-
2400 km (1500 miles) (0% chose this)
-
3200 km (2000 miles) (0% chose this)
What effect is responsible for propagating a VHF signal over 800 km (500 miles)?
-
Faraday rotation (0% chose this)
-
D-region absorption (0% chose this)
-
Moon bounce (EME) Earth - Moon - Earth (0% chose this)
-
Tropospheric ducting (0% chose this)
What kind of unusual HF propagation allows weak signals from the skip zone to be heard occasionally?
-
Ducting (0% chose this)
-
Ground-wave (0% chose this)
-
Scatter-mode (0% chose this)
-
Sky-wave with low radiation angle (0% chose this)
If you receive a weak, distorted signal from a distance, and close to the maximum usable frequency, what type of propagation is probably occurring?
-
Line-of-sight (0% chose this)
-
Ducting (0% chose this)
-
Scatter (0% chose this)
-
Ground-wave (0% chose this)
What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
-
Reversed sidebands (0% chose this)
-
High intelligibility (0% chose this)
-
Rapid flutter or hollow sounding distortion (0% chose this)
-
Reversed modulation (0% chose this)
What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
-
The state of the E-region at the point of refraction (0% chose this)
-
Energy scattered into the skip zone through several radio-wave paths (0% chose this)
-
Auroral activity and changes in the Earth's magnetic field (0% chose this)
-
Propagation through ground waves that absorb much of the signal (0% chose this)
Why are HF scatter signals usually weak?
-
The F region of the ionosphere absorbs most of the signal energy (0% chose this)
-
Auroral activity absorbs most of the signal energy (0% chose this)
-
Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone (0% chose this)
-
Propagation through ground waves absorbs most of the signal energy (0% chose this)
What type of propagation may allow a weak signal to be heard at a distance too far for ground-wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?
-
Sporadic-E skip (0% chose this)
-
Ground wave (0% chose this)
-
Scatter (0% chose this)
-
Short-path skip (0% chose this)
On the HF bands, when is scatter propagation most likely involved?
-
When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum and D-region absorption is high (0% chose this)
-
At night (0% chose this)
-
When the F1 and F2 regions are combined (0% chose this)
-
When weak and distorted signals near or above the maximum usable frequency for normal propagation can be heard over unusual paths (0% chose this)
Which of the following is not a scatter mode?
-
Meteor scatter (0% chose this)
-
Tropospheric scatter (0% chose this)
-
Ionospheric scatter (0% chose this)
-
Absorption scatter (0% chose this)
Meteor scatter is most effective on what band?
-
15 metres (0% chose this)
-
160 metres (0% chose this)
-
6 metres (0% chose this)
-
40 metres (0% chose this)
Which of the following is not a scatter mode?
-
Forward scatter (0% chose this)
-
Inverted scatter (0% chose this)
-
Side scatter (0% chose this)
-
Back scatter (0% chose this)
In which frequency range is meteor scatter most effective for extended-range communication?
-
10 - 30 MHz (0% chose this)
-
3 - 10 MHz (0% chose this)
-
100 - 300 MHz (0% chose this)
-
30 - 100 MHz (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation receiver, the ________is connected to the input of the radio frequency amplifier.
-
frequency discriminator (0% chose this)
-
limiter (0% chose this)
-
antenna (0% chose this)
-
mixer (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation receiver, the __________ is in between the antenna and the mixer.
-
audio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
local oscillator (0% chose this)
-
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation receiver, the output of the local oscillator is fed to the:
-
limiter (0% chose this)
-
antenna (0% chose this)
-
mixer (0% chose this)
-
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation receiver, the output of the ________is connected to the mixer.
-
local oscillator (0% chose this)
-
frequency discriminator (0% chose this)
-
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
speaker or headphones (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation receiver, the_________ is in between the mixer and the intermediate frequency amplifier.
-
limiter (0% chose this)
-
frequency discriminator (0% chose this)
-
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
filter (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation receiver, the ________ is located between the filter and the limiter.
-
local oscillator (0% chose this)
-
mixer (0% chose this)
-
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation receiver, the__________ is in between the intermediate frequency amplifier and the frequency discriminator.
-
limiter (0% chose this)
-
filter (0% chose this)
-
local oscillator (0% chose this)
-
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation receiver, the __________ is located between the limiter and the audio frequency amplifier.
-
frequency discriminator (0% chose this)
-
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
speaker or headphones (0% chose this)
-
local oscillator (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation receiver, the _________ is located between the speaker or headphones and the frequency discriminator.
-
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
audio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
limiter (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation receiver, the __________ connects to the audio frequency amplifier output.
-
limiter (0% chose this)
-
speaker or headphones (0% chose this)
-
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
frequency discriminator (0% chose this)
In a single sideband and CW receiver, the antenna is connected to the ____________ .
-
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
product detector (0% chose this)
-
local oscillator (0% chose this)
-
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
In a single sideband and CW receiver, the output of the _____________ is connected to the mixer.
-
audio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
filter (0% chose this)
-
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
In a single sideband and CW receiver, the __________ is connected to the radio frequency amplifier and the local oscillator.
-
beat frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
-
product detector (0% chose this)
-
filter (0% chose this)
-
mixer (0% chose this)
In a single sideband and CW receiver, the output of the ___________ is connected to the mixer.
-
product detector (0% chose this)
-
local oscillator (0% chose this)
-
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
beat frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
In a single sideband and CW receiver, the _____________ is in between the mixer and intermediate frequency amplifier.
-
filter (0% chose this)
-
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
beat frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
-
product detector (0% chose this)
In a single sideband and CW receiver, the __________ is in between the filter and product detector.
-
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
audio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
beat frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
-
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
In a single sideband and CW receiver, the __________ output is connected to the audio frequency amplifier.
-
beat frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
-
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
product detector (0% chose this)
-
local oscillator (0% chose this)
In a single sideband and CW receiver, the output of the ___________ is connected to the product detector.
-
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
audio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
beat frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
-
mixer (0% chose this)
In a single sideband and CW receiver, the __________ is connected to the output of the product detector.
-
local oscillator (0% chose this)
-
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
audio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
In a single sideband and CW receiver, the __________ is connected to the output of the audio frequency amplifier.
-
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
-
beat frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
-
speaker or headphones (0% chose this)
-
mixer (0% chose this)
Which list of emission types is in order from the narrowest bandwidth to the widest bandwidth?
-
CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB voice (0% chose this)
-
RTTY, CW, SSB voice, FM voice (0% chose this)
-
CW, RTTY, SSB voice, FM voice (0% chose this)
-
CW, SSB voice, RTTY, FM voice (0% chose this)
The figure in a receiver's specifications which indicates its sensitivity is the:
-
audio output in watts (0% chose this)
-
bandwidth of the IF in kilohertz (0% chose this)
-
number of RF amplifiers (0% chose this)
-
RF input signal needed to achieve a given signal plus noise to noise ratio (0% chose this)
If two receivers of different sensitivity are compared, the less sensitive receiver will produce:
-
a steady oscillator drift (0% chose this)
-
more than one signal (0% chose this)
-
more signal or less noise (0% chose this)
-
less signal or more noise (0% chose this)
Which of the following modes of transmission is usually detected with a product detector?
-
Single sideband suppressed carrier (0% chose this)
-
Double sideband full carrier (0% chose this)
-
Frequency modulation (0% chose this)
-
Pulse modulation (0% chose this)
A receiver designed for SSB reception must have a BFO (beat frequency oscillator) because:
-
it beats with the received carrier to produce the other sideband (0% chose this)
-
it reduces the passband of the IF stages (0% chose this)
-
it phases out the unwanted sideband signal (0% chose this)
-
the suppressed carrier must be replaced for detection (0% chose this)
A receiver receives an incoming signal of 3.54 MHz, and the local oscillator produces a signal of 3.995 MHz. To which frequency should the IF be tuned?
-
3.995 MHz (0% chose this)
-
3.54 MHz (0% chose this)
-
455 kHz (0% chose this)
-
7.435 MHz (0% chose this)
What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?
-
An all pass filter (0% chose this)
-
A pi-network filter (0% chose this)
-
A notch filter (0% chose this)
-
A band pass filter (0% chose this)
The three main parameters against which the quality of a receiver is measured are:
-
selectivity, stability and frequency range (0% chose this)
-
sensitivity, stability and cross-modulation (0% chose this)
-
sensitivity, selectivity and image rejection (0% chose this)
-
sensitivity, selectivity and stability (0% chose this)
A communications receiver has four filters installed in it, respectively designated as 250 Hz, 500 Hz, 2.4 kHz, and 6 kHz. If you were listening to single sideband, which filter would you utilize?
-
6 kHz (0% chose this)
-
500 Hz (0% chose this)
-
2.4 kHz (0% chose this)
-
250 Hz (0% chose this)
A communications receiver has four filters installed in it, respectively designated as 250 Hz, 500 Hz, 2.4 kHz and 6 kHz. You are copying a CW transmission and there is a great deal of interference. Which one of the filters would you choose?
-
2.4 kHz (0% chose this)
-
6 kHz (0% chose this)
-
250 Hz (0% chose this)
-
500 Hz (0% chose this)
Selectivity can be placed in the audio stages of a receiver by the utilization of RC active or passive audio filters. If you were to copy CW, which of the following bandpasses would you choose?
-
300 - 2700 Hz (0% chose this)
-
100 - 1100 Hz (0% chose this)
-
750 - 850 Hz (0% chose this)
-
2100 - 2300 Hz (0% chose this)
FM receivers perform in an unusual manner when two or more stations are present. The strongest signal, even though it is only two or three times stronger than the other signals, will be the only transmission demodulated. This is called:
-
surrender effect (0% chose this)
-
capture effect (0% chose this)
-
attach effect (0% chose this)
-
interference effect (0% chose this)
What is meant by receiver overload?
-
Interference caused by strong signals from a nearby transmitter (0% chose this)
-
Interference caused by turning the volume up too high (0% chose this)
-
Too much current from the power supply (0% chose this)
-
Too much voltage from the power supply (0% chose this)
What is one way to tell if radio frequency interference to a receiver is caused by front-end overload?
-
If connecting a low pass filter to the transmitter greatly cuts down the interference (0% chose this)
-
If the interference is about the same no matter what frequency is used for the transmitter (0% chose this)
-
If grounding the receiver makes the problem worse (0% chose this)
-
If connecting a low pass filter to the receiver greatly cuts down the interference (0% chose this)
If a neighbour reports television interference whenever you transmit, no matter what band you use, what is probably the cause of the interference?
-
Receiver overload (0% chose this)
-
Incorrect antenna length (0% chose this)
-
Receiver VR tube discharge (0% chose this)
-
Too little transmitter harmonic suppression (0% chose this)
What type of filter should be connected to a TV receiver as the first step in trying to prevent RF overload from an amateur HF station transmission?
-
High-pass (0% chose this)
-
Low-pass (0% chose this)
-
Band-pass (0% chose this)
-
No filter (0% chose this)
During a club ARRL Field Day outing, reception on the 20 m SSB station is compromised every time the 20 m CW station is on the air. What might cause such interference?
-
Improper station grounding (0% chose this)
-
Harmonic radiation (0% chose this)
-
Receiver desensitization (0% chose this)
-
Both stations are fed from the same generator (0% chose this)
Intermodulation in a broadcast receiver by a nearby transmitter would be noticed in the receiver as:
-
distortion on transmitted voice peaks (0% chose this)
-
interference continuously across the dial (0% chose this)
-
the undesired signal in the background of the desired signal (0% chose this)
-
interference only when a broadcast signal is tuned (0% chose this)
You have connected your hand-held VHF transceiver to an outside gain antenna. You now hear a mixture of signals together with different modulation on your desired frequency. What is the nature of this interference?
-
Audio stage intermodulation interference (0% chose this)
-
Receiver intermodulation interference (0% chose this)
-
Harmonic interference from other stations (0% chose this)
-
Audio stage overload interference (0% chose this)
Two or more strong out-of-band signals mix in your receiver to produce interference on a desired frequency. What is this called?
-
Front-end desensitization (0% chose this)
-
Intermodulation interference (0% chose this)
-
Receiver quieting (0% chose this)
-
Capture effect (0% chose this)
Two mobile stations are traveling along the same road in close proximity to each other and having trouble communicating through a local repeater. Why may it be necessary to use simplex operation to communicate between these cars?
-
The strong signal of one mobile transmitter may desensitize the receiver of the other mobile receiver (0% chose this)
-
Simplex operation does not require the use of CTCSS tones (0% chose this)
-
There is less time delay using simplex operation compared to using a repeater (0% chose this)
-
There are many more simplex frequencies than repeater frequencies available (0% chose this)
A television receiver suffers interference on channel 5 (76 - 82 MHz) only when you transmit on 14 MHz. From your home you see the tower of a commercial FM station known to broadcast on 92.5 MHz. Which of these solutions would you try first?
-
Insert a low pass filter at the antenna connector of the HF transmitter (0% chose this)
-
Insert a high pass filter at the antenna connector of the HF transmitter (0% chose this)
-
Insert a low pass filter at the antenna connector of the television (0% chose this)
-
Insert a high pass filter at the antenna connector of the television (0% chose this)
How can intermodulation be reduced?
-
By adjusting the passband tuning (0% chose this)
-
By installing a suitable filter at the receiver (0% chose this)
-
By using a better antenna (0% chose this)
-
By increasing the receiver RF gain while decreasing the AF gain (0% chose this)
What devices would you install to reduce or eliminate audio frequency interference to home entertainment systems?
-
Bypass inductors (0% chose this)
-
Coils on ferrite cores (0% chose this)
-
Bypass resistors (0% chose this)
-
Metal-oxide varistors (0% chose this)
What should be done if a properly operating amateur station is the cause of interference to a nearby telephone?
-
Make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment (0% chose this)
-
Install a modular plug-in telephone RFI filter close to the telephone device (0% chose this)
-
Ground and shield the local telephone distribution amplifier (0% chose this)
-
Stop transmitting whenever the telephone is in use (0% chose this)
What sound is heard from a public-address system if audio rectification of a nearby single-sideband phone transmission occurs?
-
A steady hum whenever the transmitter's carrier is on the air (0% chose this)
-
Distorted speech from the transmitter's signals (0% chose this)
-
Clearly audible speech from the transmitter's signals (0% chose this)
-
On-and-off humming or clicking (0% chose this)
What sound is heard from a public-address system if audio rectification of a nearby CW transmission occurs?
-
A steady whistling (0% chose this)
-
On-and-off humming or clicking (0% chose this)
-
Audible, possibly distorted speech (0% chose this)
-
Muffled, severely distorted speech (0% chose this)
How can you minimize the possibility of audio rectification of your transmitter's signals?
-
Use CW only (0% chose this)
-
Use a solid-state transmitter (0% chose this)
-
Ensure that all station equipment is properly grounded (0% chose this)
-
Install bypass capacitors on all power supply rectifiers (0% chose this)
An amateur transmitter is being heard across the entire dial of a broadcast receiver. The receiver is most probably suffering from:
-
splatter from the transmitter (0% chose this)
-
audio rectification in the receiver (0% chose this)
-
harmonics interference from the transmitter (0% chose this)
-
poor image rejection (0% chose this)
Your SSB HF transmissions are heard muffled on a sound system in the living room regardless of its volume setting. What causes this?
-
Harmonics generated at the transmitter (0% chose this)
-
Improper filtering in the transmitter (0% chose this)
-
Lack of receiver sensitivity and selectivity (0% chose this)
-
Audio rectification of strong signals (0% chose this)
What device can be used to minimize the effect of RF pickup by audio wires connected to stereo speakers, intercom amplifiers, telephones, etc.?
-
Attenuator (0% chose this)
-
Diode (0% chose this)
-
Ferrite core (0% chose this)
-
Magnet (0% chose this)
Stereo speaker leads often act as antennas to pick up RF signals. What is one method you can use to minimize this effect?
-
Connect the speaker through an audio attenuator (0% chose this)
-
Connect a diode across the speaker (0% chose this)
-
Shorten the leads (0% chose this)
-
Lengthen the leads (0% chose this)
One method of preventing RF from entering a stereo set through the speaker leads is to wrap each of the speaker leads:
-
around a wooden dowel (0% chose this)
-
through a ferrite core (0% chose this)
-
around a copper bar (0% chose this)
-
around an iron bar (0% chose this)
Stereo amplifiers often have long leads which pick up transmitted signals because they act as:
-
receiving antennas (0% chose this)
-
transmitting antennas (0% chose this)
-
RF attenuators (0% chose this)
-
frequency discriminators (0% chose this)
How can you prevent key-clicks?
-
By using a better power supply (0% chose this)
-
By sending CW more slowly (0% chose this)
-
By using a key-click filter (0% chose this)
-
By increasing power (0% chose this)
If someone tells you that signals from your hand-held transceiver are interfering with other signals on a frequency near yours, what could be the cause?
-
You need to turn the volume up on your hand-held (0% chose this)
-
Your hand-held is transmitting spurious emissions (0% chose this)
-
You need a power amplifier for your hand-held (0% chose this)
-
Your hand-held has a chirp from weak batteries (0% chose this)
If your transmitter sends signals outside the band where it is transmitting, what is this called?
-
Side tones (0% chose this)
-
Transmitter chirping (0% chose this)
-
Off-frequency emissions (0% chose this)
-
Spurious emissions (0% chose this)
What problem may occur if your transmitter is operated without the cover and other shielding in place?
-
It may interfere with other stations operating near its frequency (0% chose this)
-
It may transmit a chirpy signal (0% chose this)
-
It may radiate spurious emissions (0% chose this)
-
It may transmit a weak signal (0% chose this)
In Morse code transmission, local RF interference (key-clicks) is produced by:
-
the power amplifier, and is caused by high frequency parasitic oscillations (0% chose this)
-
poor waveshaping caused by a poor voltage regulator (0% chose this)
-
the making and breaking of the circuit at the Morse key (0% chose this)
-
frequency shifting caused by poor voltage regulation (0% chose this)
Key-clicks, heard from a Morse code transmitter at a distant receiver, are the result of:
-
power supply hum modulating the carrier (0% chose this)
-
sparks emitting RF from the key contacts (0% chose this)
-
changes in oscillator frequency on keying (0% chose this)
-
too sharp rise and decay times of the keyed carrier (0% chose this)
In a Morse code transmission, broad bandwidth RF interference (key-clicks) heard at a distance is produced by:
-
poor shaping of the waveform (0% chose this)
-
shift in frequency when keying the transmitter (0% chose this)
-
sparking at the key contacts (0% chose this)
-
sudden movement in the receiver loudspeaker (0% chose this)
What should you do if you learn your transmitter is producing key clicks?
-
Check the keying filter and the functioning of later stages (0% chose this)
-
Turn the receiver down (0% chose this)
-
Regulate the oscillator supply voltage (0% chose this)
-
Use a choke in the RF power output (0% chose this)
A parasitic oscillation:
-
does not cause any radio interference (0% chose this)
-
is produced in a transmitter oscillator stage (0% chose this)
-
is an unwanted signal developed in a transmitter (0% chose this)
-
is generated by parasitic elements of a Yagi beam (0% chose this)
Parasitic oscillations in the RF power amplifier stage of a transmitter may be found:
-
at high frequencies only (0% chose this)
-
at low frequencies only (0% chose this)
-
at high or low frequencies (0% chose this)
-
on harmonic frequencies (0% chose this)
Transmitter RF amplifiers can generate parasitic oscillations:
-
on VHF frequencies only (0% chose this)
-
on the transmitter fundamental frequency (0% chose this)
-
on harmonics of the transmitter frequency (0% chose this)
-
above or below the transmitter frequency (0% chose this)
If a neighbour reports television interference on one or two channels only when you transmit on 15 metres, what is probably the cause of the interference?
-
Too much low pass filtering on the transmitter (0% chose this)
-
Harmonic radiation from your transmitter (0% chose this)
-
De ionization of the ionosphere near your neighbour's TV antenna (0% chose this)
-
TV receiver front-end overload (0% chose this)
What is meant by harmonic radiation?
-
Signals which cause skip propagation to occur (0% chose this)
-
Unwanted signals at frequencies which are multiples of the fundamental (chosen) frequency (0% chose this)
-
Unwanted signals that are combined with a 60-Hz hum (0% chose this)
-
Unwanted signals caused by sympathetic vibrations from a nearby transmitter (0% chose this)
Why is harmonic radiation from an amateur station not wanted?
-
It may cause auroras in the air (0% chose this)
-
It may cause interference to other stations and may result in out-of-band signals (0% chose this)
-
It uses large amounts of electric power (0% chose this)
-
It may cause sympathetic vibrations in nearby transmitters (0% chose this)
What type of interference may come from a multi-band antenna connected to a poorly tuned transmitter?
-
Harmonic radiation (0% chose this)
-
Parasitic excitation (0% chose this)
-
Intermodulation (0% chose this)
-
Auroral distortion (0% chose this)
If you are told your station was heard on 21 375 kHz, but at the time you were operating on 7125 kHz, what is one reason this could happen?
-
You were sending CW too fast (0% chose this)
-
Your transmitter's power-supply filter capacitor was bad (0% chose this)
-
Your transmitter was radiating harmonic signals (0% chose this)
-
Your transmitter's power-supply filter choke was bad (0% chose this)
What causes splatter interference?
-
Keying a transmitter too fast (0% chose this)
-
Signals from a transmitter's output circuit are being sent back to its input circuit (0% chose this)
-
The transmitting antenna is the wrong length (0% chose this)
-
Overmodulating a transmitter (0% chose this)
Your amateur radio transmitter appears to be creating interference to the television on channel 3 (60-66 MHz) when you are transmitting on the 15 metre band. Other channels are not affected. The most likely cause is:
-
a bad ground at the transmitter (0% chose this)
-
front-end overload of the TV (0% chose this)
-
harmonic radiation from the transmitter (0% chose this)
-
no high-pass filter on the TV (0% chose this)
One possible cause of TV interference by harmonics from an SSB transmitter is from "flat topping" - driving the power amplifier into non-linear operation. The most appropriate remedy for this is:
-
use another antenna (0% chose this)
-
reduce oscillator output (0% chose this)
-
reduce microphone gain (0% chose this)
-
retune transmitter output (0% chose this)
In a transmitter, excessive harmonics are produced by:
-
overdriven stages (0% chose this)
-
low SWR (0% chose this)
-
resonant circuits (0% chose this)
-
a linear amplifier (0% chose this)
An interfering signal from a transmitter is found to have a frequency of 57 MHz (TV Channel 2 is 54 - 60 MHz). This signal could be the:
-
second harmonic of a 10 metre transmission (0% chose this)
-
crystal oscillator operating on its fundamental (0% chose this)
-
seventh harmonic of an 80 metre transmission (0% chose this)
-
third harmonic of a 15 metre transmission (0% chose this)
Harmonics may be produced in the RF power amplifier of a transmitter if:
-
modulation is applied to a high-level stage (0% chose this)
-
excessive drive signal is applied to it (0% chose this)
-
the output tank circuit is tuned to the fundamental frequency (0% chose this)
-
the oscillator frequency is unstable (0% chose this)
What type of filter might be connected to an amateur HF transmitter to cut down on harmonic radiation?
-
A high pass filter (0% chose this)
-
A CW filter (0% chose this)
-
A low pass filter (0% chose this)
-
A key-click filter (0% chose this)
Why do modern HF transmitters have a built-in low pass filter in their RF output circuits?
-
To reduce RF energy below a cut-off point (0% chose this)
-
To reduce harmonic radiation (0% chose this)
-
To reduce fundamental radiation (0% chose this)
-
To reduce low frequency interference to other amateurs (0% chose this)
What circuit blocks RF energy above and below a certain limit?
-
A low pass filter (0% chose this)
-
A band pass filter (0% chose this)
-
A high pass filter (0% chose this)
-
An input filter (0% chose this)
What should be the impedance of a low pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?
-
Substantially higher (0% chose this)
-
About the same (0% chose this)
-
Substantially lower (0% chose this)
-
Twice the transmission line impedance (0% chose this)
In order to reduce the harmonic output of a high frequency (HF) transmitter, which of the following filters should be installed at the transmitter?
-
Rejection (0% chose this)
-
Low pass (0% chose this)
-
Key click (0% chose this)
-
High pass (0% chose this)
To reduce harmonic output from a high frequency transmitter, you would put a ____________ in the transmission line as close to the transmitter as possible.
-
wave trap (0% chose this)
-
low pass filter (0% chose this)
-
high pass filter (0% chose this)
-
band reject filter (0% chose this)
To reduce energy from an HF transmitter getting into a television set, you would place a ____________ as close to the TV as possible.
-
band reject filter (0% chose this)
-
high pass filter (0% chose this)
-
low pass filter (0% chose this)
-
wave trap (0% chose this)
A band pass filter will:
-
attenuate high frequencies but not low (0% chose this)
-
pass frequencies each side of a band (0% chose this)
-
stop frequencies in a certain band (0% chose this)
-
allow only certain frequencies through (0% chose this)
A band reject filter will:
-
allow only two frequencies through (0% chose this)
-
pass frequencies below 100 MHz (0% chose this)
-
stop frequencies each side of a band (0% chose this)
-
pass frequencies each side of a band (0% chose this)
A high pass filter would normally be fitted:
-
between transmitter output and transmission line (0% chose this)
-
at the antenna terminals of the TV receiver (0% chose this)
-
between microphone and speech amplifier (0% chose this)
-
at the Morse key or keying relay in a transmitter (0% chose this)
A low pass filter suitable for a high frequency transmitter would:
-
pass audio frequencies below 3 kHz (0% chose this)
-
attenuate frequencies above 30 MHz (0% chose this)
-
pass audio frequencies above 3 kHz (0% chose this)
-
attenuate frequencies below 30 MHz (0% chose this)
A low pass filter in an HF station is most effective when connected:
-
as close as possible to the antenna (0% chose this)
-
midway between the transceiver and antenna (0% chose this)
-
as close as possible to the transceiver output (0% chose this)
-
as close as possible to the antenna tuner output (0% chose this)
A low pass filter in an HF station is most effective when connected:
-
as close as possible to the linear amplifier output (0% chose this)
-
as close as possible to the antenna (0% chose this)
-
as close as possible to the antenna tuner output (0% chose this)
-
as close as possible to the linear amplifier input (0% chose this)
In designing an HF station, which component would you use to reduce the effects of harmonic radiation?
-
Dummy load (0% chose this)
-
Antenna switch (0% chose this)
-
SWR bridge (0% chose this)
-
Low pass filter (0% chose this)
Which component in an HF station is the most useful for determining the effectiveness of the antenna system?
-
SWR bridge (0% chose this)
-
Antenna switch (0% chose this)
-
Linear amplifier (0% chose this)
-
Dummy load (0% chose this)
Of the components in an HF station, which component would normally be connected closest to the antenna, antenna tuner and dummy load?
-
SWR bridge (0% chose this)
-
Antenna switch (0% chose this)
-
Transceiver (0% chose this)
-
Low pass filter (0% chose this)
Of the components in an HF station, which component would be used to match impedances between the transceiver and antenna?
-
Dummy load (0% chose this)
-
SWR bridge (0% chose this)
-
Antenna tuner (0% chose this)
-
Antenna switch (0% chose this)
In an HF station, which component is temporarily connected in the tuning process or for adjustments to the transmitter?
-
Dummy load (0% chose this)
-
SWR bridge (0% chose this)
-
Low pass filter (0% chose this)
-
Antenna tuner (0% chose this)
In an HF station, the antenna tuner is usually used for matching the transceiver with:
-
mono-band Yagi type antennas (0% chose this)
-
tri-band Yagi antennas (0% chose this)
-
most antennas when operating below 14 MHz (0% chose this)
-
most antennas when operating above 14 MHz (0% chose this)
In an HF Station, the antenna tuner is commonly used:
-
to tune low pass filters (0% chose this)
-
with most antennas when operating below 14 MHz (0% chose this)
-
with most antennas when operating above 14 MHz (0% chose this)
-
to tune into dummy loads (0% chose this)
In an amateur digital radio system, the __________________ interfaces with the computer.
-
power supply (0% chose this)
-
transceiver (0% chose this)
-
input/output (0% chose this)
-
antenna (0% chose this)
In an amateur digital radio system, the modem is connected to the ________.
-
input/output (0% chose this)
-
computer (0% chose this)
-
amplifier (0% chose this)
-
antenna (0% chose this)
In an amateur digital radio system, the transceiver is connected to the ___________.
-
modem (0% chose this)
-
computer (0% chose this)
-
scanner (0% chose this)
-
input/output (0% chose this)
In an amateur digital radio system, the audio connections of the modem/sound card are connected to the ___________.
-
antenna (0% chose this)
-
transceiver (0% chose this)
-
input/output (0% chose this)
-
scanner (0% chose this)
In an amateur digital radio system, the modem function is often performed by the computer ____________.
-
serial port (0% chose this)
-
sound card (0% chose this)
-
keyboard (0% chose this)
-
scanner (0% chose this)
What do many amateurs use to help form good Morse code characters?
-
An electronic keyer (0% chose this)
-
A key-operated on/off switch (0% chose this)
-
A notch filter (0% chose this)
-
A DTMF keypad (0% chose this)
Where would you connect a microphone for voice operation?
-
To a transceiver (0% chose this)
-
To a power supply (0% chose this)
-
To an antenna switch (0% chose this)
-
To an antenna (0% chose this)
What would you connect to a transceiver for voice operation?
-
A receiver audio filter (0% chose this)
-
A terminal-voice controller (0% chose this)
-
A splatter filter (0% chose this)
-
A microphone (0% chose this)
Why might a dummy antenna get warm when in use?
-
Because it absorbs static electricity (0% chose this)
-
Because it stores radio waves (0% chose this)
-
Because it stores electric current (0% chose this)
-
Because it changes RF energy into heat (0% chose this)
What is the circuit called which causes a transmitter to automatically transmit when an operator speaks into its microphone?
-
VCO (0% chose this)
-
VFO (0% chose this)
-
VOX (0% chose this)
-
VXO (0% chose this)
What is the reason for using a properly adjusted speech processor with a single-sideband phone transmitter?
-
It reduces average transmitter power requirements (0% chose this)
-
It reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone (0% chose this)
-
It improves voice frequency fidelity (0% chose this)
-
It improves signal intelligibility at the receiver (0% chose this)
If a single-sideband phone transmitter is 100% modulated, what will a speech processor do to the transmitter's power?
-
It will decrease the peak power output (0% chose this)
-
It will decrease the average power output (0% chose this)
-
It will add nothing to the output Peak Envelope Power (PEP) (0% chose this)
-
It will increase the output PEP (0% chose this)
When switching from receive to transmit:
-
the receiving antenna should be connected (0% chose this)
-
the power supply should be off (0% chose this)
-
the receiver should be muted (0% chose this)
-
the transmit oscillator should be turned off (0% chose this)
A switching system to enable the use of one antenna for a transmitter and receiver should also:
-
ground the antenna on receive (0% chose this)
-
switch between meters (0% chose this)
-
disconnect the antenna tuner (0% chose this)
-
disable the unit not being used (0% chose this)
An antenna changeover switch in a transmitter-receiver combination is necessary:
-
so that one antenna can be used for transmitter and receiver (0% chose this)
-
to change antennas for operation on other frequencies (0% chose this)
-
to prevent RF currents entering the receiver circuits (0% chose this)
-
to allow more than one transmitter to be used (0% chose this)
Which of the following components could be used as a dynamic microphone?
-
Loudspeaker (0% chose this)
-
Crystal earpiece (0% chose this)
-
Resistor (0% chose this)
-
Capacitor (0% chose this)
What device might allow use of an antenna on a band it was not designed for?
-
A low pass filter (0% chose this)
-
A high pass filter (0% chose this)
-
An antenna tuner (0% chose this)
-
An SWR meter (0% chose this)
What does an antenna tuner do?
-
It matches a transceiver to a mismatched antenna system (0% chose this)
-
It helps a receiver automatically tune in stations that are far away (0% chose this)
-
It switches an antenna system to a transmitter when sending, and to a receiver when listening (0% chose this)
-
It switches a transceiver between different kinds of antennas connected to one transmission line (0% chose this)
What does "connected" mean in an AX.25 packet-radio link?
-
A telephone link is working between two stations (0% chose this)
-
A message has reached an amateur station for local delivery (0% chose this)
-
A transmitting and receiving station are using a digipeater, so no other contacts can take place until they are finished (0% chose this)
-
A transmitting station is sending data to only one receiving station; it replies that the data is being received correctly (0% chose this)
What does "monitoring" mean on a packet-radio frequency?
-
A member of the Amateur Auxiliary is copying all messages (0% chose this)
-
A receiving station is displaying all messages sent to it, and replying that the messages are being received correctly (0% chose this)
-
Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada is monitoring all messages (0% chose this)
-
A receiving station is displaying messages that may not be sent to it, and is not replying to any message (0% chose this)
What is a digipeater?
-
A repeater that changes audio signals to digital data (0% chose this)
-
A station that retransmits any data that it receives (0% chose this)
-
A station that retransmits only data that is marked to be retransmitted (0% chose this)
-
A repeater built using only digital electronics parts (0% chose this)
What does "network" mean in packet radio?
-
A way of connecting packet-radio stations so data can be sent over long distances (0% chose this)
-
A way of connecting terminal-node controllers by telephone so data can be sent over long distances (0% chose this)
-
The connections on terminal-node controllers (0% chose this)
-
The programming in a terminal-node controller that rejects other callers if a station is already connected (0% chose this)
In AX.25 packet-radio operation, what equipment connects to a terminal-node controller?
-
A transceiver and a modem (0% chose this)
-
A DTMF keypad, a monitor and a transceiver (0% chose this)
-
A DTMF microphone, a monitor and a transceiver (0% chose this)
-
A transceiver, a computer and possibly a GPS receiver (0% chose this)
How would you modulate a 2 meter FM transceiver to produce packet-radio emissions?
-
Connect a keyboard to the transceiver's microphone input (0% chose this)
-
Connect a DTMF key pad to the transceiver's microphone input (0% chose this)
-
Connect a terminal-node controller to the transceiver's microphone input (0% chose this)
-
Connect a terminal-node controller to interrupt the transceiver's carrier wave (0% chose this)
When selecting a RTTY transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow (center to center) to minimize interference?
-
60 Hz (0% chose this)
-
250 to 500 Hz (0% chose this)
-
Approximately 6 kHz (0% chose this)
-
Approximately 3 kHz (0% chose this)
Digital transmissions use signals called __________ to transmit the states 1 and 0:
-
mark and space (0% chose this)
-
packet and AMTOR (0% chose this)
-
Baudot and ASCII (0% chose this)
-
dot and dash (0% chose this)
Which of the following terms does not apply to packet radio?
-
Automatic Packet Reporting System (APRS) (0% chose this)
-
AX.25 (0% chose this)
-
Baudot (0% chose this)
-
ASCII (0% chose this)
When using AMTOR transmissions, there are two modes that may be utilized. Mode A uses Automatic Repeat Request (ARQ) protocol and is normally used:
-
for communications after contact has been established (0% chose this)
-
at all times. Mode B is for test purposes only (0% chose this)
-
only when communications have been completed (0% chose this)
-
when making a general call (0% chose this)
With a digital communication mode based on a computer sound card, what is the result of feeding too much audio in the transceiver?
-
Lower error rate (0% chose this)
-
Power amplifier overheating (0% chose this)
-
Splatter or out-of-channel emissions (0% chose this)
-
Higher signal-to-noise ratio (0% chose this)
If a non-amateur friend is using your station to talk to someone in Canada, and a foreign station breaks in to talk to your friend, what should you do?
-
Since you can talk to foreign amateurs, your friend may keep talking as long as you are the control operator (0% chose this)
-
Report the incident to the foreign amateur's government (0% chose this)
-
Stop all discussions and quickly sign off (0% chose this)
-
Have your friend wait until you determine from the foreign station if their administration permits third-party traffic (0% chose this)
If you let an unqualified third party use your amateur station, what must you do at your station's control point?
-
You must monitor and supervise the communication only if contacts are made in countries which have no third party communications (0% chose this)
-
You must continuously monitor and supervise the third party's participation (0% chose this)
-
You must key the transmitter and make the station identification (0% chose this)
-
You must monitor and supervise the communication only if contacts are made on frequencies below 30 MHz (0% chose this)
Radio amateurs may use their stations to transmit international communications on behalf of a third party only if:
-
such communications have been authorized by the other country concerned (0% chose this)
-
the amateur station has received written authorization from Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada to pass third party traffic (0% chose this)
-
the communication is transmitted by secret code (0% chose this)
-
prior remuneration has been received (0% chose this)
A person operating a Canadian amateur station is forbidden to communicate with amateur stations of another country:
-
until he has properly identified his station (0% chose this)
-
unless he is passing third-party traffic (0% chose this)
-
when that country has notified the International Telecommunication Union that it objects to such communications (0% chose this)
-
without written permission from Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
International communications on behalf of third parties may be transmitted by an amateur station only if:
-
the countries concerned have authorized such communications (0% chose this)
-
English or French is used to identify the station at the end of each transmission (0% chose this)
-
the countries for which the traffic is intended have registered their consent to such communications with the ITU (0% chose this)
-
radiotelegraphy is used (0% chose this)
Amateur third party communications is:
-
a simultaneous communication between three operators (0% chose this)
-
none of these answers (0% chose this)
-
the transmission of non-commercial or personal messages to or on behalf of a third party (0% chose this)
-
the transmission of commercial or secret messages (0% chose this)
International third party amateur radio communication in case of emergencies or disaster relief is expressly permitted unless:
-
internet service is working well in the foreign country involved (0% chose this)
-
specifically prohibited by the foreign administration concerned (0% chose this)
-
satellite communication can be originated in the disaster area (0% chose this)
-
the foreign administration is in a declared state of war (0% chose this)
One of the following is not considered to be communications on behalf of a third party, even though the message is originated by, or addressed to, a non-amateur:
-
messages addressed to points within Canada (0% chose this)
-
all messages received from Canadian stations (0% chose this)
-
messages originated from Canadian Forces Affiliate Radio Service (CFARS) (0% chose this)
-
messages that are handled within a local network (0% chose this)
One of the following is not considered to be communications on behalf of a third party, even though the message may be originated by, or addressed to, a non-amateur:
-
all messages originated by Canadian amateur stations (0% chose this)
-
messages addressed to points within Canada from the United States (0% chose this)
-
messages that are handled within local networks during a simulated emergency exercise (0% chose this)
-
messages that originate from the United States Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) (0% chose this)
Which of the following is not correct? While operating in Canada a radio amateur licensed by the Government of the United States must:
-
obtain a Canadian amateur certificate before operating in Canada (0% chose this)
-
add to his call sign the Canadian call sign prefix for the geographic location of the station (0% chose this)
-
qualify his identification when operating phone by adding to the call sign the word "mobile" or "portable" or when operating Morse code by adding a slash "/" (0% chose this)
-
identify with the call sign assigned by the FCC (0% chose this)
Which of the following statements is not correct? A Canadian radio amateur may, on amateur frequencies,:
-
communicate with a similar station of a country which has not notified ITU that it objects to such communications (0% chose this)
-
pass third-party traffic with all duly licensed amateur stations in any country which is a member of the ITU (0% chose this)
-
pass messages originating from or destined to the United States Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) (0% chose this)
-
pass messages originating from or destined to the Canadian Forces Affiliate Radio Service (CFARS) (0% chose this)
If you let another amateur with additional qualifications than yours control your station, what operating privileges are allowed?
-
Any privileges allowed by the additional qualifications (0% chose this)
-
All the emission privileges of the additional qualifications, but only the frequency privileges of your qualifications (0% chose this)
-
All the frequency privileges of the additional qualifications, but only the emission privileges of your qualifications (0% chose this)
-
Only the privileges allowed by your qualifications (0% chose this)
If you are the control operator at the station of another amateur who has additional qualifications to yours, what operating privileges are you allowed?
-
All the emission privileges of the additional qualifications, but only the frequency privileges of your qualifications (0% chose this)
-
All the frequency privileges of the additional qualifications, but only the emission privileges of your qualifications (0% chose this)
-
Only the privileges allowed by your qualifications (0% chose this)
-
Any privileges allowed by the additional qualifications (0% chose this)
In addition to passing the Basic written examination, what must you do before you are allowed to use amateur frequencies below 30 MHz?
-
You must notify Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada that you intend to operate on the HF bands (0% chose this)
-
You must pass a Morse code test (0% chose this)
-
You must attend a class to learn about HF communications (0% chose this)
-
You must pass a Morse code or Advanced test or attain a mark of 80% on the Basic exam (0% chose this)
The holder of an amateur radio certificate may operate radio controlled models:
-
if the frequency used is below 30 MHz (0% chose this)
-
if only pulse modulation is used (0% chose this)
-
on all frequencies above 30 MHz (0% chose this)
-
if the control transmitter does not exceed 15 kHz of occupied bandwidth (0% chose this)
In Canada, the 75/80 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to:
-
4.0 to 4.5 MHz (0% chose this)
-
4.5 to 5.0 MHz (0% chose this)
-
3.5 to 4.0 MHz (0% chose this)
-
3.0 to 3.5 MHz (0% chose this)
In Canada, the 160 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to:
-
2.0 to 2.25 MHz (0% chose this)
-
2.25 to 2.5 MHz (0% chose this)
-
1.8 to 2.0 MHz (0% chose this)
-
1.5 to 2.0 MHz (0% chose this)
In Canada, the 40 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to:
-
6.0 to 6.3 MHz (0% chose this)
-
7.7 to 8.0 MHz (0% chose this)
-
7.0 to 7.3 MHz (0% chose this)
-
6.5 to 6.8 MHz (0% chose this)
In Canada, the 20 meter amateur band corresponds in frequency to:
-
13.500 to 14.000 MHz (0% chose this)
-
15.000 to 15.750 MHz (0% chose this)
-
16.350 to 16.830 MHz (0% chose this)
-
14.000 to 14.350 MHz (0% chose this)
In Canada, the 15 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to:
-
14.000 to 14.350 MHz (0% chose this)
-
28.000 to 29.700 MHz (0% chose this)
-
21.000 to 21.450 MHz (0% chose this)
-
18.068 to 18.168 MHz (0% chose this)
In Canada, the 10 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to:
-
24.890 to 24.990 MHz (0% chose this)
-
21.000 to 21.450 MHz (0% chose this)
-
50.000 to 54.000 MHz (0% chose this)
-
28.000 to 29.700 MHz (0% chose this)
In Canada, radio amateurs may use which of the following for radio control of models:
-
50 to 54 MHz only (0% chose this)
-
all amateur frequency bands (0% chose this)
-
50 to 54, 144 to 148, and 222 to 225 MHz only (0% chose this)
-
all amateur frequency bands above 30 MHz (0% chose this)
What is the maximum authorized bandwidth within the frequency range of 50 to 148 MHz?
-
30 kHz (0% chose this)
-
20 kHz (0% chose this)
-
The total bandwidth shall not exceed that of a single-sideband phone emission (0% chose this)
-
The total bandwidth shall not exceed 10 times that of a CW emission (0% chose this)
The maximum bandwidth of an amateur station's transmission allowed in the band 28 to 29.7 MHz is:
-
20 kHz (0% chose this)
-
6 kHz (0% chose this)
-
30 kHz (0% chose this)
-
15 kHz (0% chose this)
Except for one band, the maximum bandwidth of an amateur station's transmission allowed between 7 and 28 MHz is:
-
6 kHz (0% chose this)
-
15 kHz (0% chose this)
-
20 kHz (0% chose this)
-
30 kHz (0% chose this)
The maximum bandwidth of an amateur station's transmission allowed in the band 144 to 148 MHz is:
-
6 kHz (0% chose this)
-
20 kHz (0% chose this)
-
15 kHz (0% chose this)
-
30 kHz (0% chose this)
The maximum bandwidth of an amateur station's transmission allowed in the band 50 to 54 MHz is:
-
6 kHz (0% chose this)
-
15 kHz (0% chose this)
-
30 kHz (0% chose this)
-
20 kHz (0% chose this)
Which of the following bands of amateur frequencies has a maximum allowed bandwidth of less than 6 kHz. That band is:
-
1.8 to 2.0 MHz (0% chose this)
-
10.1 to 10.15 MHz (0% chose this)
-
18.068 to 18.168 MHz (0% chose this)
-
24.89 to 24.99 MHz (0% chose this)
Single sideband is not permitted in the band:
-
18.068 to 18.168 MHz (0% chose this)
-
24.89 to 24.99 MHz (0% chose this)
-
7.0 to 7.3 MHz (0% chose this)
-
10.1 to 10.15 MHz (0% chose this)
What precaution must an amateur radio operator take when transmitting near band edges?
-
Watch the standing wave ratio so as not to damage the transmitter (0% chose this)
-
Ensure that the bandwidth required on either side of the carrier frequency does not fall out of band (0% chose this)
-
Restrict operation to telegraphy (0% chose this)
-
Make sure that the emission mode is compatible with agreed band plans (0% chose this)
Which of the following answers is not correct? Based on the bandwidth required, the following modes may be transmitted on these frequencies:
-
fast-scan television (ATV) on 440 MHz (0% chose this)
-
fast-scan television (ATV) on 145 MHz (0% chose this)
-
AMTOR on 14.08 MHz (0% chose this)
-
300 bps packet on 10.145 MHz (0% chose this)
Which of the following answers is not correct? Based on the bandwidth required, the following modes may be transmitted on these frequencies:
-
single-sideband (SSB) on 3.76 MHz (0% chose this)
-
fast-scan television (ATV) on 14.23 MHz (0% chose this)
-
slow-scan television (SSTV) on 14.23 MHz (0% chose this)
-
frequency modulation (FM) on 29.6 MHz (0% chose this)
Which of the following answers is not correct? Based on the bandwidth required, the following modes may be transmitted on these frequencies:
-
frequency modulation (FM) on 29.6 MHz (0% chose this)
-
Morse radiotelegraphy (CW) on 10.11 MHz (0% chose this)
-
300 bps packet on 10.148 MHz (0% chose this)
-
single-sideband (SSB) on 10.12 MHz (0% chose this)
What amount of transmitter power should radio amateurs use at all times?
-
250 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
-
2000 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
-
The minimum legal power necessary to communicate (0% chose this)
-
25 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
What is the most FM transmitter power a holder of only Basic Qualification may use on 147 MHz?
-
250 W DC input (0% chose this)
-
1000 watts DC input (0% chose this)
-
200 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
-
25 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
Where in your station can you verify that legal power limits are respected?
-
At the power amplifier RF input terminals inside the transmitter or amplifier (0% chose this)
-
On the antenna itself, after the transmission line (0% chose this)
-
At the power supply terminals inside the transmitter or amplifier (0% chose this)
-
At the antenna connector of the transmitter or amplifier (0% chose this)
What is the maximum transmitting output power an amateur station may use on 3750 kHz, if the operator has Basic and Morse code qualifications?
-
1500 watts PEP output for SSB operation (0% chose this)
-
2000 watts PEP output for SSB operation (0% chose this)
-
560 watts PEP output for SSB operation (0% chose this)
-
1000 watts PEP output for SSB operation (0% chose this)
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use for SSB operation on 7055 kHz, if the operator has Basic with Honours qualifications?
-
560 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
-
1000 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
-
2000 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
-
200 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
The DC power input to the anode or collector circuit of the final RF stage of a transmitter, used by a holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Advanced Qualification, shall not exceed:
-
1000 watts (0% chose this)
-
250 watts (0% chose this)
-
500 watts (0% chose this)
-
750 watts (0% chose this)
The maximum DC input to the final stage of an amateur transmitter, when the operator is the holder of both the Basic and Advanced qualifications, is:
-
1000 watts (0% chose this)
-
250 watts (0% chose this)
-
1500 watts (0% chose this)
-
500 watts (0% chose this)
The operator of an amateur station, who is the holder of a Basic Qualification, shall ensure that the station power, when expressed as RF output power measured across an impedance matched load, does not exceed:
-
150 watts peak power (0% chose this)
-
560 watts peak-envelope power, for transmitters producing any type of single sideband emission (0% chose this)
-
2500 watts peak power (0% chose this)
-
1000 watts carrier power for transmitters producing other emissions (0% chose this)
The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic Qualification is limited to a maximum of _______ watts when expressed as direct current input power to the anode or collector circuit of the transmitter stage supplying radio frequency energy to the antenna:
-
250 (0% chose this)
-
1000 (0% chose this)
-
750 (0% chose this)
-
100 (0% chose this)
What kind of amateur station automatically retransmits the signals of other stations?
-
Remote-control station (0% chose this)
-
Beacon station (0% chose this)
-
Repeater station (0% chose this)
-
Space station control and telemetry link (0% chose this)
An unmodulated carrier may be transmitted only:
-
when transmitting SSB (0% chose this)
-
in frequency bands below 30 MHz (0% chose this)
-
for brief tests on frequencies below 30 MHz (0% chose this)
-
if the output to the final RF amplifier is kept under 5W (0% chose this)
Radiotelephone signals in a frequency band below ____ MHz cannot be automatically retransmitted, unless these signals are received from a station operated by a person qualified to transmit on frequencies below the above frequency:
-
50 MHz (0% chose this)
-
144 MHz (0% chose this)
-
29.5 MHz (0% chose this)
-
29.7 MHz (0% chose this)
Which of the following statements is not correct? Radiotelephone signals may be retransmitted:
-
in the 144-148 MHz frequency band, when received from a station operated by a person with only Basic Qualification (0% chose this)
-
in the 21 MHz band, when received in a VHF band, from a station operated by a person with only Basic Qualification (0% chose this)
-
in the 29.5-29.7 MHz band, when received in a VHF band, from a station operated by a person with only Basic Qualification (0% chose this)
-
in the 50-54 MHz frequency band, when received from a station operated by a person with only Basic Qualification (0% chose this)
When operating on frequencies below 148 MHz:
-
the bandwidth for any emission must not exceed 3 kHz (0% chose this)
-
the frequency stability of the transmitter must be at least two parts per million over a period of one hour (0% chose this)
-
an overmodulation indicator must be used (0% chose this)
-
the frequency stability must be comparable to crystal control (0% chose this)
A reliable means to prevent or indicate overmodulation must be employed at an amateur station if:
-
radiotelegraphy is used (0% chose this)
-
persons other than the holder of the authorization use the station (0% chose this)
-
radiotelephony is used (0% chose this)
-
DC input power to the anode or collector circuit of the final RF stage is in excess of 250 watts (0% chose this)
An amateur station using radiotelephony must install a device for indicating or preventing:
-
plate voltage (0% chose this)
-
overmodulation (0% chose this)
-
resonance (0% chose this)
-
antenna power (0% chose this)
The maximum percentage of modulation permitted in the use of radiotelephony by an amateur station is:
-
50 percent (0% chose this)
-
90 percent (0% chose this)
-
100 percent (0% chose this)
-
75 percent (0% chose this)
All amateur stations, regardless of the mode of transmission used, must be equipped with:
-
an overmodulation indicating device (0% chose this)
-
a dummy antenna (0% chose this)
-
a reliable means of determining the operating radio frequency (0% chose this)
-
a DC power meter (0% chose this)
The maximum percentage of modulation permitted in the use of radiotelephony by an amateur station is:
-
100 percent (0% chose this)
-
90 percent (0% chose this)
-
75 percent (0% chose this)
-
50 percent (0% chose this)
What type of messages may be transmitted to an amateur station in a foreign country?
-
Messages of a technical nature or personal remarks of relative unimportance (0% chose this)
-
Messages of any type, if the foreign country allows third-party communications with Canada (0% chose this)
-
Messages that are not religious, political, or patriotic in nature (0% chose this)
-
Messages of any type (0% chose this)
The operator of an amateur station shall ensure that:
-
communications are exchanged only with commercial stations (0% chose this)
-
all communications are conducted in secret code (0% chose this)
-
charges are properly applied to all third-party communications (0% chose this)
-
communications are limited to messages of a technical or personal nature (0% chose this)
Which of the following is not a provision of the ITU Radio Regulations which apply to Canadian radio amateurs?
-
It is forbidden to transmit international messages on behalf of third parties, unless those countries make special arrangements (0% chose this)
-
Radiocommunications between countries shall be forbidden, if the administration of one of the countries objects (0% chose this)
-
Administrations shall take such measures as they judge necessary to verify the operational and technical qualifications of amateurs (0% chose this)
-
Transmissions between countries shall not include any messages of a technical nature, or remarks of a personal character (0% chose this)
The ITU Radio Regulations limit those radio amateurs, who have not demonstrated proficiency in Morse code, to frequencies above:
-
1.8 MHz (0% chose this)
-
3.5MHz (0% chose this)
-
28 MHz (0% chose this)
-
none of the other answers (0% chose this)
In addition to complying with the Radiocommunication Act and Regulations, Canadian radio amateurs must also comply with the regulations of the:
-
International Telecommunication Union (0% chose this)
-
American Radio Relay League (0% chose this)
-
Radio Amateurs of Canada Inc. (0% chose this)
-
International Amateur Radio Union (0% chose this)
In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Canada?
-
Region 3 (0% chose this)
-
Region 1 (0% chose this)
-
Region 2 (0% chose this)
-
Region 4 (0% chose this)
A Canadian radio amateur, operating his station in the state of Florida, is subject to which frequency band limits?
-
ITU Region 1 (0% chose this)
-
Those applicable to US radio amateurs (0% chose this)
-
ITU Region 2 (0% chose this)
-
ITU Region 3 (0% chose this)
A Canadian radio amateur, operating his station 7 kilometres (4 miles) offshore from the coast of Florida, is subject to which frequency band limits?
-
Those applicable to Canadian radio amateurs (0% chose this)
-
ITU Region 1 (0% chose this)
-
ITU Region 2 (0% chose this)
-
Those applicable to US radio amateurs (0% chose this)
Australia, Japan, and Southeast Asia are in which ITU Region?
-
Region 1 (0% chose this)
-
Region 2 (0% chose this)
-
Region 4 (0% chose this)
-
Region 3 (0% chose this)
Canada is located in ITU Region:
-
Region 1 (0% chose this)
-
Region 3 (0% chose this)
-
Region 4 (0% chose this)
-
Region 2 (0% chose this)
Which of these statements about the installation or modification of an antenna structure is not correct?
-
Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada expects radio amateurs to address community concerns in a responsible manner (0% chose this)
-
Prior to an installation, for which community concerns could be raised, radio amateurs may be required to consult with their land-use authority (0% chose this)
-
A radio amateur may erect any size antenna structure without consulting neighbours or the local land-use authority (0% chose this)
-
A radio amateur must follow Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada's antenna siting procedures. (0% chose this)
Who has authority over antenna installations including antenna masts and towers?
-
The majority of neighbours residing within a distance of three times the proposed antenna structure height (0% chose this)
-
The Minister of Innovation, Science and Economic Development (0% chose this)
-
The person planning to use the tower or their spouse (0% chose this)
-
The local municipal government (0% chose this)
If you are planning to install or modify an antenna system under what conditions may you not be required to contact land use authorities to determine public consultation requirements?
-
When transmitting will only be done at low power (0% chose this)
-
When an exclusion criterion defined by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada applies (0% chose this)
-
In a rural area (0% chose this)
-
When the structure is part of an amateur radio antenna (0% chose this)
The land use authority has not established a process for public consultation for antenna systems. The radio amateur planning to install or modify an antenna system:
-
must fulfill the public consultation requirements set out in Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada's Default Public Consultation Process unless the land use authority excludes their type of proposal from consultation or it is excluded by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada's process (0% chose this)
-
can proceed with their project without public consultation (0% chose this)
-
must implement a public consultation process of their own design (0% chose this)
-
must wait for the land use authority to develop a public consultation process (0% chose this)
Which is not an element of the Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada Public Consultation Process for antenna systems?
-
Providing written notice (0% chose this)
-
Addressing relevant questions comments and concerns (0% chose this)
-
Providing an opportunity for the public to respond regarding measures to address reasonable and relevant concerns (0% chose this)
-
Participating in public meetings on the project (0% chose this)
The Default Public Consultation Process for antenna systems requires proponents to address:
-
comments reported in media reporting on the proposal (0% chose this)
-
opposition to the project (0% chose this)
-
reasonable and relevant concerns provided in writing within the 30 day public comment period (0% chose this)
-
all questions, comments and concerns raised (0% chose this)
Where a municipality has developed a public consultation process which of the following options best describes all circumstances when public consultation may not be required?
-
Exclusions listed in both CPC-2-0-03 and the Local land use authority process (0% chose this)
-
Exclusions listed in either CPC-2-0-03 or the Local land use authority process (0% chose this)
-
Exclusions listed in the Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada Client Procedures Circular on Radiocommunications and Broadcasting Antenna Systems CPC-2-0-03 (0% chose this)
-
Exclusions defined in the Local land use authority process (0% chose this)
Where the proponent and a stakeholder other than the general public reach an impasse over a proposed antenna system the final decision will:
-
be postponed until those in dispute reach an agreement (0% chose this)
-
be made by the municipality in which the antenna is to be built (0% chose this)
-
be made by a majority vote of those residing within a radius of three times the antenna structure height (0% chose this)
-
be made by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
In general, what is the tallest amateur radio antenna system excluded from the requirement to consult with the land use authority and the public where there is a land use authority defined public consultation process?
-
21m (0% chose this)
-
the taller of the height exclusion in the land use authority public consultation process and Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada's antenna siting procedures (0% chose this)
-
10m (0% chose this)
-
15m (0% chose this)
Where a land use authority or municipality has established a public consultation process for antenna systems, who determines how public consultation should take place?
-
The person planning to erect an antenna structure (0% chose this)
-
The provincial government (0% chose this)
-
The municipality or local land use authority (0% chose this)
-
Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
What organization has published safety guidelines for the maximum limits of RF energy near the human body?
-
Canadian Standards Association (0% chose this)
-
Environment Canada (0% chose this)
-
Transport Canada (0% chose this)
-
Health Canada (0% chose this)
What is the purpose of the Safety Code 6?
-
It sets transmitter power limits for interference protection (0% chose this)
-
It sets antenna height limits for aircraft protection (0% chose this)
-
It gives RF exposure limits for the human body (0% chose this)
-
It lists all RF frequency allocations for interference protection (0% chose this)
According to Safety Code 6, what frequencies cause us the greatest risk from RF energy?
-
Above 1500 MHz (0% chose this)
-
3 to 30 MHz (0% chose this)
-
30 to 300 MHz (0% chose this)
-
300 to 3000 MHz (0% chose this)
Why is the limit of exposure to RF the lowest in the frequency range of 30 MHz to 300 MHz, according to Safety Code 6?
-
There are fewer transmitters operating in this range (0% chose this)
-
Most transmissions in this range are for a longer time (0% chose this)
-
The human body absorbs RF energy the most in this range (0% chose this)
-
There are more transmitters operating in this range (0% chose this)
According to Safety Code 6, what is the maximum safe power output to the antenna of a hand-held VHF or UHF radio?
-
10 watts (0% chose this)
-
25 watts (0% chose this)
-
125 milliwatts (0% chose this)
-
Not specified (0% chose this)
Which of the following statements is not correct?
-
Permissible exposure levels of RF fields increases as frequency is increased from 300 MHz to 1.5 GHz (0% chose this)
-
Permissible exposure levels of RF fields increases as frequency is decreased from 10 MHz to 1 MHz (0% chose this)
-
Permissible exposure levels of RF fields decreases as frequency is decreased below 10 MHz (0% chose this)
-
Maximum exposure levels of RF fields to the general population, in the frequency range 10 to 300 MHz, is 28 V/m RMS (E-field) (0% chose this)
The permissible exposure levels of RF fields:
-
decreases, as frequency is decreased below 10 MHz (0% chose this)
-
increases, as frequency is increased from 10 MHz to 300 MHz (0% chose this)
-
decreases, as frequency is increased above 300 MHz (0% chose this)
-
increases, as frequency is increased from 300 MHz to 1.5 GHz (0% chose this)
Which statement is not correct?
-
Safety Code 6 specifies lower exposure limits for the general public in uncontrolled areas than it does for people in controlled areas (0% chose this)
-
hand held transmitters are excluded from Safety Code 6 requirements (0% chose this)
-
Antenna gain, distance, transmitter power and frequency are all factors which influence the electric field strength and a person's exposure to radio energy. (0% chose this)
-
Safety Code 6 uses different units for the magnetic field strength and the electric field strength when stating limits (0% chose this)
Which statement is correct?
-
Safety Code 6 regulates the operation of receivers only (0% chose this)
-
The operation of portable transmitting equipment is of no concern in Safety Code 6 (0% chose this)
-
Portable transmitters, operating below 1 GHz, with an output power equal to, or less than 7 watts, are exempt from the requirements of Safety Code 6 (0% chose this)
-
Safety Code 6 sets limits for RF exposure from all radio transmitters regardless of power output (0% chose this)
Which of these statements about Safety Code 6 is false?
-
Safety Code 6 sets limits for allowable rates at which RF energy is absorbed in the body (Specific Absorption Rate) (0% chose this)
-
Safety Code 6 sets limits in terms of power levels fed into antennas (0% chose this)
-
Safety Code 6 sets limits for contact currents that could be drawn from ungrounded or poorly grounded objects (0% chose this)
-
Safety Code 6 sets limits for induced currents, electrical field strength and magnetic field strength from electromagnetic radiation (0% chose this)
In the event of the malfunctioning of a neighbour's broadcast FM receiver and stereo system, it will be deemed that the affected equipment's lack of immunity is the cause if the field strength:
-
at the transmitting location is below the radio amateur's maximum allowable transmitter power (0% chose this)
-
at the transmitting location is above 100 watts (0% chose this)
-
near the affected equipment is above Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada's specified immunity criteria (0% chose this)
-
on the premises of the affected equipment is below Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada's specified immunity criteria (0% chose this)
In the event of interference to a neighbour's television receiver, according to EMCAB-2 it will be deemed that a radio amateur's transmission is the cause of the problem if the field strength:
-
near the TV is below Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada's specified immunity criteria (0% chose this)
-
at the transmitting location is below the radio amateur's maximum allowable transmitter power (0% chose this)
-
at the transmitting location is above the radio amateur's maximum allowable transmitter power (0% chose this)
-
on the neighbour's premises is above Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada's specified immunity criteria (0% chose this)
Which of the following is defined in EMCAB-2 as "any device, machinery or equipment, other than radio apparatus, the use or functioning of which is, or can be, adversely affected by radiocommunication emissions"?
-
Broadcast receivers (0% chose this)
-
Radio-sensitive equipment (0% chose this)
-
Cable television converters (0% chose this)
-
Audio and video recorders (0% chose this)
According to EMCAB-2 which of the following types of equipment is not included in the list of field strength criteria for resolution of immunity complaints?
-
Associated equipment (0% chose this)
-
Radio-sensitive equipment (0% chose this)
-
Broadcast transmitters (0% chose this)
-
Broadcast receivers (0% chose this)
What is a good way to make contact on a repeater?
-
Say the other operator's name, then your call sign three times (0% chose this)
-
Say, "Breaker, breaker," (0% chose this)
-
Say the call sign of the station you want to contact three times (0% chose this)
-
Say the call sign of the station you want to contact, then your call sign (0% chose this)
What is the main purpose of a repeater?
-
To retransmit weather information during severe storm warnings (0% chose this)
-
To make local information available 24 hours a day (0% chose this)
-
To increase the range of portable and mobile stations (0% chose this)
-
To link amateur stations with the telephone system (0% chose this)
What is frequency coordination on VHF and UHF bands?
-
The selection of simplex frequencies by individual operators (0% chose this)
-
A part of the planning prior to a contest (0% chose this)
-
A process which seeks to carefully assign frequencies so as to minimize interference with neighbouring repeaters (0% chose this)
-
A band plan detailing modes and frequency segments within a band (0% chose this)
What is the purpose of a repeater time-out timer?
-
It tells how long someone has been using a repeater (0% chose this)
-
It interrupts lengthy transmissions without pauses (0% chose this)
-
It lets a repeater have a rest period after heavy use (0% chose this)
-
It logs repeater transmit time to predict when a repeater will fail (0% chose this)
What is a CTCSS tone?
-
A special signal used for radio control of model craft (0% chose this)
-
A sub-audible tone that activates a receiver audio output when present (0% chose this)
-
A tone used by repeaters to mark the end of a transmission (0% chose this)
-
A special signal used for telemetry between amateur space stations and Earth stations (0% chose this)
How do you call another station on a repeater if you know the station's call sign?
-
Say the station's call sign, then identify your own station (0% chose this)
-
Say "break, break 79," then say the station's call sign (0% chose this)
-
Say "CQ" three times, then say the station's call sign (0% chose this)
-
Wait for the station to call "CQ", then answer it (0% chose this)
Why should you pause briefly between transmissions when using a repeater?
-
To listen for anyone else wanting to use the repeater (0% chose this)
-
To check the SWR of the repeater (0% chose this)
-
To reach for pencil and paper for third-party communications (0% chose this)
-
To dial up the repeater's autopatch (0% chose this)
Why should you keep transmissions short when using a repeater?
-
To keep long-distance charges down (0% chose this)
-
To give any listening non-hams a chance to respond (0% chose this)
-
To see if the receiving station operator is still awake (0% chose this)
-
A long transmission may prevent someone with an emergency from using the repeater (0% chose this)
What is the proper way to join into a conversation on a repeater?
-
Turn on an amplifier and override whoever is talking (0% chose this)
-
Say your call sign during a break between transmissions (0% chose this)
-
Wait for the end of a transmission and start calling the desired party (0% chose this)
-
Shout, "break, break!" to show that you're eager to join the conversation (0% chose this)
What is the accepted way to ask someone their location when using a repeater?
-
What is your 20? (0% chose this)
-
Locations are not normally told by radio (0% chose this)
-
What is your 12? (0% chose this)
-
Where are you? (0% chose this)
FM repeater operation on the 2 metre band uses one frequency for transmission and one for reception. The difference in frequency between the transmit and receive frequency is normally:
-
1 000 kHz (0% chose this)
-
400 kHz (0% chose this)
-
600 kHz (0% chose this)
-
800 kHz (0% chose this)
To make your call sign better understood when using voice transmissions, what should you do?
-
Talk louder (0% chose this)
-
Turn up your microphone gain (0% chose this)
-
Use Standard International Phonetics for each letter of your call sign (0% chose this)
-
Use any words which start with the same letters as your call sign for each letter of your call (0% chose this)
What can you use as an aid for correct station identification when using phone?
-
Unique words of your choice (0% chose this)
-
A speech compressor (0% chose this)
-
The Standard International Phonetic Alphabet (0% chose this)
-
Q signals (0% chose this)
What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter A?
-
America (0% chose this)
-
Alfa (0% chose this)
-
Able (0% chose this)
-
Adam (0% chose this)
What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter B?
-
Brazil (0% chose this)
-
Borneo (0% chose this)
-
Baker (0% chose this)
-
Bravo (0% chose this)
What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter D?
-
Dog (0% chose this)
-
Denmark (0% chose this)
-
David (0% chose this)
-
Delta (0% chose this)
What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter E?
-
Edward (0% chose this)
-
England (0% chose this)
-
Echo (0% chose this)
-
Easy (0% chose this)
What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter G?
-
Germany (0% chose this)
-
Gibraltar (0% chose this)
-
Golf (0% chose this)
-
George (0% chose this)
What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter I?
-
Item (0% chose this)
-
India (0% chose this)
-
Iran (0% chose this)
-
Italy (0% chose this)
What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter L?
-
Lima (0% chose this)
-
Love (0% chose this)
-
London (0% chose this)
-
Luxembourg (0% chose this)
What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter P?
-
Papa (0% chose this)
-
Portugal (0% chose this)
-
Paris (0% chose this)
-
Peter (0% chose this)
What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter R?
-
Romeo (0% chose this)
-
Roger (0% chose this)
-
Radio (0% chose this)
-
Romania (0% chose this)
What is the correct way to call "CQ" when using voice?
-
Say "CQ" at least ten times, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign spoken once (0% chose this)
-
Say "CQ" three times, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign spoken three times (0% chose this)
-
Say "CQ" once, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign spoken three times (0% chose this)
-
Say "CQ" at least five times, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign spoken once (0% chose this)
How should you answer a voice CQ call?
-
Say the other station's call sign at least ten times, followed by "this is," then your call sign at least twice (0% chose this)
-
Say the other station's call sign once, followed by "this is," then your call sign given phonetically (0% chose this)
-
Say the other station's call sign at least five times phonetically, followed by "this is," then your call sign twice (0% chose this)
-
Say the other station's call sign at least three times, followed by "this is," and your call sign at least five times phonetically (0% chose this)
What is simplex operation?
-
Transmitting and receiving on the same frequency (0% chose this)
-
Transmitting and receiving over a wide area (0% chose this)
-
Transmitting on one frequency and receiving on another (0% chose this)
-
Transmitting one-way communications (0% chose this)
When should you consider using simplex operation instead of a repeater?
-
When signals are reliable between communicating parties without using a repeater (0% chose this)
-
When the most reliable communications are needed (0% chose this)
-
When an emergency telephone call is needed (0% chose this)
-
When you are traveling and need some local information (0% chose this)
Why should local amateur communications use VHF and UHF frequencies instead of HF frequencies?
-
Because HF transmissions are not propagated locally (0% chose this)
-
Because signals are stronger on VHF and UHF frequencies (0% chose this)
-
To minimize interference on HF bands capable of long-distance communication (0% chose this)
-
Because greater output power is permitted on VHF and UHF (0% chose this)
Why should we be careful in choosing a simplex frequency when operating VHF or UHF FM?
-
Some frequencies are designated for narrow band FM and others for wideband FM (0% chose this)
-
You may inadvertently choose a channel that is the input to a local repeater (0% chose this)
-
Interference may be caused to unlicensed devices operating in the same band (0% chose this)
-
Implanted medical devices share the same spectrum (0% chose this)
If you are talking to a station using a repeater, how would you find out if you could communicate using simplex instead?
-
See if you can clearly receive the station on the repeater's input frequency (0% chose this)
-
See if a third station can clearly receive both of you (0% chose this)
-
See if you can clearly receive a more distant repeater (0% chose this)
-
See if you can clearly receive the station on a lower frequency band (0% chose this)
If you are operating simplex on a repeater frequency, why would it be good amateur practice to change to another frequency?
-
Changing the repeater's frequency requires the authorization of Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
-
Changing the repeater's frequency is not practical (0% chose this)
-
The repeater's output power may ruin your station's receiver (0% chose this)
-
There are more repeater operators than simplex operators (0% chose this)
Which sideband is commonly used for 20-metre phone operation?
-
Upper (0% chose this)
-
Lower (0% chose this)
-
FM (0% chose this)
-
Double (0% chose this)
Which sideband is commonly used on 3755 kHz for phone operation?
-
Upper (0% chose this)
-
Lower (0% chose this)
-
FM (0% chose this)
-
Double (0% chose this)
What is the best method to tell if a band is "open" for communication with a particular distant location?
-
Listen for signals from that area from an amateur beacon station or a foreign broadcast or television station on a nearby frequency (0% chose this)
-
Ask others on your local 2 metre FM repeater (0% chose this)
-
Telephone an experienced local amateur (0% chose this)
-
Look at the propagation forecasts in an amateur radio magazine (0% chose this)
What should you do before you transmit on any frequency?
-
Listen to make sure that someone will be able to hear you (0% chose this)
-
Listen to make sure others are not using the frequency (0% chose this)
-
Check your antenna for resonance at the selected frequency (0% chose this)
-
Make sure the SWR on your antenna transmission line is high enough (0% chose this)
If you contact another station and your signal is extremely strong and perfectly readable, what adjustment should you make to your transmitter?
-
Continue with your contact, making no changes (0% chose this)
-
Turn down your power output to the minimum necessary (0% chose this)
-
Turn on your speech processor (0% chose this)
-
Reduce your SWR (0% chose this)
What is one way to shorten transmitter tune-up time on the air to cut down on interference?
-
Use twin lead instead of coaxial cable transmission lines (0% chose this)
-
Tune the transmitter into a dummy load (0% chose this)
-
Use a long wire antenna (0% chose this)
-
Tune up on 40 metres first, then switch to the desired band (0% chose this)
How can on-the-air interference be minimized during a lengthy transmitter testing or tuning procedure?
-
Choose an unoccupied frequency (0% chose this)
-
Use a non-resonant antenna (0% chose this)
-
Use a resonant antenna that requires no loading-up procedure (0% chose this)
-
Use a dummy load (0% chose this)
Why would you use a dummy load?
-
To reduce output power (0% chose this)
-
To test or adjust your transceiver without causing interference (0% chose this)
-
To give comparative signal reports (0% chose this)
-
It is faster to tune (0% chose this)
If you are the net control station of a daily HF net, what should you do if the frequency on which you normally meet is in use just before the net begins?
-
Cancel the net for that day (0% chose this)
-
Call and ask occupants to relinquish the frequency for the scheduled net operations, but if they are not agreeable, conduct the net on a frequency 3 to 5 kHz away from the regular net frequency (0% chose this)
-
Reduce your output power and start the net as usual (0% chose this)
-
Increase your power output so that net participants will be able to hear you over the existing activity (0% chose this)
If a net is about to begin on a frequency which you and another station are using, what should you do?
-
Turn off your radio (0% chose this)
-
As a courtesy to the net, move to a different frequency (0% chose this)
-
Increase your power output to ensure that all net participants can hear you (0% chose this)
-
Transmit as long as possible on the frequency so that no other stations may use it (0% chose this)
If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?
-
Increase the output power of your transmitter to overcome the interference (0% chose this)
-
Move your contact to another frequency (0% chose this)
-
Tell the interfering stations to change frequency, since you were there first (0% chose this)
-
Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator (0% chose this)
When selecting a single-sideband phone transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow (between suppressed carriers) to minimize interference?
-
Approximately 10 kHz (0% chose this)
-
Approximately 3 kHz (0% chose this)
-
150 to 500 Hz (0% chose this)
-
Approximately 6 kHz (0% chose this)
What is a band plan?
-
A guideline for using different operating modes within an amateur band (0% chose this)
-
A plan of operating schedules within an amateur band published by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
-
A plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during a contest (0% chose this)
-
A guideline for deviating from amateur frequency band allocations (0% chose this)
Before transmitting, the first thing you should do is:
-
make an announcement on the frequency indicating that you intend to make a call (0% chose this)
-
decrease your receiver's volume (0% chose this)
-
listen carefully so as not to interrupt communications already in progress (0% chose this)
-
ask if the frequency is occupied (0% chose this)
What is the correct way to call "CQ" when using Morse code?
-
Send the letters "CQ" ten times, followed by "DE", followed by your call sign sent once (0% chose this)
-
Send the letters "CQ" over and over (0% chose this)
-
Send the letters "CQ" three times, followed by "DE", followed by your call sign sent three times (0% chose this)
-
Send the letters "CQ" three times, followed by "DE", followed by your call sign sent once (0% chose this)
How should you answer a routine Morse code "CQ" call?
-
Send your call sign followed by your name, station location and a signal report (0% chose this)
-
Send the other station's call sign twice, followed by "DE", followed by your call sign twice (0% chose this)
-
Send your call sign four times (0% chose this)
-
Send the other station's call sign once, followed by "DE", followed by your call sign four times (0% chose this)
At what speed should a Morse code "CQ" call be transmitted?
-
At any speed which you can reliably receive (0% chose this)
-
At any speed below 5 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
-
At the highest speed your keyer will operate (0% chose this)
-
At the highest speed at which you can control the keyer (0% chose this)
What is the meaning of the procedural signal "CQ"?
-
Calling any station (0% chose this)
-
Call on the quarter hour (0% chose this)
-
An antenna is being tested (0% chose this)
-
Only the station "CQ" should answer (0% chose this)
What is the meaning of the procedural signal "DE"?
-
From (0% chose this)
-
Received all correctly (0% chose this)
-
Calling any station (0% chose this)
-
Directional Emissions (0% chose this)
What is the meaning of the procedural signal "K"?
-
Any station please reply (0% chose this)
-
End of message (0% chose this)
-
Called station only transmit (0% chose this)
-
All received correctly (0% chose this)
What is meant by the term "DX"?
-
Go ahead (0% chose this)
-
Best regards (0% chose this)
-
Distant station (0% chose this)
-
Calling any station (0% chose this)
What is the meaning of the term "73"?
-
Love and kisses (0% chose this)
-
Go ahead (0% chose this)
-
Best regards (0% chose this)
-
Long distance (0% chose this)
Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?
-
An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission (0% chose this)
-
Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign "BK" (0% chose this)
-
Incoming signals are received between transmitted Morse code dots and dashes (0% chose this)
-
Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys (0% chose this)
When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow to minimize interference?
-
5 to 50 Hz (0% chose this)
-
1 to 3 kHz (0% chose this)
-
3 to 6 kHz (0% chose this)
-
150 to 500 Hz (0% chose this)
Good Morse telegraphy operators:
-
listen to the frequency to make sure that it is not in use before transmitting (0% chose this)
-
always give stations a good readability report (0% chose this)
-
save time by leaving out spaces between words (0% chose this)
-
tune the transmitter using the operating antenna (0% chose this)
What are "RST" signal reports?
-
A short way to describe signal reception (0% chose this)
-
A short way to describe transmitter power (0% chose this)
-
A short way to describe sunspot activity (0% chose this)
-
A short way to describe ionospheric conditions (0% chose this)
What does "RST" mean in a signal report?
-
Readability, signal speed, tempo (0% chose this)
-
Readability, signal strength, tone (0% chose this)
-
Recovery, signal strength, tempo (0% chose this)
-
Recovery, signal speed, tone (0% chose this)
What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is 5 7"?
-
Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty (0% chose this)
-
Your signal is perfectly readable with near pure tone (0% chose this)
-
Your signal is perfectly readable, but weak (0% chose this)
-
Your signal is perfectly readable and moderately strong (0% chose this)
What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is 3 3 "?
-
Your signal is unreadable, very weak in strength (0% chose this)
-
The station is located at latitude 33 degrees (0% chose this)
-
The contact is serial number 33 (0% chose this)
-
Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty and weak in strength (0% chose this)
What is the meaning of: "You are 5 9 plus 20 dB"?
-
Your signal strength has increased by a factor of 100 (0% chose this)
-
You are perfectly readable with a signal strength 20 decibels greater than S 9 (0% chose this)
-
The bandwidth of your signal is 20 decibels above linearity (0% chose this)
-
Repeat your transmission on a frequency 20 kHz higher (0% chose this)
A distant station asks for a signal report on a local repeater you monitor. Which fact affects your assessment?
-
Signal reports are only useful on simplex communications (0% chose this)
-
The other operator needs to know how well he is received at the repeater, not how well you receive the repeater (0% chose this)
-
The repeater gain affects your S-meter reading (0% chose this)
-
You need to listen to the repeater input frequency for an accurate signal report (0% chose this)
If the power output of a transmitter is increased by four times, how might a nearby receiver's S-meter reading change?
-
Increase by approximately four S units (0% chose this)
-
Decrease by approximately four S units (0% chose this)
-
Decrease by approximately one S unit (0% chose this)
-
Increase by approximately one S unit (0% chose this)
By how many times must the power output of a transmitter be increased to raise the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver from S8 to S9?
-
Approximately 4 times (0% chose this)
-
Approximately 5 times (0% chose this)
-
Approximately 3 times (0% chose this)
-
Approximately 2 times (0% chose this)
What does "RST 579" mean in a Morse code contact?
-
Your signal is perfectly readable, weak strength, and with perfect tone (0% chose this)
-
Your signal is fairly readable, fair strength, and with perfect tone (0% chose this)
-
Your signal is barely readable, moderately strong, and with faint ripple (0% chose this)
-
Your signal is perfectly readable, moderately strong, and with perfect tone (0% chose this)
What does "RST 459" mean in a Morse code contact?
-
Your signal is very readable, very strong, and with perfect tone (0% chose this)
-
Your signal is barely readable, very weak, and with perfect tone (0% chose this)
-
Your signal is moderately readable, very weak, and with hum on the tone (0% chose this)
-
Your signal is quite readable, fair strength, and with perfect tone (0% chose this)
What is the meaning of "Your signal report is 1 1"?
-
Your signal is first class in readability and first class in strength (0% chose this)
-
Your signal is very readable and very strong (0% chose this)
-
Your signal is unreadable, and barely perceptible (0% chose this)
-
Your signal is 11 dB over S9 (0% chose this)
What is the meaning of the Q signal "QRS"?
-
Radio station location is: (0% chose this)
-
Send more slowly (0% chose this)
-
Interference from static (0% chose this)
-
Send "RST" report (0% chose this)
What is one meaning of the Q signal "QTH"?
-
Time here is (0% chose this)
-
My location is (0% chose this)
-
Stop sending (0% chose this)
-
My name is (0% chose this)
What is the proper Q signal to use to see if a frequency is in use before transmitting on CW?
-
QRU? (0% chose this)
-
QRZ? (0% chose this)
-
QRL? (0% chose this)
-
QRV? (0% chose this)
What is one meaning of the Q signal "QSY"?
-
Send faster (0% chose this)
-
Send more slowly (0% chose this)
-
Change frequency (0% chose this)
-
Use more power (0% chose this)
What is the meaning of the Q signal "QSB"?
-
Your signal is fading (0% chose this)
-
I am busy (0% chose this)
-
I have no message (0% chose this)
-
A contact is confirmed (0% chose this)
What is the proper Q signal to ask who is calling you on CW?
-
QRL? (0% chose this)
-
QRT? (0% chose this)
-
QRZ? (0% chose this)
-
QSL? (0% chose this)
The signal "QRM" signifies:
-
I am being interfered with (0% chose this)
-
Are you troubled by static (0% chose this)
-
your signals are fading (0% chose this)
-
is my transmission being interfered with (0% chose this)
The signal "QRN" means:
-
I am being interfered with (0% chose this)
-
I am troubled by static (0% chose this)
-
I am busy (0% chose this)
-
are you troubled by static (0% chose this)
The "Q signal" indicating that you want the other station to send slower is:
-
QRN (0% chose this)
-
QRS (0% chose this)
-
QRM (0% chose this)
-
QRL (0% chose this)
Who is calling me is denoted by the "Q signal":
-
QRP? (0% chose this)
-
QRM? (0% chose this)
-
QRZ? (0% chose this)
-
QRK? (0% chose this)
The "Q signal" which signifies "I will call you again" is:
-
QRZ (0% chose this)
-
QRS (0% chose this)
-
QRT (0% chose this)
-
QRX (0% chose this)
When may you use your amateur station to transmit an "SOS" or "MAYDAY"?
-
Only in case of a severe weather watch (0% chose this)
-
In a life-threatening distress situation (0% chose this)
-
Never (0% chose this)
-
Only at specific times (at 15 and 30 minutes after the hour) (0% chose this)
If you are in contact with another station and you hear an emergency call for help on your frequency, what should you do?
-
Immediately stop your contact and acknowledge the emergency call (0% chose this)
-
Tell the calling station that the frequency is in use (0% chose this)
-
Direct the calling station to the nearest emergency net frequency (0% chose this)
-
Call your local police station and inform them of the emergency call (0% chose this)
What is the proper distress call to use when operating phone?
-
Say "EMERGENCY" several times (0% chose this)
-
Say "HELP" several times (0% chose this)
-
Say "MAYDAY" several times (0% chose this)
-
Say "SOS" several times (0% chose this)
What is the proper distress call to use when operating CW?
-
SOS (0% chose this)
-
CQD (0% chose this)
-
QRRR (0% chose this)
-
MAYDAY (0% chose this)
What is the proper way to interrupt a repeater conversation to signal a distress call?
-
Break-in immediately following the transmission of the active party and state your situation and call sign (0% chose this)
-
Say "EMERGENCY" three times (0% chose this)
-
Say "SOS," then your call sign (0% chose this)
-
Say "HELP" as many times as it takes to get someone to answer (0% chose this)
Why is it a good idea to have a way to operate your amateur station without using commercial AC power lines?
-
So you may use your station while mobile (0% chose this)
-
So you may provide communications in an emergency (0% chose this)
-
So you will comply with rules (0% chose this)
-
So you may operate in contests where AC power is not allowed (0% chose this)
What is the most important accessory to have for a hand-held radio in an emergency?
-
An extra antenna (0% chose this)
-
A portable amplifier (0% chose this)
-
A microphone headset for hands-free operation (0% chose this)
-
Several sets of charged batteries (0% chose this)
Which type of antenna would be a good choice as part of a portable HF amateur station that could be set up in case of an emergency?
-
A three-element Yagi (0% chose this)
-
A three-element quad (0% chose this)
-
A dipole (0% chose this)
-
A parabolic dish (0% chose this)
If you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in, what should you do?
-
Acknowledge the station in distress and determine its location and what assistance may be needed (0% chose this)
-
Continue your communication because you were on frequency first (0% chose this)
-
Change to a different frequency so the station in distress may have a clear channel to call for assistance (0% chose this)
-
Immediately cease all transmissions because stations in distress have emergency rights to the frequency (0% chose this)
In order of priority, a distress message comes before:
-
an emergency message (0% chose this)
-
no other messages (0% chose this)
-
a government priority message (0% chose this)
-
a safety message (0% chose this)
If you hear distress traffic and are unable to render direct assistance you should:
-
enter the details in the log book and take no further action (0% chose this)
-
take no action (0% chose this)
-
tell all other stations to cease transmitting (0% chose this)
-
contact authorities and then maintain watch until you are certain that assistance will be forthcoming (0% chose this)
What is a "QSL card"?
-
A Notice of Violation from Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
-
A postcard reminding you when your certificate will expire (0% chose this)
-
A letter or postcard from an amateur pen pal (0% chose this)
-
A written proof of communication between two amateurs (0% chose this)
What is an azimuthal map?
-
A map projection centered on the North Pole (0% chose this)
-
A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator (0% chose this)
-
A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator (0% chose this)
-
A map projection centered on a particular location, used to determine the shortest path between points on the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
What is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a directional HF antenna toward a distant station?
-
Topographical (0% chose this)
-
Azimuthal (0% chose this)
-
Mercator (0% chose this)
-
Polar projection (0% chose this)
A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction to another station is generally oriented how many degrees from its short-path heading?
-
90 degrees (0% chose this)
-
270 degrees (0% chose this)
-
180 degrees (0% chose this)
-
45 degrees (0% chose this)
What method is used by radio amateurs to provide written proof of communication between two amateur stations?
-
A radiogram sent over the CW traffic net (0% chose this)
-
A packet message (0% chose this)
-
A signed post card listing contact date, time, frequency, mode and power, called a "QSL card" (0% chose this)
-
A two-page letter containing a photograph of the operator (0% chose this)
You hear other local stations talking to radio amateurs in New Zealand but you don't hear those stations with your beam aimed on the normal compass bearing to New Zealand. What should you try?
-
Point your antenna toward Newington, Connecticut (0% chose this)
-
Point your antenna to the north (0% chose this)
-
Point your antenna to the south (0% chose this)
-
Point your beam 180 degrees away from that bearing and listen for the stations arriving on the "long-path" (0% chose this)
Which statement about recording all contacts and unanswered "CQ calls" in a station logbook or computer log is not correct?
-
A well-kept log preserves your fondest amateur radio memories for years (0% chose this)
-
A log is important for handling neighbour interference complaints (0% chose this)
-
A logbook is required by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
-
A log is important for recording contacts for operating awards (0% chose this)
Why would it be useful to have an azimuthal world map centred on the location of your station?
-
Because it looks impressive (0% chose this)
-
Because it shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator (0% chose this)
-
Because it shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite moves west (0% chose this)
-
Because it shows the compass bearing from your station to any place on Earth, for antenna planning and pointing (0% chose this)
Station logs and confirmation (QSL) cards are always kept in UTC (Universal Time Coordinated). Where is that time based?
-
Greenwich, England (0% chose this)
-
Geneva, Switzerland (0% chose this)
-
Ottawa, Canada (0% chose this)
-
Newington, Connecticut (0% chose this)
When referring to contacts in the station log, what do the letters UTC mean?
-
Unlisted Telephone Call (0% chose this)
-
Unlimited Time Capsule (0% chose this)
-
Universal Time Coordinated (formerly Greenwich Mean Time - GMT) (0% chose this)
-
Universal Time Constant (0% chose this)
To set your station clock accurately to UTC, you could receive the most accurate time off the air from _______?
-
A non-directional beacon station (0% chose this)
-
Your local television station (0% chose this)
-
Your local radio station (0% chose this)
-
CHU, WWV or WWVH (0% chose this)
HamStudy.org™ is copyright 2024 Signal Stuff™, All rights
reserved.
View Privacy Policy | Get help with HamStudy.org™
View Privacy Policy | Get help with HamStudy.org™