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2021 Basic Qualification pool
955 / 972 questions need explanations
1.7% complete
All explanations are written and maintained by ordinary users like you! Please help us finish the explanations in this pool.
The "amateur radio service" is defined in:
• the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service (0% chose this)
• the FCC's Part 97 rules (0% chose this)
• the Radiocommunication Regulations (0% chose this)
• the Radiocommunication Act (0% chose this)
• Contact Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada and provide details of your address change (0% chose this)
• Contact an accredited examiner and provide details of your address change (0% chose this)
An Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is valid for:
• five years (0% chose this)
• three years (0% chose this)
• one year (0% chose this)
• life (0% chose this)
• within the same province, there is no need to notify Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
• Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada must be advised of any change in postal address (0% chose this)
• Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada must be notified within 14 days of operation at the new address (0% chose this)
• the station shall not be operated until a change of address card is forwarded to Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this)
• must be kept on the person to whom it is issued (0% chose this)
• must be retained at the station (0% chose this)
• must be put on file (0% chose this)
• must be kept in a safe place (0% chose this)
The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate shall, at the request of a duly appointed radio inspector, produce the certificate, or a copy thereof, to the inspector, within ____ hours after the request:
• 72 (0% chose this)
• 48 (0% chose this)
• 12 (0% chose this)
• 24 (0% chose this)
The fee for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is:
• $10 (0% chose this) •$24 (0% chose this)
• free (0% chose this)
• $32 (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The Amateur Radio Operator Certificate should be: • retained on the radio amateur's person (0% chose this) • retained in the radio amateur's vehicle (0% chose this) • retained at the address provided to Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this) • retained in a safety deposit box (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Out of amateur band transmissions: • must be identified with your call sign (0% chose this) • are permitted (0% chose this) • are permitted for short tests only (0% chose this) • are prohibited - penalties could be assessed to the control operator (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If an amateur pretends there is an emergency and transmits the word "MAYDAY," what is this called? • A traditional greeting in May (0% chose this) • An emergency test transmission (0% chose this) • Nothing special: "MAYDAY" has no meaning in an emergency (0% chose this) • False or deceptive signals (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A person found guilty of transmitting a false or fraudulent distress signal, or interfering with, or obstructing any radio communication, without lawful cause, may be liable, on summary conviction, to a penalty of: • a fine of$10 000 (0% chose this)
• a prison term of two years (0% chose this)
• a fine of $1 000 (0% chose this) • a fine, not exceeding$5 000, or a prison term of one year, or both (0% chose this)
What government document states the offences and penalties for non compliance of the rules governing radiocommunications?
• The Radiocommunications Law Reform Act of 2002 (0% chose this)
• The Radiocommunication Act (0% chose this)
• The Radiocommunications Regulations (0% chose this)
Which of the following is not correct? The Minister may suspend an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate:
• Where the holder has contravened the Radiocommunication Act, its Regulations, or the terms and conditions of the certificate (0% chose this)
• Where the certificate was obtained through misrepresentation (0% chose this)
• Where the holder has failed to comply with a request to pay fees or interest due (0% chose this)
• With no notice, or opportunity to make representation thereto (0% chose this)
Which of the following statements is not correct?
• The person in charge of a place entered by a radio inspector shall give the inspector information that the inspector requests (0% chose this)
• A radio inspector may enter a dwelling without the consent of the occupant and without a warrant (0% chose this)
• Where entry is refused, and is necessary to perform his duties under the Act, a radio inspector may obtain a warrant (0% chose this)
• In executing a warrant, a radio inspector shall not use force, unless accompanied by a peace officer, and force is authorized (0% chose this)
What age must you be to hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic Qualification?
• 70 years or younger (0% chose this)
• 18 years or older (0% chose this)
• 14 years or older (0% chose this)
• There are no age limits (0% chose this)
Which examination must be passed before an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is issued?
• Basic (0% chose this)
• Personality test (0% chose this)
• Morse code (0% chose this)
Holders of which one of the following certificates may be issued an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate?
• Canadian Restricted Operator Certificate - Maritime (ROC-M) (0% chose this)
• Canadian Restricted Operator's Certificate - Maritime Commercial (ROC-MC) (0% chose this)
• Canadian Restricted Operator Certificate - Aeronautical (ROC-A) (0% chose this)
After an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic qualifications is issued, the holder may be examined for additional qualifications in the following order:
• Morse code after passing the Basic with Honours (0% chose this)
• Advanced after passing Morse code (0% chose this)
• any order (0% chose this)
• Morse code after passing the Advanced (0% chose this)
One Morse code qualification is available for the Amateur Radio Operator Certificate. It is:
• 7 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
• 15 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
• 12 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
• 5 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with the Basic Qualification is authorized to operate following stations:
• a station authorized in the maritime service (0% chose this)
• any authorized station except stations authorized in the amateur, aeronautical or maritime services (0% chose this)
• a station authorized in the amateur service (0% chose this)
• a station authorized in the aeronautical service (0% chose this)
What conditions must candidates to amateur radio certification meet?
• Be at least 14 years of age and a Canadian citizen or permanent resident (0% chose this)
• Be a Canadian citizen (0% chose this)
• Be a Canadian citizen or permanent resident (0% chose this)
Radio apparatus may be installed, placed in operation, repaired or maintained by the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Advanced Qualification on behalf of another person:
• if the transmitter of a station, for which a radio authorization is to be applied for, is type approved and crystal controlled (0% chose this)
• if the other person is the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate to operate in the amateur radio service (0% chose this)
• pending the granting of a radio authorization, if the apparatus covers the amateur and commercial frequency bands (0% chose this)
• pending the granting of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate if the apparatus covers the amateur frequency bands only (0% chose this)
The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate may design and build from scratch transmitting equipment for use in the amateur radio service provided that person has the:
• Basic qualification (0% chose this)
• Advanced qualification (0% chose this)
• Basic and Morse code qualification (0% chose this)
• Morse code with Honours qualification (0% chose this)
Where a friend is not the holder of any type of radio operator certificate, you, as a holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic Qualification, may, on behalf of your friend:
• modify and repair the radio apparatus but not install it (0% chose this)
• not install, place in operation, modify, repair, maintain, or permit the operation of the radio apparatus (0% chose this)
• install an amateur station, but not operate or permit the operation of the apparatus (0% chose this)
• install and operate the radio apparatus, using your own call sign (0% chose this)
A radio amateur with Basic and Morse code qualifications may install an amateur station for another person:
• only if the other person is the holder of a valid Amateur Radio Operator Certificate (0% chose this)
• only if the final power input does not exceed 100 watts (0% chose this)
• only if the station is for use on one of the VHF bands (0% chose this)
• only if the DC power input to the final stage does not exceed 200 watts (0% chose this)
Which of these statements is not correct?
• An accredited volunteer examiner must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic, Advanced, and Morse code qualifications (0% chose this)
• The fee for taking an examination for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate at an Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada office is $20 per qualification (0% chose this) • The fee for taking an examination for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate at an Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada office is$5 per qualification (0% chose this)
• An accredited examiner may recover the cost of administering an examination (0% chose this)
Which of the following statements is not correct?
• A disabled candidate must pass a normal amateur radio certificate examination before being granted any qualification (0% chose this)
• A disabled candidate, taking a Morse code sending test, may be allowed to recite the examination text in Morse code sounds (0% chose this)
• Examinations for disabled candidates may be given orally, or tailored to the candidate's ability to complete the examination (0% chose this)
• An accredited examiner may recover the cost of administering an examination (0% chose this)
The fee for taking examinations for amateur radio operator certificates by an accredited volunteer examiner is:
• to be negotiated between examiner and candidate (0% chose this)
• always $20 per qualification (0% chose this) • always free of charge (0% chose this) • always$20 per visit regardless of the number of examinations (0% chose this)
The fee for taking amateur radio certificate examinations at an Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada office is:
• $20 per visit, regardless of the number of qualification examinations (0% chose this) • no charge for qualification examinations (0% chose this) •$5 per qualification examination (0% chose this)
• $20 per qualification (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which of the following statements is false? • A candidate who fails a written examination for lack of reading skills may be given an oral examination (0% chose this) • A candidate who fails a written examination due to not usually speaking English or French may be given an oral examination (0% chose this) • An examiner may request medical evidence from a practicing medical physician before accommodating testing (0% chose this) • A candidate with insufficient knowledge of English or French may be accompanied by an interpreter (0% chose this) Register to add explanation How much voltage does a standard automobile battery usually supply? • About 120 volts (0% chose this) • About 9 volts (0% chose this) • About 12 volts (0% chose this) • About 240 volts (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which component has a positive and a negative side? • A battery (0% chose this) • A potentiometer (0% chose this) • A fuse (0% chose this) • A resistor (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A cell, that can be repeatedly recharged by supplying it with electrical energy, is known as a: • low leakage cell (0% chose this) • memory cell (0% chose this) • primary cell (0% chose this) • storage cell (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which of the following is a source of electromotive force (EMF)? • carbon resistor (0% chose this) • lithium-ion battery (0% chose this) • germanium diode (0% chose this) • P channel FET (0% chose this) Register to add explanation An important difference between a conventional flashlight battery and a lead acid battery is that only the lead acid battery: • has two terminals (0% chose this) • can be completely discharged (0% chose this) • contains an electrolyte (0% chose this) • can be repeatedly recharged (0% chose this) Register to add explanation An alkaline cell has a nominal voltage of 1.5 volts. When supplying a great deal of current, the voltage may drop to 1.2 volts. This is caused by the cell's: • voltage capacity (0% chose this) • internal resistance (0% chose this) • electrolyte becoming dry (0% chose this) • current capacity (0% chose this) Register to add explanation An inexpensive primary cell in use today is the carbon-zinc or flashlight cell. This type of cell can be recharged: • never (0% chose this) • twice (0% chose this) • many times (0% chose this) • once (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Battery capacity is commonly stated as a value of current delivered over a specified period of time. What is the effect of exceeding that specified current? • The battery will accept the subsequent charge in shorter time (0% chose this) • The voltage delivered will be higher (0% chose this) • A battery charge will not last as long (0% chose this) • The internal resistance of the cell is short-circuited (0% chose this) Register to add explanation To increase the current capacity of a cell, several cells should be connected in: • parallel (0% chose this) • series (0% chose this) • parallel resonant (0% chose this) • series resonant (0% chose this) Register to add explanation To increase the voltage output, several cells are connected in: • parallel (0% chose this) • series-parallel (0% chose this) • resonance (0% chose this) • series (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A lithium-ion battery should never be: • left disconnected (0% chose this) • left overnight at room temperature (0% chose this) • short-circuited (0% chose this) • recharged (0% chose this) Register to add explanation How do you find a resistor's tolerance rating? • By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors (0% chose this) • By reading its Baudot code (0% chose this) • By using a voltmeter (0% chose this) • By reading the resistor's colour code (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What do the first three-colour bands on a resistor indicate? • The resistance material (0% chose this) • The power rating in watts (0% chose this) • The resistance tolerance in percent (0% chose this) • The value of the resistor in ohms (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What would the fourth colour band on a 47 ohm resistor indicate? • The resistance tolerance in percent (0% chose this) • The value of the resistor in ohms (0% chose this) • The power rating in watts (0% chose this) • The resistance material (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What are the possible values of a 100 ohm resistor with a 10% tolerance? • 90 to 110 ohms (0% chose this) • 90 to 100 ohms (0% chose this) • 10 to 100 ohms (0% chose this) • 80 to 120 ohms (0% chose this) Register to add explanation How do you find a resistor's value? • By using the Baudot code (0% chose this) • By using the resistor's colour code (0% chose this) • By using a voltmeter (0% chose this) • By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A club project requires that a resistive voltage divider provide a very accurate and predictable ratio. Out of the list below, which resistor tolerance would you select? • 10% (0% chose this) • 20% (0% chose this) • 0.1% (0% chose this) • 5% (0% chose this) Register to add explanation You need a current limiting resistor for a light-emitting diode (LED). The actual resistance is not critical at all. Out of the list below, which resistor tolerance would you select? • 10% (0% chose this) • 20% (0% chose this) • 0.1% (0% chose this) • 5% (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If a carbon resistor's temperature is increased, what will happen to the resistance? • It will stay the same (0% chose this) • It will become time dependent (0% chose this) • It will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees centigrade (0% chose this) • It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient rating (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A gold tolerance band on a resistor indicates the tolerance is: • 10% (0% chose this) • 1% (0% chose this) • 5% (0% chose this) • 20% (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which colour band would differentiate a 120-ohm from a 1200-ohm resistor? • Second band (0% chose this) • Fourth band (0% chose this) • Third band (0% chose this) • First band (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Given that red=2, violet=7 and yellow=4, what is the nominal value of a resistor whose colour code reads "red", "violet" and "yellow"? • 270 kilohms (0% chose this) • 274 ohms (0% chose this) • 72 kilohms (0% chose this) • 27 megohms (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If an ammeter marked in amperes is used to measure a 3000 milliampere current, what reading would it show? • 3 000 000 amperes (0% chose this) • 3 amperes (0% chose this) • 0.003 ampere (0% chose this) • 0.3 ampere (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If a voltmeter marked in volts is used to measure a 3500 millivolt potential, what reading would it show? • 3.5 volts (0% chose this) • 0.35 volt (0% chose this) • 35 volts (0% chose this) • 350 volts (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A kilohm is: • 0.1 ohm (0% chose this) • 0.001 ohm (0% chose this) • 10 ohms (0% chose this) • 1000 ohms (0% chose this) Register to add explanation 6.6 kilovolts is equal to: • 660 volts (0% chose this) • 66 volts (0% chose this) • 66 000 volts (0% chose this) • 6600 volts (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A current of one quarter ampere may be written as: • 0.25 milliampere (0% chose this) • 250 microamperes (0% chose this) • 250 milliamperes (0% chose this) • 0.5 amperes (0% chose this) Register to add explanation How many millivolts are equivalent to two volts? • 0.002 (0% chose this) • 2 000 (0% chose this) • 0.000002 (0% chose this) • 2 000 000 (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Name three good electrical conductors. • Copper, aluminum, paper (0% chose this) • Copper, gold, mica (0% chose this) • Gold, silver, aluminum (0% chose this) • Gold, silver, wood (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Name four good electrical insulators. • Plastic, rubber, wood, carbon (0% chose this) • Paper, glass, air, aluminum (0% chose this) • Glass, wood, copper, porcelain (0% chose this) • Glass, air, plastic, porcelain (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Why do resistors sometimes get hot when in use? • Some electrical energy passing through them is lost as heat (0% chose this) • Their reactance makes them heat up (0% chose this) • Hotter circuit components nearby heat them up (0% chose this) • They absorb magnetic energy which makes them hot (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What is the best conductor among the following materials? • silicon (0% chose this) • aluminium (0% chose this) • copper (0% chose this) • carbon (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which type of material listed will most readily allow an electric current to flow? • a dielectric (0% chose this) • a conductor (0% chose this) • an insulator (0% chose this) • a semiconductor (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A length of metal is connected in a circuit and is found to conduct electricity very well. It would be best described as having a: • high wattage (0% chose this) • low wattage (0% chose this) • low resistance (0% chose this) • high resistance (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The letter "R" is the symbol for: • reactance (0% chose this) • resistance (0% chose this) • impedance (0% chose this) • reluctance (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The reciprocal of resistance is: • conductance (0% chose this) • reactance (0% chose this) • reluctance (0% chose this) • permeability (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Voltage drop means: • the voltage developed across the terminals of a component (0% chose this) • any point in a radio circuit which has zero voltage (0% chose this) • the difference in voltage at output terminals of a transformer (0% chose this) • the voltage which is dissipated before useful work is accomplished (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The resistance of a conductor changes with: • current (0% chose this) • humidity (0% chose this) • temperature (0% chose this) • voltage (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The most common material used to make a resistor is: • gold (0% chose this) • mica (0% chose this) • lead (0% chose this) • carbon (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which electrical circuit will have no current? • A complete circuit (0% chose this) • A closed circuit (0% chose this) • An open circuit (0% chose this) • A short circuit (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which electrical circuit draws too much current? • A closed circuit (0% chose this) • An open circuit (0% chose this) • A short circuit (0% chose this) • A dead circuit (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What term means the number of times per second that an alternating current flows back and forth? • Pulse rate (0% chose this) • Inductance (0% chose this) • Frequency (0% chose this) • Speed (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Approximately what frequency range can most humans hear? • 0 - 20 Hz (0% chose this) • 20 - 20 000 Hz (0% chose this) • 20 000 - 30 000 Hz (0% chose this) • 200 - 200 000 Hz (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Why do we call signals in the range 20 Hz to 20 000 Hz audio frequencies? • Because the human ear cannot sense anything in this range (0% chose this) • Because this range is too low for radio energy (0% chose this) • Because the human ear can sense radio waves in this range (0% chose this) • Because the human ear can sense sounds in this range (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What does 60 hertz (Hz) mean? • 60 cycles per second (0% chose this) • 6000 metres per second (0% chose this) • 60 metres per second (0% chose this) • 6000 cycles per second (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If the frequency of the waveform is 100 Hz, the time for one cycle is: • 0.01 second (0% chose this) • 10 seconds (0% chose this) • 0.0001 second (0% chose this) • 1 second (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Current in an AC circuit goes through a complete cycle in 0.1 second. This means the AC has a frequency of: • 1 Hz (0% chose this) • 100 Hz (0% chose this) • 1000 Hz (0% chose this) • 10 Hz (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A signal is composed of a fundamental frequency of 2 kHz and another of 4 kHz. This 4 kHz signal is referred to as: • a fundamental of the 2 kHz signal (0% chose this) • the DC component of the main signal (0% chose this) • a dielectric signal of the main signal (0% chose this) • a harmonic of the 2 kHz signal (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A force of repulsion exists between two _________ magnetic poles. • unlike (0% chose this) • positive (0% chose this) • negative (0% chose this) • like (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A permanent magnet would most likely be made from: • steel (0% chose this) • copper (0% chose this) • aluminum (0% chose this) • brass (0% chose this) Register to add explanation How is a voltmeter usually connected to a circuit under test? • In quadrature with the circuit (0% chose this) • In phase with the circuit (0% chose this) • In parallel with the circuit (0% chose this) • In series with the circuit (0% chose this) Register to add explanation How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit under test? • In quadrature with the circuit (0% chose this) • In phase with the circuit (0% chose this) • In parallel with the circuit (0% chose this) • In series with the circuit (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What does a multimeter measure? • Voltage, current and resistance (0% chose this) • Resistance, capacitance and inductance (0% chose this) • Resistance and reactance (0% chose this) • SWR and power (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The correct instrument to measure plate current or collector current of a transmitter is: • a voltmeter (0% chose this) • an ammeter (0% chose this) • an ohmmeter (0% chose this) • a wattmeter (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which of the following meters would you use to measure the power supply current drawn by a small hand-held transistorized receiver? • An electrostatic voltmeter (0% chose this) • A DC ammeter (0% chose this) • An RF ammeter (0% chose this) • An RF power meter (0% chose this) Register to add explanation When measuring current drawn from a DC power supply, it is true to say that the meter will act in circuit as: • an extra current drain (0% chose this) • an insulator (0% chose this) • a low value resistance (0% chose this) • a perfect conductor (0% chose this) Register to add explanation When measuring the current drawn by a receiver from a power supply, the current meter should be placed: • in parallel with one of the receiver power leads (0% chose this) • in series with one of the receiver power leads (0% chose this) • in series with both receiver power leads (0% chose this) • in parallel with both receiver power supply leads (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Potential difference is measured by means of: • a voltmeter (0% chose this) • a wattmeter (0% chose this) • an ohmmeter (0% chose this) • an ammeter (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The instrument used for measuring the flow of electrical current is the: • wattmeter (0% chose this) • voltmeter (0% chose this) • ammeter (0% chose this) • faradmeter (0% chose this) Register to add explanation In measuring volts and amperes, the connections should be made with: • the voltmeter in parallel and ammeter in series (0% chose this) • the voltmeter in series and ammeter in parallel (0% chose this) • both voltmeter and ammeter in series (0% chose this) • both voltmeter and ammeter in parallel (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If you have a hand-held transceiver which puts out 500 milliwatts, how many watts would this be? • 50 (0% chose this) • 0.02 (0% chose this) • 0.5 (0% chose this) • 5 (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What is the word used to describe the rate at which electrical energy is used? • Resistance (0% chose this) • Power (0% chose this) • Current (0% chose this) • Voltage (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If you have light bulbs marked 40 watts, 60 watts and 100 watts, which one will use electrical energy the fastest? • The 100 watt bulb (0% chose this) • They will all be the same (0% chose this) • The 40 watt bulb (0% chose this) • The 60 watt bulb (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What is the basic unit of electrical power? • The ampere (0% chose this) • The volt (0% chose this) • The ohm (0% chose this) • The watt (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Power is expressed in: • volts (0% chose this) • amperes (0% chose this) • ohms (0% chose this) • watts (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which of the following two quantities should be multiplied together to find power? • Voltage and inductance (0% chose this) • Resistance and capacitance (0% chose this) • Voltage and current (0% chose this) • Inductance and capacitance (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which two electrical units multiplied together give the unit "watts"? • Volts and farads (0% chose this) • Farads and henrys (0% chose this) • Amperes and henrys (0% chose this) • Volts and amperes (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A resistor in a circuit becomes very hot and starts to burn. This is because the resistor is dissipating too much: • voltage (0% chose this) • resistance (0% chose this) • current (0% chose this) • power (0% chose this) Register to add explanation High power resistors are usually large with heavy leads. The size aids the operation of the resistor by: • making it shock proof (0% chose this) • allowing heat to dissipate more readily (0% chose this) • allowing higher voltage to be handled (0% chose this) • increasing the effective resistance of the resistor (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The resistor that could dissipate the most heat would be marked: • 2 ohms (0% chose this) • 0.5 watt (0% chose this) • 20 watts (0% chose this) • 100 ohms (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If a current of 2 amperes flows through a 50-ohm resistor, what is the voltage across the resistor? • 25 volts (0% chose this) • 100 volts (0% chose this) • 48 volts (0% chose this) • 52 volts (0% chose this) Register to add explanation How is the current in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage and resistance are known? • Current equals resistance multiplied by voltage (0% chose this) • Current equals resistance divided by voltage (0% chose this) • Current equals power divided by voltage (0% chose this) • Current equals voltage divided by resistance (0% chose this) Register to add explanation How is the resistance in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage and current are known? • Resistance equals current divided by voltage (0% chose this) • Resistance equals voltage divided by current (0% chose this) • Resistance equals current multiplied by voltage (0% chose this) • Resistance equals power divided by voltage (0% chose this) Register to add explanation How is the voltage in a DC circuit calculated when the current and resistance are known? • Voltage equals current multiplied by resistance (0% chose this) • Voltage equals current divided by resistance (0% chose this) • Voltage equals resistance divided by current (0% chose this) • Voltage equals power divided by current (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If a 12-volt battery supplies 0.25 ampere to a circuit, what is the circuit's resistance? • 3 ohms (0% chose this) • 12 ohms (0% chose this) • 0.25 ohm (0% chose this) • 48 ohms (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Calculate the value of resistance necessary to drop 100 volts with current flow of 0.8 milliamperes: • 1250 ohms (0% chose this) • 1.25 kilohms (0% chose this) • 125 kilohms (0% chose this) • 125 ohms (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The voltage required to force a current of 4.4 amperes through a resistance of 50 ohms is: • 22.0 volts (0% chose this) • 0.220 volt (0% chose this) • 220 volts (0% chose this) • 2220 volts (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A lamp has a resistance of 30 ohms and a 6 volt battery is connected. The current flow will be: • 2 amperes (0% chose this) • 0.5 ampere (0% chose this) • 0.005 ampere (0% chose this) • 0.2 ampere (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What voltage would be needed to supply a current of 200 milliamperes, to operate an electric lamp which has a resistance of 25 ohms? • 175 volts (0% chose this) • 225 volts (0% chose this) • 5 volts (0% chose this) • 8 volts (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The resistance of a circuit can be found by using one of the following: • R = I/E (0% chose this) • R = E/R (0% chose this) • R = E x I (0% chose this) • R = E/I (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If a 3 volt battery supplies 300 milliamperes to a circuit, the circuit resistance is: • 9 ohms (0% chose this) • 5 ohms (0% chose this) • 3 ohms (0% chose this) • 10 ohms (0% chose this) Register to add explanation In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several branch resistors, how is the total current related to the current in the branch resistors? • It equals the average of the branch current through each resistor (0% chose this) • It decreases as more parallel resistors are added to the circuit (0% chose this) • It is the sum of each resistor's voltage drop multiplied by the total number of resistors (0% chose this) • It equals the sum of the branch current through each resistor (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Three resistors, respectively rated at 10, 15 and 20 ohms are connected in parallel across a 6-volt battery. Which statement is true? • The voltage drop across each resistance added together equals 6 volts (0% chose this) • The voltage drop across the 20 ohm resistance is greater than the voltage across the 10 ohm resistance (0% chose this) • The current through the 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 20 ohms separate resistances, when added together, equals the total current drawn from the battery (0% chose this) • The current flowing through the 10 ohm resistance is less than that flowing through the 20 ohm resistance (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Total resistance in a parallel circuit: • depends upon the voltage drop across each branch (0% chose this) • could be equal to the resistance of one branch (0% chose this) • depends upon the applied voltage (0% chose this) • is always less than the smallest resistance (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Two resistors are connected in parallel and are connected across a 40 volt battery. If each resistor is 1000 ohms, the total current is: • 40 milliamperes (0% chose this) • 80 amperes (0% chose this) • 40 amperes (0% chose this) • 80 milliamperes (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The total resistance of resistors connected in series is: • equal to the lowest resistance present (0% chose this) • greater than the resistance of any one resistor (0% chose this) • less than the resistance of any one resistor (0% chose this) • equal to the highest resistance present (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Five 10 ohm resistors connected in series equals: • 5 ohms (0% chose this) • 10 ohms (0% chose this) • 1 ohm (0% chose this) • 50 ohms (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which series combination of resistors would replace a single 120 ohm resistor? • Six 22 ohm (0% chose this) • Two 62 ohm (0% chose this) • Five 100 ohm (0% chose this) • Five 24 ohm (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If ten resistors of equal value were wired in parallel, the total resistance would be: • 10 + R (0% chose this) • R / 10 (0% chose this) • 10 / R (0% chose this) • 10 x R (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The total resistance of four 68 ohm resistors wired in parallel is: • 17 ohms (0% chose this) • 12 ohms (0% chose this) • 34 ohms (0% chose this) • 272 ohms (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Two resistors are in parallel. Resistor A carries twice the current of resistor B, which means that: • the voltage across A is twice that across B (0% chose this) • B has half the resistance of A (0% chose this) • A has half the resistance of B (0% chose this) • the voltage across B is twice that across A (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The total current in a parallel circuit is equal to the: • source voltage divided by the sum of the resistive elements (0% chose this) • current in any one of the parallel branches (0% chose this) • sum of the currents through all the parallel branches (0% chose this) • source voltage divided by the value of one of the resistive elements (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Why would a large size resistor be used instead of a smaller one of the same resistance? • For a higher current gain (0% chose this) • For less impedance in the circuit (0% chose this) • For greater power dissipation (0% chose this) • For better response time (0% chose this) Register to add explanation How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 volt DC light bulb that draws 0.2 ampere? • 60 watts (0% chose this) • 24 watts (0% chose this) • 6 watts (0% chose this) • 2.4 watts (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The DC input power of a transmitter operating at 12 volts and drawing 500 milliamperes would be: • 12 watts (0% chose this) • 6 watts (0% chose this) • 20 watts (0% chose this) • 500 watts (0% chose this) Register to add explanation When two 500 ohm 1 watt resistors are connected in series, the maximum total power that can be dissipated by the resistors is: • 1 watt (0% chose this) • 1/2 watt (0% chose this) • 4 watts (0% chose this) • 2 watts (0% chose this) Register to add explanation When two 500 ohm 1 watt resistors are connected in parallel, they can dissipate a maximum total power of: • 1 watt (0% chose this) • 4 watts (0% chose this) • 2 watts (0% chose this) • 1/2 watt (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If the voltage applied to two resistors in series is doubled, how much will the total power change? • Increase four times (0% chose this) • Decrease to half (0% chose this) • Double (0% chose this) • No change (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which combination of resistors could make up a 50 ohms dummy load capable of safely dissipating 5 watts? • Four 2-watt 200 ohms resistors in parallel (0% chose this) • Two 5-watt 100 ohms resistors in series (0% chose this) • Two 2-watt 25 ohms resistors in series (0% chose this) • Ten quarter-watt 500 ohms resistors in parallel (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A 12 volt light bulb is rated at a power of 30 watts. The current drawn would be: • 12/30 amperes (0% chose this) • 30/12 amperes (0% chose this) • 18 amperes (0% chose this) • 360 amperes (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If two 10 ohm resistors are connected in series with a 10 volt battery, the power consumption would be: • 100 watts (0% chose this) • 5 watts (0% chose this) • 10 watts (0% chose this) • 20 watts (0% chose this) Register to add explanation One advantage of replacing a 50 ohm resistor with a parallel combination of two similarly rated 100 ohm resistors is that the parallel combination will have: • lesser resistance and similar power rating (0% chose this) • the same resistance but greater power rating (0% chose this) • the same resistance but lesser power rating (0% chose this) • greater resistance and similar power rating (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Resistor wattage ratings are: • variable in steps of one hundred (0% chose this) • determined by heat dissipation qualities (0% chose this) • calculated according to physical size and tolerance rating (0% chose this) • expressed in joules (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If a dial marked in megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz, what would it show if it were marked in kilohertz? • 3 525 000 kHz (0% chose this) • 0.003525 kHz (0% chose this) • 3525 kHz (0% chose this) • 35.25 kHz (0% chose this) Register to add explanation One megahertz is equal to: • 1 000 kHz (0% chose this) • 100 kHz (0% chose this) • 0.001 Hz (0% chose this) • 10 Hz (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Electrical energy at a frequency of 7125 kHz is in what frequency range? • Hyper (0% chose this) • Super-high (0% chose this) • Radio (0% chose this) • Audio (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What is the name for the distance an AC signal travels during one complete cycle? • Wave spread (0% chose this) • Wavelength (0% chose this) • Wave speed (0% chose this) • Waveform (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What happens to a signal's wavelength as its frequency increases? • It disappears (0% chose this) • It gets shorter (0% chose this) • It gets longer (0% chose this) • It stays the same (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What happens to a signal's frequency as its wavelength gets longer? • It disappears (0% chose this) • It stays the same (0% chose this) • It goes up (0% chose this) • It goes down (0% chose this) Register to add explanation How many microfarads is 1 000 000 picofarads? • 1000 microfarads (0% chose this) • 0.001 microfarad (0% chose this) • 1 microfarad (0% chose this) • 1 000 000 000 microfarads (0% chose this) Register to add explanation An inductance of 10 000 microhenrys may be stated correctly as: • 10 millihenrys (0% chose this) • 100 millihenrys (0% chose this) • 10 henrys (0% chose this) • 1 000 henrys (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If two equal-value inductors are connected in series, what is their total inductance? • Half the value of one inductor (0% chose this) • The same as the value of either inductor (0% chose this) • The value of one inductor times the value of the other (0% chose this) • Twice the value of one inductor (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If two equal-value inductors are connected in parallel, what is their total inductance? • The value of one inductor times the value of the other (0% chose this) • Half the value of one inductor (0% chose this) • Twice the value of one inductor (0% chose this) • The same as the value of either inductor (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If two equal-value capacitors are connected in series, what is their total capacitance? • Twice the value of one capacitor (0% chose this) • The same as the value of either capacitor (0% chose this) • The value of one capacitor times the value of the other (0% chose this) • Half the value of either capacitor (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is their total capacitance? • The value of one capacitor times the value of the other (0% chose this) • Half the value of one capacitor (0% chose this) • Twice the value of one capacitor (0% chose this) • The same as the value of either capacitor (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What determines the inductance of a coil? • The coil diameter, the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil and the type of metal used for the wire (0% chose this) • The core material, the coil diameter, the length of the coil and whether the coil is mounted horizontally or vertically (0% chose this) • The core material, the coil diameter, the length of the coil and the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil (0% chose this) • The core material, the number of turns used to wind the coil and the frequency of the current through the coil (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What determines the capacitance of a capacitor? • The material between the plates, the area of one plate, the number of plates and the material used for the protective coating (0% chose this) • The material between the plates, the surface area of the plates, the number of plates and the spacing between the plates (0% chose this) • The material between the plates, the number of plates and the size of the wires connected to the plates (0% chose this) • The number of plates, the spacing between the plates and whether the dielectric material is N type or P type (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is their capacitance? • The value of one capacitor times the value of the other (0% chose this) • Half the value of either capacitor (0% chose this) • Twice the value of either capacitor (0% chose this) • The same value of either capacitor (0% chose this) Register to add explanation To replace a faulty 10 millihenry choke, you could use two: • 5 millihenry chokes in series (0% chose this) • 20 millihenry chokes in series (0% chose this) • 30 millihenry chokes in parallel (0% chose this) • 5 millihenry chokes in parallel (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Three 15 microfarad capacitors are wired in series. The total capacitance of this arrangement is: • 12 microfarads (0% chose this) • 18 microfarads (0% chose this) • 5 microfarads (0% chose this) • 45 microfarads (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which series combinations of capacitors would best replace a faulty 10 microfarad capacitor? • Two 10 microfarad capacitors (0% chose this) • Twenty 2 microfarad capacitors (0% chose this) • Ten 2 microfarad capacitors (0% chose this) • Two 20 microfarad capacitors (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The total capacitance of two or more capacitors in series is: • always greater than the largest capacitor (0% chose this) • always less than the smallest capacitor (0% chose this) • found by adding each of the capacitors together and dividing by the total number of capacitors (0% chose this) • found by adding each of the capacitors together (0% chose this) Register to add explanation How does a coil react to AC? • As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this) • As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this) • As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this) • As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this) Register to add explanation How does a capacitor react to AC? • As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this) • As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this) • As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this) • As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The reactance of capacitors increases as: • frequency decreases (0% chose this) • applied voltage increases (0% chose this) • applied voltage decreases (0% chose this) • frequency increases (0% chose this) Register to add explanation In inductances, AC may be opposed by both resistance of winding wire and reactance due to inductive effect. The term which includes resistance and reactance is: • inductance (0% chose this) • capacitance (0% chose this) • impedance (0% chose this) • resonance (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Capacitive reactance: • applies only to series RLC circuits (0% chose this) • increases as frequency increases (0% chose this) • increases with the time constant (0% chose this) • decreases as frequency increases (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Inductive reactance may be increased by: • an increase in the applied voltage (0% chose this) • an increase in the applied frequency (0% chose this) • a decrease in the applied frequency (0% chose this) • a decrease in the supplied current (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What property allows a coil wound on a ferrite core to mitigate the effects of an offending radio signal? • Low reactance at audio frequencies (0% chose this) • High reactance at audio frequencies (0% chose this) • High reactance at radio frequencies (0% chose this) • Low reactance at radio frequencies (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What property allows an RF bypass capacitor on an audio circuit to divert an offending radio signal? • High reactance at audio frequencies (0% chose this) • Low reactance at radio frequencies (0% chose this) • High reactance at radio frequencies (0% chose this) • Low reactance at audio frequencies (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What property allows an RF bypass capacitor to have little effect on an audio circuit? • High reactance at high frequencies (0% chose this) • Low reactance at low frequencies (0% chose this) • High reactance at low frequencies (0% chose this) • Low reactance at high frequencies (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What property allows an RF choke coil to have little effect on signals meant to flow through the coil? • Low reactance at high frequencies (0% chose this) • High reactance at high frequencies (0% chose this) • Low reactance at low frequencies (0% chose this) • High reactance at low frequencies (0% chose this) Register to add explanation In general, the reactance of inductors increases with: • decreasing applied voltage (0% chose this) • increasing applied voltage (0% chose this) • increasing AC frequency (0% chose this) • decreasing AC frequency (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If no load is attached to the secondary winding of a transformer, what is current in the primary winding called? • Direct current (0% chose this) • Latent current (0% chose this) • Stabilizing current (0% chose this) • Magnetizing current (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A transformer operates a 6.3 volt 2 ampere light bulb from its secondary winding. The input power to the primary winding is approximately: • 3 watts (0% chose this) • 13 watts (0% chose this) • 6 watts (0% chose this) • 8 watts (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A transformer has a 240 volt primary that draws a current of 250 milliamperes from the mains supply. Assuming no losses and only one secondary, what current would be available from the 12 volt secondary? • 5 amperes (0% chose this) • 215 amperes (0% chose this) • 25 amperes (0% chose this) • 50 amperes (0% chose this) Register to add explanation In a mains power transformer, the primary winding has 250 turns, and the secondary has 500. If the input voltage is 120 volts, the likely secondary voltage is: • 26 V (0% chose this) • 240 V (0% chose this) • 480 V (0% chose this) • 610 V (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The strength of the magnetic field around a conductor in air is: • inversely proportional to the voltage on the conductor (0% chose this) • directly proportional to the current in the conductor (0% chose this) • inversely proportional to the diameter of the conductor (0% chose this) • directly proportional to the diameter of the conductor (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Maximum induced voltage in a coil occurs when: • current is going through its greatest rate of change (0% chose this) • the current through the coil is of a DC nature (0% chose this) • current is going through its least rate of change (0% chose this) • the magnetic field around the coil is not changing (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The voltage induced in a conductor moving in a magnetic field is at a maximum when the movement is: • made in a clockwise direction (0% chose this) • perpendicular to the lines of force (0% chose this) • made in a counter clockwise direction (0% chose this) • parallel to the lines of force (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A 100% efficient transformer has a turns ratio of 1/5. If the secondary current is 50 milliamperes, the primary current is: • 2 500 mA (0% chose this) • 0.01 A (0% chose this) • 0.25 mA (0% chose this) • 0.25 A (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The fact that energy transfer from primary to secondary windings in a power transformer is not perfect is indicated by: • large secondary currents (0% chose this) • high primary voltages (0% chose this) • warm iron laminations (0% chose this) • electrostatic shielding (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Resonance is the condition that exists when: • inductive reactance is the only opposition in the circuit (0% chose this) • the circuit contains no resistance (0% chose this) • resistance is equal to the reactance (0% chose this) • inductive reactance and capacitive reactance are equal (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Parallel tuned circuits offer: • an impedance equal to resistance of the circuit (0% chose this) • high impedance at resonance (0% chose this) • low impedance at resonance (0% chose this) • zero impedance at resonance (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Resonance is an electrical property used to describe: • the results of tuning a varicap (varactor) (0% chose this) • the frequency characteristic of a coil and capacitor circuit (0% chose this) • an inductor (0% chose this) • a set of parallel inductors (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A tuned circuit is formed from two basic components. These are: • inductors and capacitors (0% chose this) • resistors and transistors (0% chose this) • directors and reflectors (0% chose this) • diodes and transistors (0% chose this) Register to add explanation When a parallel coil-capacitor combination is supplied with AC of different frequencies, there will be one frequency where the impedance will be highest. This is the: • reactive frequency (0% chose this) • resonant frequency (0% chose this) • impedance frequency (0% chose this) • inductive frequency (0% chose this) Register to add explanation In a parallel-resonant circuit at resonance, the circuit has a: • high impedance (0% chose this) • low impedance (0% chose this) • low mutual inductance (0% chose this) • high mutual inductance (0% chose this) Register to add explanation In a series resonant circuit at resonance, the circuit has: • high mutual inductance (0% chose this) • low impedance (0% chose this) • high impedance (0% chose this) • low mutual inductance (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A coil and an air-spaced capacitor are arranged to form a resonant circuit. The resonant frequency will remain the same if we: • wind more turns on the coil (0% chose this) • add a resistor to the circuit (0% chose this) • increase the area of plates in the capacitor (0% chose this) • insert Mylar sheets between the plates of the capacitor (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Resonant circuits in a receiver are used to: • select signal frequencies (0% chose this) • filter direct current (0% chose this) • increase power (0% chose this) • adjust voltage levels (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Resonance is the condition that exists when: • resistance is equal to the reactance (0% chose this) • inductive reactance and capacitive reactance are equal and opposite in sign (0% chose this) • inductive reactance is the only opposition in the circuit (0% chose this) • the circuit contains no resistance (0% chose this) Register to add explanation When a series LCR circuit is tuned to the frequency of the source, the: • line current leads the applied voltage (0% chose this) • impedance is maximum (0% chose this) • line current reaches maximum (0% chose this) • line current lags the applied voltage (0% chose this) Register to add explanation When will a power source deliver maximum output to the load? • When the load resistance is infinite (0% chose this) • When the impedance of the load is equal to the impedance of the source (0% chose this) • When air wound transformers are used instead of iron-core transformers (0% chose this) • When the power-supply fuse rating equals the primary winding current (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the internal impedance of the power source? • The source delivers minimum power to the load (0% chose this) • The source delivers maximum power to the load (0% chose this) • The electrical load is shorted (0% chose this) • No current can flow through the circuit (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Why is impedance matching important? • So the source can deliver maximum power to the load (0% chose this) • So the load will draw minimum power from the source (0% chose this) • To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit (0% chose this) • To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal (0% chose this) Register to add explanation An amateur radio station with a maximum input power to the final stage of 2 watts: • is exempt from regulatory control by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this) • must be operated by a person with an Amateur Certificate and call sign (0% chose this) • must be licensed by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this) • need not be licensed in isolated areas only (0% chose this) Register to add explanation An amateur station may be used to communicate with: • any station transmitting in the amateur bands (0% chose this) • stations operated under similar authorizations (0% chose this) • any stations which are identified for special contests (0% chose this) • armed forces stations during special contests and training exercises (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which of the following statements is not correct? • A radio amateur may not operate, or permit to be operated, a radio apparatus which he knows is not performing to the Radiocommunication Regulations (0% chose this) • A radio amateur may use a linear amplifier to amplify the output of a licence-exempt transmitter outside any amateur radio allocations (0% chose this) • A considerate operator does not transmit unnecessary signals (0% chose this) • A courteous operator refrains from using offensive language (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which of the following statements is not correct? • An amateur radio operator transmitting unnecessary or offensive signals does not violate accepted practice (0% chose this) • Except for a certified radio amateur operating within authorized amateur radio allocations, no person shall possess or operate any device for the purpose of amplifying the output power of a licence-exempt radio apparatus (0% chose this) • A person may operate or permit the operation of radio apparatus only where the apparatus is maintained to the Radiocommunication Regulations tolerances (0% chose this) • A person may operate an amateur radio station when the person complies with the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which of the following statements is not correct? A person may operate radio apparatus, authorized in the amateur service: • except for the amplification of the output power of licence-exempt radio apparatus operating outside authorized amateur radio service allocations (0% chose this) • on aeronautical, marine or land mobile frequencies (0% chose this) • only where the person complies with the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service (0% chose this) • only where the apparatus is maintained within the performance standards set by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada regulations and policies (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Some VHF and UHF FM radios purchased for use in the amateur service can also be programmed to communicate on frequencies used for the land mobile service. Under what conditions is this permissible? • The equipment has a RF power output of 2 watts or less (0% chose this) • The equipment is used in remote areas north of 60 degrees latitude (0% chose this) • The radio is certified under the proper Radio Standard Specification for use in Canada and licensed by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada on the specified frequencies (0% chose this) • The radio operator has a Restricted Operator's Certificate (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which of the following cannot be discussed on an amateur club net? • Recreation planning (0% chose this) • Code practice planning (0% chose this) • Emergency planning (0% chose this) • Business planning (0% chose this) Register to add explanation When is a radio amateur allowed to broadcast information to the general public? • Only when broadcasts last less than 1 hour (0% chose this) • Only when broadcasts last longer than 15 minutes (0% chose this) • Never (0% chose this) • Only when the operator is being paid (0% chose this) Register to add explanation When may false or deceptive amateur signals or communications be transmitted? • When you need to hide the meaning of a message for secrecy (0% chose this) • Never (0% chose this) • When operating a beacon transmitter in a "fox hunt" exercise (0% chose this) • When playing a harmless "practical joke" (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which of the following one-way communications may not be transmitted in the amateur service? • Morse code practice (0% chose this) • Broadcasts intended for the general public (0% chose this) • Radio control commands to model craft (0% chose this) • Brief transmissions to make adjustments to the station (0% chose this) Register to add explanation You wish to develop and use a new digital encoding technique to transmit data over amateur radio spectrum. Under what conditions is this permissible? • When it is used for commercial traffic (0% chose this) • When it includes sending the amateur station's call sign (0% chose this) • When the encoding technique is published in the public domain (0% chose this) • When it is used for music streaming content (0% chose this) Register to add explanation When may an amateur station in two-way communication transmit an encoded message? • During contests (0% chose this) • When transmitting above 450 MHz (0% chose this) • Only when the encoding or cipher is not secret (0% chose this) • During a declared communications emergency (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service? • They are not permitted because they obscure the meaning of a message to government monitoring stations (0% chose this) • Only "10 codes" are permitted (0% chose this) • They may be used if the signals or codes are not secret (0% chose this) • There are no restrictions (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What should you do to keep you station from retransmitting music or signals from a non-amateur station? • Adjust your transceiver noise blanker (0% chose this) • Turn down the volume of background audio (0% chose this) • Turn up the volume of your transmitter (0% chose this) • Speak closer to the microphone to increase your signal strength (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The transmission of a secret code by the operator of an amateur station: • is permitted for contests (0% chose this) • must be approved by Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this) • is permitted for third-party traffic (0% chose this) • is not permitted (0% chose this) Register to add explanation A radio amateur may be engaged in communication which include the transmission of: • radiocommunication in support of industrial, business, or professional activities (0% chose this) • commercially recorded material (0% chose this) • Q signals (0% chose this) • programming that originates from a broadcasting undertaking (0% chose this) Register to add explanation In the amateur radio service, business communications: • are only permitted if they are for the safety of life or immediate protection of property (0% chose this) • are not prohibited by regulation (0% chose this) • are not permitted under any circumstance (0% chose this) • are permitted on some bands (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Where may the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate operate an amateur radio station in Canada? • Anywhere in Canada (0% chose this) • Anywhere in Canada during times of emergency (0% chose this) • Only at the address shown on Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada records (0% chose this) • Anywhere in your call sign prefix area (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which type of station may transmit one-way communications? • HF station (0% chose this) • VHF station (0% chose this) • Beacon station (0% chose this) • Repeater station (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Amateur radio operators may install or operate radio apparatus: • at the address which is on record at Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada and at one other location (0% chose this) • at the address which is on record at Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada and in two mobiles (0% chose this) • at any location in Canada (0% chose this) • only at the address which is on record at Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this) Register to add explanation In order to install any radio apparatus, to be used specifically for receiving and automatically retransmitting radiotelephone communications within the same frequency band, a radio amateur must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate, with a minimum of: • Basic and Morse code qualifications (0% chose this) • Basic qualification (0% chose this) • Basic with Honours qualification (0% chose this) • Basic and Advanced qualifications (0% chose this) Register to add explanation In order to install any radio apparatus, to be used specifically for an amateur radio club station, the radio amateur must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate, with a minimum of the following qualifications: • Basic with Honours (0% chose this) • Basic and Advanced (0% chose this) • Basic, Advanced and Morse code (0% chose this) • Basic (0% chose this) Register to add explanation In order to install or operate a transmitter or RF amplifier that is neither professionally designed nor commercially manufactured for use in the amateur service, a radio amateur must hold an Amateur Operator's Certificate, with a minimum of which qualifications? • Basic and Advanced (0% chose this) • Basic with Honours (0% chose this) • Basic and Morse code (0% chose this) • Basic, Advanced and Morse code (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Who is responsible for the proper operation of an amateur station? • The person who owns the station equipment (0% chose this) • Only the control operator (0% chose this) • Both the control operator and the station owner (0% chose this) • Only the station owner who is the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If you transmit from another amateur's station, who is responsible for its proper operation? • You (0% chose this) • The station owner, unless the station records show that you were the control operator at the time (0% chose this) • The station owner (0% chose this) • Both of you (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What is your responsibility as a station owner? • You are responsible for the proper operation of the station in accordance with the regulations (0% chose this) • You must allow another amateur to operate your station upon request (0% chose this) • You must be present whenever the station is operated (0% chose this) • You must notify Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada if another amateur acts as the control operator (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Who may be the control operator of an amateur station? • Any qualified amateur chosen by the station owner (0% chose this) • Any person over 21 years of age with a Basic Qualification (0% chose this) • Any person over 21 years of age with Basic and Morse code qualifications (0% chose this) • Any person over 21 years of age (0% chose this) Register to add explanation When must an amateur station have a control operator? • A control operator is not needed (0% chose this) • Whenever the station receiver is operated (0% chose this) • Only when training another amateur (0% chose this) • Whenever the station is transmitting (0% chose this) Register to add explanation When an amateur station is transmitting, where must its control operator be? • Anywhere within 50 km of the station location (0% chose this) • At the station's control point (0% chose this) • Anywhere in the same building as the transmitter (0% chose this) • At the station's entrance, to control entry to the room (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Why can't family members without qualifications transmit using your amateur station if they are alone with your equipment? • They must first know how to use the right abbreviations and Q signals (0% chose this) • They must first know the right frequencies and emission modes for transmitting (0% chose this) • They must hold suitable amateur radio qualifications before they are allowed to be control operators (0% chose this) • They must not use your equipment without your permission (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The owner of an amateur station may: • permit any person to operate the station under the supervision and in the presence of the holder of the amateur operator certificate (0% chose this) • permit anyone to take part in communications only if prior written permission is received from Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (0% chose this) • permit anyone to use the station without restrictions (0% chose this) • permit anyone to use the station and take part in communications (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which of the following statements is correct? • Any person may operate an amateur station under supervision, and in the presence of, a person holding appropriate qualifications (0% chose this) • A person, holding only Basic Qualification, may operate another station on 14.2 MHz (0% chose this) • Radio amateurs may permit any person to operate the station without supervision (0% chose this) • Any person may operate a station in the amateur radio service (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What is a transmission called that disturbs other communications? • Harmful interference (0% chose this) • Interrupted CW (0% chose this) • Transponder signals (0% chose this) • Unidentified transmissions (0% chose this) Register to add explanation When may you deliberately interfere with another station's communications? • Never (0% chose this) • Only if the station is operating illegally (0% chose this) • Only if the station begins transmitting on a frequency you are using (0% chose this) • You may expect, and cause, deliberate interference because it can't be helped during crowded band conditions (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If the regulations say that the amateur service is a secondary user of a frequency band, and another service is a primary user, what does this mean? • Amateurs must increase transmitter power to overcome any interference caused by primary users (0% chose this) • Amateurs are allowed to use the frequency band only if they do not cause interference to primary users (0% chose this) • Nothing special: all users of a frequency band have equal rights to operate (0% chose this) • Amateurs are only allowed to use the frequency band during emergencies (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What rule applies if two amateurs want to use the same frequency? • Station operators in ITU Regions 1 and 3 must yield the frequency to stations in ITU Region 2 (0% chose this) • Both station operators have an equal right to operate on the frequency (0% chose this) • The station operator with a lesser qualification must yield the frequency to an operator of higher qualification (0% chose this) • The station operator with a lower power output must yield the frequency to the station with a higher power output (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What name is given to a form of interference that seriously degrades, obstructs or repeatedly interrupts a radiocommunication service? • Intentional interference (0% chose this) • Adjacent interference (0% chose this) • Disruptive interference (0% chose this) • Harmful interference (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Where interference to the reception of radiocommunications is caused by the operation of an amateur station: • the Minister may require that the necessary steps for the prevention of the interference be taken by the radio amateur (0% chose this) • the amateur station operator is not obligated to take any action (0% chose this) • the amateur station operator may continue to operate without restrictions (0% chose this) • the amateur station operator may continue to operate and the necessary steps can be taken when the amateur operator can afford it (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Radio amateur operation must not cause interference to other radio services operating in which of the following bands? • 7.0 to 7.1 MHz (0% chose this) • 144.0 to 148.0 MHz (0% chose this) • 14.0 to 14.2 MHz (0% chose this) • 430.0 to 450.0 MHz (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Radio amateur operations are not ARE NOT protected from interference caused by another service operating in which of the following frequency bands? • 144 to 148 MHz (0% chose this) • 222 to 225 MHz (0% chose this) • 50 to 54 MHz (0% chose this) • 902 to 928 MHz (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which of the following is not correct? The operator of an amateur station: • shall not cause harmful interference to a station in another service which has primary use of that band (0% chose this) • may conduct technical experiments using the station apparatus (0% chose this) • may make trials or tests, except if there is a possibility of interference to other stations (0% chose this) • may make trials or tests, even though there is a possibility of interfering with other stations (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Which of these amateur bands may be heavily occupied by licence exempt devices? • 3.5 to 4.0 MHz (0% chose this) • 430 to 450 MHz (0% chose this) • 135.7 to 137.8 kHz (0% chose this) • 902 to 928 MHz (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The amateur radio service is authorized to share a portion of what Industrial Scientific Medical (ISM) band that is heavily used by licence exempt devices? • 2300 to 2450 MHz (0% chose this) • 430 to 450 MHz (0% chose this) • 144 to 148 MHz (0% chose this) • 1240 to 1300 MHz (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Amateur radio stations may communicate: • with any station involved in a real or simulated emergency (0% chose this) • only with other amateur stations (0% chose this) • with anyone who uses international Morse code (0% chose this) • with non amateur stations (0% chose this) Register to add explanation During relief operations in the days following a disaster, when may an amateur use his equipment to communicate on frequencies outside amateur bands? • Never (0% chose this) • When relaying messages on behalf of government agencies (0% chose this) • When messages are destined to agencies without amateur radio support (0% chose this) • When normal communication systems are overloaded, damaged or disrupted (0% chose this) Register to add explanation If you hear an unanswered distress signal on an amateur band where you do not have privileges to communicate: • you may offer assistance after contacting Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada for permission to do so (0% chose this) • you may not offer assistance (0% chose this) • you should offer assistance (0% chose this) • you may offer assistance using international Morse code only (0% chose this) Register to add explanation In the amateur radio service, it is permissible to broadcast: • programming that originates from a broadcast undertaking (0% chose this) • radio communications required for the immediate safety of life of individuals or the immediate protection of property (0% chose this) • music (0% chose this) • commercially recorded material (0% chose this) Register to add explanation An amateur radio station in distress may: • only use radiocommunication bands for which the operator is qualified to use (0% chose this) • use any means of radiocommunication, but only on internationally recognized emergency channels (0% chose this) • only Morse code communications on internationally recognized emergency channels (0% chose this) • any means of radiocommunication (0% chose this) Register to add explanation During a disaster, when may an amateur station make transmissions necessary to meet essential communication needs and assist relief operations? • Never: only official emergency stations may transmit in a disaster (0% chose this) • When normal communication systems are working but are not convenient (0% chose this) • Only when the local emergency net is activated (0% chose this) • When normal communication systems are overloaded, damaged or disrupted (0% chose this) Register to add explanation During an emergency, what power output limitations must be observed by a station in distress? • 200 watts PEP (0% chose this) • There are no limitations for a station in distress (0% chose this) • 1000 watts PEP during daylight hours, reduced to 200 watts PEP during the night (0% chose this) • 1500 watts PEP (0% chose this) Register to add explanation During a disaster: • use any United Nations approved frequency (0% chose this) • most communications are handled by nets using predetermined frequencies in amateur bands. Operators not directly involved with disaster communications are requested to avoid making unnecessary transmissions on or near frequencies being used for disaster communications (0% chose this) • use only frequencies in the 80 metre band (0% chose this) • use only frequencies in the 40 metre band (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Messages from recognized public service agencies may be handled by amateur radio stations: • during peace time and civil emergencies and exercises (0% chose this) • using Morse code only (0% chose this) • when Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada has issued a special authorization (0% chose this) • only on the 7 and 14 MHz bands (0% chose this) Register to add explanation It is permissible to interfere with the working of another station if: • you both wish to contact the same station (0% chose this) • the other station is interfering with your transmission (0% chose this) • your station is directly involved with a distress situation (0% chose this) • the other station is not operating according to the Radiocommunication Regulations (0% chose this) Register to add explanation What kind of payment is allowed for third-party messages sent by an amateur station? • No payment of any kind is allowed (0% chose this) • Donation of amateur equipment (0% chose this) • Donation of equipment repairs (0% chose this) • Any amount agreed upon in advance (0% chose this) Register to add explanation Radiocommunications transmitted by stations other than a broadcasting station may be divulged or used: • during peacetime civil emergencies (0% chose this) • if it is transmitted by an amateur station (0% chose this) • if transmitted by any station using the international Morse code (0% chose this) • if transmitted in English or French (0% chose this) Register to add explanation The operator of an amateur station: • may accept a gift or gratuity in lieu of remuneration for any message that the person transmits or receives (0% chose this) • shall not demand or accept remuneration in any form, in respect of a radiocommunication that the person transmits or receives (0% chose this) • shall charge no less than$10 for each message that the person transmits or receives (0% chose this)
• shall charge no more than \$10 for each message that the person transmits or receives (0% chose this)
Which of the following is not an exception from the penalties under the Act, for divulging, intercepting or using information obtained through radiocommunication, other than broadcasting?
• Where it is for the purpose of preserving or protecting property, or for the prevention of harm to a person (0% chose this)
• Where it is for the purpose of giving evidence in a criminal or civil proceeding in which persons are required to give evidence (0% chose this)
• Where it is on behalf of Canada, for the purpose of international or national defence or security (0% chose this)
• Where it is to provide information for a journalist (0% chose this)
Which of the following call signs is a valid Canadian amateur radio call sign?
• SM2CAN (0% chose this)
• BY7HY (0% chose this)
• KA9OLS (0% chose this)
• VA3XYZ (0% chose this)
How often must an amateur station be identified?
• At the beginning and end of each transmission (0% chose this)
• At least every thirty minutes, and at the beginning and at the end of a contact (0% chose this)
• At the beginning of a contact and at least every thirty minutes after that (0% chose this)
• At least once during each transmission (0% chose this)
What do you transmit to identify your amateur station?
• Your full name (0% chose this)
• Your call sign (0% chose this)
• Your "handle" (0% chose this)
What identification, if any, is required when two amateur stations begin communications?
• Each station must transmit its own call sign (0% chose this)
• No identification is required (0% chose this)
• Both stations must transmit both call signs (0% chose this)
• One of the stations must give both stations' call signs (0% chose this)
What identification, if any, is required when two amateur stations end communications?
• Each station must transmit its own call sign (0% chose this)
• No identification is required (0% chose this)
• One of the stations must transmit both stations' call signs (0% chose this)
• Both stations must transmit both call signs (0% chose this)
What is the longest period of time an amateur station can transmit, without identifying by call sign?
• 10 minutes (0% chose this)
• 30 minutes (0% chose this)
• 20 minutes (0% chose this)
• 15 minutes (0% chose this)
When may an amateur transmit unidentified communications?
• Never, except to control a model craft (0% chose this)
• Only for brief tests not meant as messages (0% chose this)
• Only if it does not interfere with others (0% chose this)
• Only for two-way or third-party communications (0% chose this)
What language may you use when identifying your station?
• Any language being used for a contact (0% chose this)
• Any language being used for a contact, providing Canada has a third-party communications agreement with that country (0% chose this)
• Any language of a country which is a member of the International Telecommunication Union (0% chose this)
• English or French (0% chose this)
The call sign of an amateur station must be transmitted:
• at intervals not greater than three minutes when using voice communications (0% chose this)
• at intervals not greater than ten minutes when using Morse code (0% chose this)
• when requested to do so by the station being called (0% chose this)
• at the beginning and at the end of each exchange of communications and at intervals not greater than 30 minutes (0% chose this)
The call sign of an amateur station must be sent:
• once after initial contact (0% chose this)
• at the beginning and end of each exchange of communications, and at least every 30 minutes, while in communications (0% chose this)
• every minute (0% chose this)
• every 15 minutes (0% chose this)
• VA, VE, VO or VY (0% chose this)
• GA, GE, MO or VQ (0% chose this)
• A, K, N or W (0% chose this)
• EA, EI, RO or UY (0% chose this)
A two-times increase in power results in a change of how many dB?
• 1 dB higher (0% chose this)
• 3 dB higher (0% chose this)
• 6 dB higher (0% chose this)
• 12 dB higher (0% chose this)
How can you decrease your transmitter's power by 3 dB?
• Divide the original power by 4 (0% chose this)
• Divide the original power by 2 (0% chose this)
• Divide the original power by 1.5 (0% chose this)
• Divide the original power by 3 (0% chose this)
How can you increase your transmitter's power by 6 dB?
• Multiply the original power by 3 (0% chose this)
• Multiply the original power by 2 (0% chose this)
• Multiply the original power by 1.5 (0% chose this)
• Multiply the original power by 4 (0% chose this)
If a signal-strength report is "10 dB over S9", what should the report be if the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to 150 watts?
• S9 plus 3 dB (0% chose this)
• S9 minus 10 dB (0% chose this)
• S9 plus 5 dB (0% chose this)
• S9 (0% chose this)
If a signal-strength report is "20 dB over S9", what should the report be if the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to 150 watts?
• S9 (0% chose this)
• S9 plus 10 dB (0% chose this)
• S9 plus 5 dB (0% chose this)
• S9 plus 3 dB (0% chose this)
The unit "decibel" is used to indicate:
• certain radio waves (0% chose this)
• a single side band signal (0% chose this)
• a mathematical ratio (0% chose this)
• an oscilloscope wave form (0% chose this)
The power output from a transmitter increases from 1 watt to 2 watts. This is a dB increase of:
• 3 (0% chose this)
• 30 (0% chose this)
• 6 (0% chose this)
• 1 (0% chose this)
The power of a transmitter is increased from 5 watts to 50 watts by a linear amplifier. The power gain, expressed in dB, is:
• 10 dB (0% chose this)
• 30 dB (0% chose this)
• 40 dB (0% chose this)
• 20 dB (0% chose this)
You add a 9 dB gain amplifier to your 2 watt handheld. What is the power output of the combination?
• 20 watts (0% chose this)
• 18 watts (0% chose this)
• 16 watts (0% chose this)
• 11 watts (0% chose this)
The power of a transmitter is increased from 2 watts to 8 watts. This is a power gain of __________ dB.
• 8 dB (0% chose this)
• 9 dB (0% chose this)
• 6 dB (0% chose this)
• 3 dB (0% chose this)
A local amateur reports your 100W 2M simplex VHF transmission as 30 dB over S9. To reduce your signal to S9, you would reduce your power to ______ watts.
• 33.3 W (0% chose this)
• 100 mW (0% chose this)
• 1 W (0% chose this)
• 10 W (0% chose this)
• A ground wire (0% chose this)
• A dummy load (0% chose this)
• A transmission line (0% chose this)
• The power cord (0% chose this)
The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is determined by the:
• length of the line (0% chose this)
• frequency at which the line is operated (0% chose this)
• load placed on the line (0% chose this)
• physical dimensions and relative positions of the conductors (0% chose this)
The characteristic impedance of a 20 metre piece of transmission line is 52 ohms. If 10 metres were cut off, the impedance would be:
• 13 ohms (0% chose this)
• 52 ohms (0% chose this)
• 26 ohms (0% chose this)
• 39 ohms (0% chose this)
The characteristic impedance of a coaxial line:
• can be the same for different diameter line (0% chose this)
• changes significantly with the frequency of the energy it carries (0% chose this)
• is correct for only one size of line (0% chose this)
• is greater for larger diameter line (0% chose this)
What commonly available antenna transmission line can be buried directly in the ground for some distance without adverse effects?
• 600 ohm open wire line (0% chose this)
• 75 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
• Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
• 300 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is:
• the dynamic impedance of the line at the operating frequency (0% chose this)
• the ratio of the power supplied to the line to the power delivered to the load (0% chose this)
• equal to the pure resistance which, if connected to the end of the line, will absorb all the power arriving along it (0% chose this)
• the impedance of a section of the line one wavelength long (0% chose this)
A transmission line differs from an ordinary circuit or network in communications or signalling devices in one very important way. That important aspect is:
• inductive reactance (0% chose this)
• resistance (0% chose this)
• propagation delay (0% chose this)
• capacitive reactance (0% chose this)
The characteristic impedance of a parallel wire transmission line does not depend on the:
• centre to centre distance between conductors (0% chose this)
• dielectric (0% chose this)
• velocity of energy on the line (0% chose this)
• radius of the conductors (0% chose this)
If the impedance terminating a transmission line differs significantly from the characteristic impedance of the line, what will be observed at the input of the line?
• An impedance nearly equal to the characteristic impedance (0% chose this)
• Some value of impedance influenced by line length (0% chose this)
• An infinite impedance (0% chose this)
• A negative impedance (0% chose this)
What factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel-conductor antenna transmission line?
• The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal (0% chose this)
• The frequency of the signal and the length of the line (0% chose this)
• The distance between the centres of the conductors and the radius of the conductors (0% chose this)
• The distance between the centres of the conductors and the length of the line (0% chose this)
What factors determine the characteristic impedance of a coaxial antenna transmission line?
• The diameter of the shield and the length of the line (0% chose this)
• The diameter of the shield and the frequency of the signal (0% chose this)
• The frequency of the signal and the length of the line (0% chose this)
• The ratio of the diameter of the inner conductor to the diameter of the outer shield (0% chose this)
What is a coaxial cable?
• Two wires twisted around each other in a spiral (0% chose this)
• A center wire inside an insulating material which is covered by a metal sleeve or shield (0% chose this)
• Two wires side-by-side in a plastic ribbon (0% chose this)
• Two wires side-by-side held apart by insulating rods (0% chose this)
What is parallel-conductor transmission line?
• Two wires twisted around each other in a spiral (0% chose this)
• A center wire inside an insulating material which is covered by a metal sleeve or shield (0% chose this)
• A metal pipe which is as wide or slightly wider than a wavelength of the signal it carries (0% chose this)
• Two wires side-by-side held apart by insulating material (0% chose this)
What kind of antenna transmission line is made of two conductors held apart by insulated rods?
• Twisted pair (0% chose this)
• Open wire line (0% chose this)
• Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
• Twin lead in a plastic ribbon (0% chose this)
What does the term "balun" mean?
• Balanced antenna network (0% chose this)
• Balanced to unbalanced (0% chose this)
• Balanced unloader (0% chose this)
• Balanced unmodulator (0% chose this)
Where would you install a balun to feed a dipole antenna with 50-ohm coaxial cable?
• Between the antenna and the ground (0% chose this)
• Between the coaxial cable and the ground (0% chose this)
• Between the coaxial cable and the antenna (0% chose this)
• Between the transmitter and the coaxial cable (0% chose this)
What is an unbalanced line?
• Transmission line with both conductors connected to each other (0% chose this)
• Transmission line with one conductor connected to ground (0% chose this)
• Transmission line with neither conductor connected to ground (0% chose this)
• Transmission line with both conductors connected to ground (0% chose this)
What device can be installed to feed a balanced antenna with an unbalanced transmission line?
• A triaxial transformer (0% chose this)
• A wave trap (0% chose this)
• A balun (0% chose this)
A flexible coaxial line contains:
• four or more conductors running parallel (0% chose this)
• only one conductor (0% chose this)
• two parallel conductors separated by spacers (0% chose this)
• braided shield conductor and insulation around a central conductor (0% chose this)
A balanced transmission line:
• carries RF current on one wire only (0% chose this)
• is made of one conductor only (0% chose this)
• is made of two parallel wires (0% chose this)
• has one conductor inside the other (0% chose this)
A 75 ohm transmission line could be matched to the 300 ohm feed point of an antenna:
• with an extra 250 ohm resistor (0% chose this)
• by using a 4 to 1 trigatron (0% chose this)
• by inserting a diode in one leg of the antenna (0% chose this)
• by using a 4 to 1 impedance transformer (0% chose this)
What kind of antenna transmission line can be constructed using two conductors which are maintained a uniform distance apart using insulated spreaders?
• 75 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
• 300 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
• 600 ohm open wire line (0% chose this)
• Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
Why does coaxial cable make a good antenna transmission line?
• It is weatherproof, and its impedance matches most amateur antennas (0% chose this)
• It is weatherproof, and its impedance is higher than that of most amateur antennas (0% chose this)
• It can be used near metal objects, and its impedance is higher than that of most amateur antennas (0% chose this)
• You can make it at home, and its impedance matches most amateur antennas (0% chose this)
What is the best antenna transmission line to use, if it must be put near grounded metal objects?
• Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
• Twisted pair (0% chose this)
• Twin lead (0% chose this)
What are some reasons not to use parallel-conductor transmission line?
• It does not work well when tied down to metal objects, and you should use a balun and may have to use an impedance-matching device with your transceiver (0% chose this)
• You must use an impedance-matching device with your transceiver, and it does not work very well with a high SWR (0% chose this)
• It does not work well when tied down to metal objects, and it cannot operate under high power (0% chose this)
• It is difficult to make at home, and it does not work very well with a high SWR (0% chose this)
What common connector type usually joins RG-213 coaxial cable to an HF transceiver?
• A banana plug connector (0% chose this)
• A binding post connector (0% chose this)
• A PL-259 connector (0% chose this)
• An F-type cable connector (0% chose this)
What common connector usually joins a hand-held transceiver to its antenna?
• A binding post connector (0% chose this)
• An SMA connector (0% chose this)
• A PL-259 connector (0% chose this)
• An F-type cable connector (0% chose this)
Which of these common connectors has the lowest loss at UHF?
• A type-N connector (0% chose this)
• An F-type cable connector (0% chose this)
• A BNC connector (0% chose this)
• A PL-259 connector (0% chose this)
If you install a 6 metre Yagi on a tower 60 metres (200 ft) from your transmitter, which of the following transmission lines provides the least loss?
• RG-59 (0% chose this)
• RG-58 (0% chose this)
• RG-213 (0% chose this)
• RG-174 (0% chose this)
Why should you regularly clean and tighten all antenna connectors?
• To increase their capacitance (0% chose this)
• To help keep their contact resistance at a minimum (0% chose this)
• To keep them looking nice (0% chose this)
• To keep them from getting stuck in place (0% chose this)
What commonly available antenna transmission line can be buried directly in the ground for some distance without adverse effects?
• 300 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
• Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
• 75 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
• 600 ohm open wire line (0% chose this)
When antenna transmission lines must be placed near grounded metal objects, which of the following transmission lines should be used?
• 600 ohm open wire line (0% chose this)
• 75 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
• Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
• 300 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
TV twin-lead transmission line can be used for a transmission line in an amateur station. The impedance of this line is approximately:
• 70 ohms (0% chose this)
• 300 ohms (0% chose this)
• 600 ohms (0% chose this)
• 50 ohms (0% chose this)
Why should you use only good quality coaxial cable and connectors for a UHF antenna system?
• To keep RF loss low (0% chose this)
• To keep television interference high (0% chose this)
• To keep the power going to your antenna system from getting too high (0% chose this)
• To keep the standing wave ratio of your antenna system high (0% chose this)
What are some reasons to use parallel-conductor transmission line?
• It has low impedance, and will operate with a high SWR (0% chose this)
• It will operate with a high SWR, and it works well when tied down to metal objects (0% chose this)
• It has a low impedance, and has less loss than coaxial cable (0% chose this)
• It will operate with a high SWR, and has less loss than coaxial cable (0% chose this)
If your transmitter and antenna are 15 metres (50 ft) apart, but are connected by 60 metres (200 ft) of RG-58 coaxial cable, what should be done to reduce transmission line loss?
• Roll the excess cable into a coil which is as small as possible (0% chose this)
• Shorten the excess cable so the transmission line is an even number of wavelengths long (0% chose this)
• Shorten the excess cable (0% chose this)
• Shorten the excess cable so the transmission line is an odd number of wavelengths long (0% chose this)
As the length of a transmission line is changed, what happens to signal loss?
• Signal loss is the same for any length of transmission line (0% chose this)
• Signal loss increases as length increases (0% chose this)
• Signal loss decreases as length increases (0% chose this)
• Signal loss is the least when the length is the same as the signal's wavelength (0% chose this)
As the frequency of a signal is changed, what happens to signal loss in a transmission line?
• Signal loss is the least when the signal's wavelength is the same as the transmission line's length (0% chose this)
• Signal loss is the same for any frequency (0% chose this)
• Signal loss increases with increasing frequency (0% chose this)
• Signal loss increases with decreasing frequency (0% chose this)
Losses occurring on a transmission line between transmitter and antenna results in:
• an SWR reading of 1:1 (0% chose this)
• reflections occurring in the line (0% chose this)
• the wire radiating RF energy (0% chose this)
• less RF power being radiated (0% chose this)
The lowest loss transmission line on HF is:
• open wire line (0% chose this)
• 75 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
• coaxial cable (0% chose this)
• 300 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
In what values are RF transmission line losses expressed?
• Ohms per metre (0% chose this)
• dB per unit length (0% chose this)
• Ohms per MHz (0% chose this)
• dB per MHz (0% chose this)
If the length of coaxial transmission line is increased from 20 metres (66 ft) to 40 metres (132 ft), how would this affect the line loss?
• It would be increased by 10% (0% chose this)
• It would be reduced to 50% (0% chose this)
• It would be increased by 100% (0% chose this)
• It would be reduced by 10% (0% chose this)
If the frequency is increased, how would this affect the loss on a transmission line?
• It is independent of frequency (0% chose this)
• It depends on the line length (0% chose this)
• It would decrease (0% chose this)
• It would increase (0% chose this)
What does an SWR reading of 1:1 mean?
• The best impedance match has been attained (0% chose this)
• An antenna for another frequency band is probably connected (0% chose this)
• No power is going to the antenna (0% chose this)
• The SWR meter is broken (0% chose this)
What does an SWR reading of less than 1.5:1 mean?
• An antenna gain of 1.5 (0% chose this)
• A fairly good impedance match (0% chose this)
• An impedance match which is too low (0% chose this)
• A serious impedance mismatch; something may be wrong with the antenna system (0% chose this)
What kind of SWR reading may mean poor electrical contact between parts of an antenna system?
• A very low reading (0% chose this)
• A jumpy reading (0% chose this)
• A negative reading (0% chose this)
• No reading at all (0% chose this)
What does a very high SWR reading mean?
• The antenna is the wrong length for the operating frequency, or the transmission line may be open or short circuited (0% chose this)
• The transmitter is putting out more power than normal, showing that it is about to go bad (0% chose this)
• There is a large amount of solar radiation, which means very poor radio conditions (0% chose this)
• The signals coming from the antenna are unusually strong, which means very good radio condition (0% chose this)
What does standing-wave ratio mean?
• The ratio of maximum to minimum inductances on a transmission line (0% chose this)
• The ratio of maximum to minimum resistances on a transmission line (0% chose this)
• The ratio of maximum to minimum impedances on a transmission line (0% chose this)
• The ratio of maximum to minimum voltages on a transmission line (0% chose this)
If your antenna transmission line gets hot when you are transmitting, what might this mean?
• You should transmit using less power (0% chose this)
• The conductors in the transmission line are not insulated very well (0% chose this)
• The transmission line is too long (0% chose this)
• The SWR may be too high, or the transmission line loss may be high (0% chose this)
If the characteristic impedance of the transmission line does not match the antenna input impedance then:
• the antenna will not radiate any signal (0% chose this)
• standing waves are produced in the transmission line (0% chose this)
• heat is produced at the junction (0% chose this)
• the SWR reading falls to 1:1 (0% chose this)
The result of the presence of standing waves on a transmission line is:
• lack of radiation from the transmission line (0% chose this)
• reduced transfer of RF energy to the antenna (0% chose this)
• perfect impedance match between transmitter and transmission line (0% chose this)
• maximum transfer of energy to the antenna from the transmitter (0% chose this)
An SWR meter measures the degree of match between transmission line and antenna by:
• comparing forward and reflected voltage (0% chose this)
• measuring radiated RF energy (0% chose this)
• measuring the conductor temperature (0% chose this)
• inserting a diode in the transmission line (0% chose this)
A resonant antenna having a feed point impedance of 200 ohms is connected to a transmission line which has an impedance of 50 ohms. What will the standing wave ratio of this system be?
• 6:1 (0% chose this)
• 3:1 (0% chose this)
• 5:1 (0% chose this)
• 4:1 (0% chose this)
The type of transmission line best suited to operating at a high standing wave ratio is:
• 300 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
• 600 ohm open wire line (0% chose this)
• 75 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
• coaxial line (0% chose this)
What would you use to connect a coaxial cable of 50 ohms impedance to an antenna of 17 ohms impedance?
• A terminating resistor (0% chose this)
• An impedance-matching device (0% chose this)
• An SWR meter (0% chose this)
• A low pass filter (0% chose this)
To obtain efficient power transmission from a transmitter to an antenna requires:
• matching of impedances (0% chose this)
• high load impedance (0% chose this)
• low load resistance (0% chose this)
• inductive impedance (0% chose this)
To obtain efficient transfer of power from a transmitter to an antenna, it is important that there is a:
• matching of impedance (0% chose this)
• high load impedance (0% chose this)
• proper method of balance (0% chose this)
• low load resistance (0% chose this)
If an antenna is correctly matched to a transmitter, the length of transmission line:
• must be a full wavelength long (0% chose this)
• must be an odd number of quarter-wave (0% chose this)
• must be an even number of half-waves (0% chose this)
• will have no effect on the matching (0% chose this)
The reason that an RF transmission line should be matched at the transmitter end is to:
• ensure that the radiated signal has the intended polarization (0% chose this)
• prevent frequency drift (0% chose this)
• overcome fading of the transmitted signal (0% chose this)
• transfer the maximum amount of power to the antenna (0% chose this)
If the centre impedance of a folded dipole is approximately 300 ohms, and you are using RG8U (50 ohms) coaxial lines, what is the ratio required to have the line and the antenna matched?
• 6:1 (0% chose this)
• 2:1 (0% chose this)
• 4:1 (0% chose this)
• 10:1 (0% chose this)
A circuit designed to increase the level of its input signal is called:
• a receiver (0% chose this)
• an amplifier (0% chose this)
• a modulator (0% chose this)
• an oscillator (0% chose this)
If an amplifier becomes non-linear, the output signal would:
• be saturated (0% chose this)
• cause oscillations (0% chose this)
• overload the power supply (0% chose this)
• become distorted (0% chose this)
To increase the level of very weak radio signals from an antenna, you would use:
• an RF amplifier (0% chose this)
• an RF oscillator (0% chose this)
• an audio oscillator (0% chose this)
• an audio amplifier (0% chose this)
To increase the level of very weak signals from a microphone you would use:
• an RF amplifier (0% chose this)
• an audio oscillator (0% chose this)
• an audio amplifier (0% chose this)
• an RF oscillator (0% chose this)
The range of frequencies to be amplified by a speech amplifier is typically:
• 300 to 1000 Hz (0% chose this)
• 40 to 40 000 Hz (0% chose this)
• 300 to 3000 Hz (0% chose this)
• 3 to 300 Hz (0% chose this)
Which of the following is not amplified by an amplifier?
• Current (0% chose this)
• Power (0% chose this)
• Voltage (0% chose this)
• Resistance (0% chose this)
The increase in signal level by an amplifier is called:
• modulation (0% chose this)
• gain (0% chose this)
• attenuation (0% chose this)
• amplitude (0% chose this)
A device with gain has the property of:
• oscillation (0% chose this)
• modulation (0% chose this)
• amplification (0% chose this)
• attenuation (0% chose this)
A device labelled "Gain = 10 dB" is likely to be an:
• attenuator (0% chose this)
• oscillator (0% chose this)
• audio fader (0% chose this)
• amplifier (0% chose this)
Amplifiers can amplify:
• voltage, current, or inductance (0% chose this)
• voltage, current, or power (0% chose this)
• current, power, or inductance (0% chose this)
• voltage, power, or inductance (0% chose this)
Which of the following is not a property of an amplifier?
• Distortion (0% chose this)
• Loss (0% chose this)
• Gain (0% chose this)
• Linearity (0% chose this)
Zener diodes are used as:
• RF detectors (0% chose this)
• AF detectors (0% chose this)
• voltage regulators (0% chose this)
• current regulators (0% chose this)
One important application for diodes is recovering information from transmitted signals. This is referred to as:
• biasing (0% chose this)
• demodulation (0% chose this)
• regeneration (0% chose this)
• ionization (0% chose this)
The primary purpose of a Zener diode is to:
• to boost the power supply voltage (0% chose this)
• provide a path through which current can flow (0% chose this)
• regulate or maintain a constant voltage (0% chose this)
• provide a voltage phase shift (0% chose this)
The action of changing alternating current to direct current is called:
• amplification (0% chose this)
• transformation (0% chose this)
• modulation (0% chose this)
• rectification (0% chose this)
The electrodes of a semiconductor diode are known as:
• cathode and drain (0% chose this)
• anode and cathode (0% chose this)
• gate and source (0% chose this)
• collector and base (0% chose this)
If alternating current is applied to the anode of a diode, what would you expect to see at the cathode?
• No signal (0% chose this)
• Steady direct current (0% chose this)
• Pulsating alternating current (0% chose this)
• Pulsating direct current (0% chose this)
In a semiconductor diode, electrons flow from:
• grid to anode (0% chose this)
• cathode to anode (0% chose this)
• anode to cathode (0% chose this)
• cathode to grid (0% chose this)
What semiconductor device glows different colours, depending upon its chemical composition?
• A vacuum diode (0% chose this)
• A light-emitting diode (0% chose this)
• A fluorescent bulb (0% chose this)
• A neon bulb (0% chose this)
Voltage regulation is the principal application of the:
• Zener diode (0% chose this)
• junction diode (0% chose this)
• light-emitting diode (0% chose this)
• vacuum diode (0% chose this)
In order for a diode to conduct, it must be:
• enhanced (0% chose this)
• reverse-biased (0% chose this)
• forward-biased (0% chose this)
• close coupled (0% chose this)
Which component can amplify a small signal using low voltages?
• A multiple-cell battery (0% chose this)
• A PNP transistor (0% chose this)
• A variable resistor (0% chose this)
• An electrolytic capacitor (0% chose this)
The basic semiconductor amplifying device is the:
• transistor (0% chose this)
• tube (0% chose this)
• P-N junction (0% chose this)
• diode (0% chose this)
The three leads from a PNP transistor are named:
• drain, base and source (0% chose this)
• collector, source and drain (0% chose this)
• gate, source and drain (0% chose this)
• collector, emitter and base (0% chose this)
If a low level signal is placed at the input to a transistor, a higher level of signal is produced at the output lead. This effect is known as:
• detection (0% chose this)
• modulation (0% chose this)
• rectification (0% chose this)
• amplification (0% chose this)
Bipolar transistors usually have:
• 2 leads (0% chose this)
• 4 leads (0% chose this)
• 3 leads (0% chose this)
• 1 lead (0% chose this)
A semiconductor is described as a "general purpose audio NPN device". This would be:
• a triode (0% chose this)
• an audio detector (0% chose this)
• a bipolar transistor (0% chose this)
• a silicon diode (0% chose this)
The two basic types of bipolar transistors are:
• diode and triode types (0% chose this)
• varicap and Zener types (0% chose this)
• P and N channel types (0% chose this)
• NPN and PNP types (0% chose this)
A transistor can be destroyed in a circuit by:
• saturation (0% chose this)
• cut-off (0% chose this)
• excessive heat (0% chose this)
• excessive light (0% chose this)
In a bipolar transistor, the _____________ compares closest to the control grid of a triode vacuum tube.
• base (0% chose this)
• emitter (0% chose this)
• source (0% chose this)
• collector (0% chose this)
In a bipolar transistor, the _____________ compares closest to the plate of a triode vacuum tube.
• gate (0% chose this)
• emitter (0% chose this)
• base (0% chose this)
• collector (0% chose this)
In a bipolar transistor, the _____________ compares closest to the cathode of a triode vacuum tube.
• collector (0% chose this)
• base (0% chose this)
• drain (0% chose this)
• emitter (0% chose this)
The two basic types of field effect transistors (FET) are:
• NPN and PNP (0% chose this)
• germanium and silicon (0% chose this)
• inductive and capacitive (0% chose this)
• N and P channel (0% chose this)
A semiconductor having its leads labelled gate, drain, and source is best described as a:
• field-effect transistor (0% chose this)
• gated transistor (0% chose this)
• bipolar transistor (0% chose this)
• silicon diode (0% chose this)
In a field effect transistor, the ___________ is the terminal that controls the conductance of the channel.
• collector (0% chose this)
• gate (0% chose this)
• drain (0% chose this)
• source (0% chose this)
In a field effect transistor, the ___________ is the terminal where the charge carriers enter the channel.
• source (0% chose this)
• gate (0% chose this)
• drain (0% chose this)
• emitter (0% chose this)
In a field effect transistor, the ___________ is the terminal where the charge carriers leave the channel.
• source (0% chose this)
• gate (0% chose this)
• drain (0% chose this)
• collector (0% chose this)
Which semiconductor device has characteristics most similar to a triode vacuum tube?
• Zener diode (0% chose this)
• Bipolar transistor (0% chose this)
• Field effect transistor (0% chose this)
• Junction diode (0% chose this)
The control element in the field effect transistor is the:
• source (0% chose this)
• drain (0% chose this)
• base (0% chose this)
• gate (0% chose this)
If you wish to reduce the current flowing in a field effect transistor, you could:
• increase the forward bias voltage (0% chose this)
• increase the forward bias gain (0% chose this)
• increase the reverse bias voltage (0% chose this)
• decrease the reverse bias voltage (0% chose this)
The source of a field effect transistor corresponds to the _______ of a bipolar transistor.
• collector (0% chose this)
• emitter (0% chose this)
• base (0% chose this)
• drain (0% chose this)
The drain of a field effect transistor corresponds to the _______ of a bipolar transistor.
• emitter (0% chose this)
• collector (0% chose this)
• base (0% chose this)
• source (0% chose this)
Which two elements in a field effect transistor exhibit fairly similar characteristics?
• Source and gate (0% chose this)
• Gate and drain (0% chose this)
• Source and base (0% chose this)
• Source and drain (0% chose this)
What is one reason a triode vacuum tube might be used instead of a transistor in a circuit?
• It may be able to handle higher power (0% chose this)
• It uses less current (0% chose this)
• It is much smaller (0% chose this)
• It uses lower voltages (0% chose this)
Which component can amplify a small signal but must use high voltages?
• An electrolytic capacitor (0% chose this)
• A multiple-cell battery (0% chose this)
• A vacuum tube (0% chose this)
• A transistor (0% chose this)
A feature common to triode tubes and transistors is that both:
• convert electrical energy to radio waves (0% chose this)
• use heat to cause electron movement (0% chose this)
• can amplify signals (0% chose this)
• have electrons drifting through a vacuum (0% chose this)
In a vacuum tube, the electrode that is operated with the highest positive potential is the _________.
• filament (heater) (0% chose this)
• cathode (0% chose this)
• grid (0% chose this)
• plate (0% chose this)
In a vacuum tube, the electrode that is usually a cylinder of wire mesh is the _______.
• grid (0% chose this)
• filament (heater) (0% chose this)
• cathode (0% chose this)
• plate (0% chose this)
In a vacuum tube, the element that is furthest away from the plate is the __________.
• filament (heater) (0% chose this)
• grid (0% chose this)
• emitter (0% chose this)
• cathode (0% chose this)
In a vacuum tube, the electrode that emits electrons is the __________.
• grid (0% chose this)
• collector (0% chose this)
• plate (0% chose this)
• cathode (0% chose this)
What is inside the envelope of a triode tube?
• Argon (0% chose this)
• Air (0% chose this)
• Neon (0% chose this)
• A vacuum (0% chose this)
How many grids are there in a triode vacuum tube?
• Three plus a filament (0% chose this)
• One (0% chose this)
• Two (0% chose this)
• Three (0% chose this)
In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the ____________ is primarily for mechanical support purposes.
• driven element (0% chose this)
• director (0% chose this)
• boom (0% chose this)
• reflector (0% chose this)
In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the ________ is the longest radiating element.
• reflector (0% chose this)
• director (0% chose this)
• driven element (0% chose this)
• boom (0% chose this)
In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the ______________ is the shortest radiating element.
• reflector (0% chose this)
• driven element (0% chose this)
• director (0% chose this)
• boom (0% chose this)
In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the ______________is not the longest nor the shortest radiating element.
• director (0% chose this)
• reflector (0% chose this)
• driven element (0% chose this)
• boom (0% chose this)
What does horizontal wave polarization mean?
• The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
• The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
• The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
• The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
What does vertical wave polarization mean?
• The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
• The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
• The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
• The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
What electromagnetic wave polarization does a Yagi antenna have when its elements are parallel to the Earth's surface?
• Circular (0% chose this)
• Horizontal (0% chose this)
• Helical (0% chose this)
• Vertical (0% chose this)
What electromagnetic wave polarization does a half-wavelength antenna have when it is perpendicular to the Earth's surface?
• Horizontal (0% chose this)
• Parabolical (0% chose this)
• Vertical (0% chose this)
• Circular (0% chose this)
Polarization of an antenna is determined by:
• the magnetic field (0% chose this)
• the orientation of the electric field relative to the Earth's surface (0% chose this)
• the height of the antenna (0% chose this)
• the type of antenna (0% chose this)
An isotropic antenna is:
• a dummy load (0% chose this)
• a half-wave reference dipole (0% chose this)
• a hypothetical point source (0% chose this)
• an infinitely long piece of wire (0% chose this)
• A parabola (0% chose this)
• A cardioid (0% chose this)
• A unidirectional cardioid (0% chose this)
• A sphere (0% chose this)
VHF signals from a mobile station using a vertical whip antenna will normally be best received using a:
• vertical ground-plane antenna (0% chose this)
• random length of wire (0% chose this)
• horizontal ground-plane antenna (0% chose this)
• horizontal dipole antenna (0% chose this)
A dipole antenna will emit a vertically polarized wave if it is:
• fed with the correct type of RF (0% chose this)
• too near to the ground (0% chose this)
• parallel with the ground (0% chose this)
• mounted vertically (0% chose this)
If an electromagnetic wave leaves an antenna vertically polarized, it will arrive at the receiving antenna, by ground wave:
• horizontally polarized (0% chose this)
• polarized in any plane (0% chose this)
• vertically polarized (0% chose this)
• polarized at right angles to original (0% chose this)
Compared with a horizontal antenna, a vertical antenna will receive a vertically polarized radio wave:
• at weaker strength (0% chose this)
• without any comparative difference (0% chose this)
• if the antenna changes the polarization (0% chose this)
• at greater strength (0% chose this)
If an antenna is made longer, what happens to its resonant frequency?
• It stays the same (0% chose this)
• It disappears (0% chose this)
• It decreases (0% chose this)
• It increases (0% chose this)
If an antenna is made shorter, what happens to its resonant frequency?
• It increases (0% chose this)
• It stays the same (0% chose this)
• It disappears (0% chose this)
• It decreases (0% chose this)
The wavelength for a frequency of 25 MHz is:
• 4 metres (13.1 ft) (0% chose this)
• 32 metres (105 ft) (0% chose this)
• 12 metres (39.4 ft) (0% chose this)
• 15 metres (49.2 ft) (0% chose this)
The velocity of propagation of radio frequency energy in free space is:
• 300 000 kilometres per second (0% chose this)
• 3000 kilometres per second (0% chose this)
• 150 kilometres per second (0% chose this)
• 186 000 kilometres per second (0% chose this)
Adding a series inductance to an antenna would:
• increase the resonant frequency (0% chose this)
• have little effect (0% chose this)
• have no change on the resonant frequency (0% chose this)
• decrease the resonant frequency (0% chose this)
The resonant frequency of an antenna may be increased by:
• lengthening the radiating element (0% chose this)
• shortening the radiating element (0% chose this)
• lowering the radiating element (0% chose this)
• increasing the height of the radiating element (0% chose this)
The speed of a radio wave:
• is the same as the speed of light (0% chose this)
• is infinite in space (0% chose this)
• is always less than half speed of light (0% chose this)
• varies directly with frequency (0% chose this)
At the end of suspended antenna wire, insulators are used. These act to:
• limit the electrical length of the antenna (0% chose this)
• increase the effective antenna length (0% chose this)
• allow the antenna to be more easily held vertically (0% chose this)
• prevent any loss of radio waves by the antenna (0% chose this)
To lower the resonant frequency of an antenna, the operator should:
• ground one end (0% chose this)
• centre feed it with TV ribbon transmission line (0% chose this)
• lengthen it (0% chose this)
• shorten it (0% chose this)
One solution to multiband operation with a shortened radiator is the "trap dipole" or trap vertical. These "traps" are actually:
• large wire-wound resistors (0% chose this)
• coils wrapped around a ferrite rod (0% chose this)
• hollow metal cans (0% chose this)
• a coil and capacitor in parallel (0% chose this)
The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 2 MHz is:
• 150 m (492 ft) (0% chose this)
• 360 m (1181 ft) (0% chose this)
• 1500 m (4921 ft) (0% chose this)
• 30 m (98 ft) (0% chose this)
What is a parasitic beam antenna?
• An antenna where the driven element obtains its radio energy by induction or radiation from director elements (0% chose this)
• An antenna where all elements are driven by direct connection to the transmission line (0% chose this)
• An antenna where wave traps are used to magnetically couple the elements (0% chose this)
• An antenna where some elements obtain their radio energy by induction or radiation from a driven element (0% chose this)
How can the bandwidth of a parasitic beam antenna be increased?
• Use larger diameter elements (0% chose this)
• Use traps on the elements (0% chose this)
• Use tapered-diameter elements (0% chose this)
• Use closer element spacing (0% chose this)
If a parasitic element slightly shorter than a horizontal dipole antenna is placed parallel to the dipole 0.1 wavelength from it and at the same height, what effect will this have on the antenna's radiation pattern?
• A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, from the dipole toward the parasitic element (0% chose this)
• A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel to the two elements (0% chose this)
• A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from the ground (0% chose this)
• The radiation pattern will not be affected (0% chose this)
If a parasitic element slightly longer than a horizontal dipole antenna is placed parallel to the dipole 0.1 wavelength from it and at the same height, what effect will this have on the antenna's radiation pattern?
• A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel to the two elements (0% chose this)
• A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from the ground (0% chose this)
• The radiation pattern will not be affected (0% chose this)
• A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, from the parasitic element toward the dipole (0% chose this)
The property of an antenna, which defines the range of frequencies to which it will respond, is called its:
• bandwidth (0% chose this)
• front-to-back ratio (0% chose this)
• impedance (0% chose this)
• polarization (0% chose this)
Approximately how much gain does a half-wave dipole have over an isotropic radiator?
• 6.0 dB (0% chose this)
• 2.1 dB (0% chose this)
• 1.5 dB (0% chose this)
• 3.0 dB (0% chose this)
What is meant by antenna gain?
• The numerical ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the signal in the back direction (0% chose this)
• The numerical ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power (0% chose this)
• The power amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses (0% chose this)
• The numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of another antenna (0% chose this)
What is meant by antenna bandwidth?
• Antenna length divided by the number of elements (0% chose this)
• The angle between the half-power radiation points (0% chose this)
• The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the ends of the elements (0% chose this)
• The frequency range over which the antenna may be expected to perform well (0% chose this)
In free space, what is the radiation characteristic of a half-wave dipole?
• Omnidirectional (0% chose this)
• Maximum radiation at 45 degrees to the plane of the antenna (0% chose this)
The gain of an antenna, especially on VHF and above, is quoted in dBi. The "i" in this expression stands for:
• isotropic (0% chose this)
• ideal (0% chose this)
• ionosphere (0% chose this)
• interpolated (0% chose this)
The front-to-back ratio of a beam antenna is:
• the ratio of the maximum forward power in the major lobe to the maximum backward power radiation (0% chose this)
• the forward power of the major lobe to the power in the backward direction both being measured at the 3 dB points (0% chose this)
• undefined (0% chose this)
• the ratio of the forward power at the 3 dB points to the power radiated in the backward direction (0% chose this)
How do you calculate the length in metres (feet) of a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna?
• Divide 150 (491) by the antenna's operating frequency in MHz (0% chose this)
• Divide 71.5 (234) by the antenna's operating frequency in MHz (0% chose this)
• Divide 468 (1532) by the antenna's operating frequency in MHz (0% chose this)
• Divide 300 (982) by the antenna's operating frequency in MHz (0% chose this)
If you made a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 21.125 MHz, how long would it be?
• 6.76 metres (22.2 ft) (0% chose this)
• 3.36 metres (11.0 ft) (0% chose this)
• 3.6 metres (11.8 ft) (0% chose this)
• 7.2 metres (23.6 ft) (0% chose this)
If you made a half-wavelength vertical antenna for 223 MHz, how long would it be?
• 64 cm (25.2 in) (0% chose this)
• 128 cm (50.4 in) (0% chose this)
• 105 cm (41.3 in) (0% chose this)
• 134.6 cm (53 in) (0% chose this)
Why is a 5/8-wavelength vertical antenna better than a 1/4-wavelength vertical antenna for VHF or UHF mobile operations?
• A 5/8-wavelength antenna is easier to install on a car (0% chose this)
• A 5/8-wavelength antenna can handle more power (0% chose this)
• A 5/8-wavelength antenna has more gain (0% chose this)
• A 5/8-wavelength antenna has less corona loss (0% chose this)
If a magnetic-base whip antenna is placed on the roof of a car, in what direction does it send out radio energy?
• Most of it goes in one direction (0% chose this)
• It goes out equally well in all horizontal directions (0% chose this)
• Most of it is aimed high into the sky (0% chose this)
• Most of it goes equally in two opposite directions (0% chose this)
What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a ground plane antenna?
• It lowers the radiation angle (0% chose this)
• It brings the feed point impedance closer to 50 ohms (0% chose this)
• It increases the radiation angle (0% chose this)
• It brings the feed point impedance closer to 300 ohms (0% chose this)
What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward-sloping?
• It approaches zero (0% chose this)
• It increases (0% chose this)
• It decreases (0% chose this)
• It stays the same (0% chose this)
Which of the following transmission lines will give the best match to the base of a quarter-wave ground-plane antenna?
• 300 ohms coaxial cable (0% chose this)
• 50 ohms coaxial cable (0% chose this)
• 300 ohms balanced transmission line (0% chose this)
• 75 ohms balanced transmission line (0% chose this)
The main characteristic of a vertical antenna is that it will:
• be very sensitive to signals coming from horizontal antennas (0% chose this)
• require few insulators (0% chose this)
• be easy to feed with TV ribbon transmission line (0% chose this)
• receive signals equally well from all compass points around it (0% chose this)
Why is a loading coil often used with an HF mobile vertical antenna?
• To filter out electrical noise (0% chose this)
• To tune out capacitive reactance (0% chose this)
• To lower the losses (0% chose this)
• To lower the Q (0% chose this)
What is the main reason why so many VHF base and mobile antennas are 5/8 of a wavelength?
• The angle of radiation is high giving excellent local coverage (0% chose this)
• It is easy to match the antenna to the transmitter (0% chose this)
• It's a convenient length on VHF (0% chose this)
• The angle of radiation is low (0% chose this)
How many directly driven elements do most Yagi antennas have?
• Two (0% chose this)
• Three (0% chose this)
• None (0% chose this)
• One (0% chose this)
Approximately how long is the driven element of a Yagi antenna for 14.0 MHz?
• 5.21 metres (17 feet) (0% chose this)
• 10.67 metres (35 feet) (0% chose this)
• 20.12 metres (66 feet) (0% chose this)
• 10.21 metres (33.5 feet) (0% chose this)
Approximately how long is the director element of a Yagi antenna for 21.1 MHz?
• 5.18 metres (17 feet) (0% chose this)
• 3.2 metres (10.5 feet) (0% chose this)
• 12.8 metres (42 feet) (0% chose this)
• 6.4 metres (21 feet) (0% chose this)
Approximately how long is the reflector element of a Yagi antenna for 28.1 MHz?
• 2.66 metres (8.75 feet) (0% chose this)
• 5.33 metres (17.5 feet) (0% chose this)
• 4.88 metres (16 feet) (0% chose this)
• 10.67 metres (35 feet) (0% chose this)
What is one effect of increasing the boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?
• SWR increases (0% chose this)
• Weight decreases (0% chose this)
• Wind load decreases (0% chose this)
• Gain increases (0% chose this)
What are some advantages of a Yagi with wide element spacing?
• High gain, less critical tuning and wider bandwidth (0% chose this)
• High gain, lower loss and a low SWR (0% chose this)
• High front-to-back ratio and lower input resistance (0% chose this)
• Shorter boom length, lower weight and wind resistance (0% chose this)
Why is a Yagi antenna often used for radiocommunications on the 20-metre band?
• It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a dipole or vertical antenna (0% chose this)
• It provides the highest possible angle of radiation for the HF bands (0% chose this)
• It helps reduce interference from other stations off to the side or behind (0% chose this)
• It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the horizontal plane (0% chose this)
What does "antenna front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
• The number of directors versus the number of reflectors (0% chose this)
• The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction (0% chose this)
• The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors (0% chose this)
• The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction (0% chose this)
What is a good way to get maximum performance from a Yagi antenna?
• Use a reactance bridge to measure the antenna performance from each direction around the antenna (0% chose this)
• Avoid using towers higher than 9 metres (30 feet) above the ground (0% chose this)
• Optimize the lengths and spacing of the elements (0% chose this)
• Use RG-58 transmission line (0% chose this)
The spacing between the elements on a three-element Yagi antenna, representing the best overall choice, is _____ of a wavelength.
• 0.10 (0% chose this)
• 0.50 (0% chose this)
• 0.75 (0% chose this)
• 0.20 (0% chose this)
If the forward gain of a six-element Yagi is about 10 dBi, what would the gain of two of these antennas be if they were "stacked"?
• 20 dBi (0% chose this)
• 10 dBi (0% chose this)
• 13 dBi (0% chose this)
• 7 dBi (0% chose this)
If you made a half-wavelength dipole antenna for 28.150 MHz, how long would it be?
• 10.5 metres (34.37 ft) (0% chose this)
• 28.55 metres (93.45 ft) (0% chose this)
• 10.16 metres (33.26 ft) (0% chose this)
• 5.08 metres (16.62 ft) (0% chose this)
What is one disadvantage of a random wire antenna?
• You must use an inverted T matching network for multi-band operation (0% chose this)
• You may experience RF feedback in your station (0% chose this)
• It usually produces vertically polarized radiation (0% chose this)
• It must be longer than 1 wavelength (0% chose this)
What is the low angle radiation pattern of an ideal half-wavelength dipole HF antenna in free space installed parallel to the Earth?
• It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions) (0% chose this)
• It is two smaller lobes on one side of the antenna, and one larger lobe on the other side (0% chose this)
• It is a figure-eight, off both ends of the antenna (0% chose this)
• It is a figure-eight, perpendicular to the antenna (0% chose this)
The impedances in ohms at the feed point of the dipole and folded dipole in free space are, respectively:
• 52 and 100 (0% chose this)
• 52 and 200 (0% chose this)
• 73 and 300 (0% chose this)
• 73 and 150 (0% chose this)
A horizontal dipole transmitting antenna, installed at an ideal height so that the ends are pointing North/South, radiates:
• mostly to the East and West (0% chose this)
• mostly to the South and North (0% chose this)
• mostly to the South (0% chose this)
• equally in all directions (0% chose this)
How does the bandwidth of a folded dipole antenna compare with that of a simple dipole antenna?
• It is greater (0% chose this)
• It is essentially the same (0% chose this)
• It is less than 50% (0% chose this)
• It is 0.707 times the bandwidth (0% chose this)
What is a disadvantage of using an antenna equipped with traps?
• It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies (0% chose this)
• It must be neutralized (0% chose this)
• It can only be used for one band (0% chose this)
What is an advantage of using a trap antenna?
• It has high directivity at the higher frequencies (0% chose this)
• It has high gain (0% chose this)
• It minimizes harmonic radiation (0% chose this)
• It may be used for multi-band operation (0% chose this)
If you were to cut a half wave dipole for 3.75 MHz, what would be its approximate length?
• 32 meters (105 ft) (0% chose this)
• 45 meters (145 ft) (0% chose this)
• 75 meters (245 ft) (0% chose this)
• 38 meters (125 ft) (0% chose this)
What is a cubical quad antenna?
• A center-fed wire 1/2-electrical wavelength long (0% chose this)
• A vertical conductor 1/4-electrical wavelength high, fed at the bottom (0% chose this)
• Four straight, parallel elements in line with each other, each approximately 1/2-electrical wavelength long (0% chose this)
• Two or more parallel four-sided wire loops, each approximately one-electrical wavelength long (0% chose this)
What is a delta loop antenna?
• An antenna system made of three vertical antennas, arranged in a triangular shape (0% chose this)
• An antenna made from several triangular coils of wire on an insulating form (0% chose this)
• An antenna whose elements are each a three sided loop whose total length is approximately one electrical wavelength (0% chose this)
• A large copper ring or wire loop, used in direction finding (0% chose this)
Approximately how long is each side of a cubical quad antenna driven element for 21.4 MHz?
• 3.54 metres (11.7 feet) (0% chose this)
• 0.36 metres (1.17 feet) (0% chose this)
• 14.33 metres (47 feet) (0% chose this)
• 143 metres (469 feet) (0% chose this)
Approximately how long is each side of a cubical quad antenna driven element for 14.3 MHz?
• 5.36 metres (17.6 feet) (0% chose this)
• 21.43 metres (70.3 feet) (0% chose this)
• 53.34 metres (175 feet) (0% chose this)
• 7.13 metres (23.4 feet) (0% chose this)
Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta loop antenna driven element for 28.7 MHz?
• 10.67 metres (35 feet) (0% chose this)
• 3.5 metres (11.5 feet) (0% chose this)
• 2.67 metres (8.75 feet) (0% chose this)
• 7.13 metres (23.4 feet) (0% chose this)
• They are effective only when constructed using insulated wire (0% chose this)
• They perform poorly above HF (0% chose this)
• They compare favourably with a three-element Yagi (0% chose this)
• They perform very well only at HF (0% chose this)
Compared to a dipole antenna, what are the directional radiation characteristics of a cubical quad antenna?
• The quad has less directivity in the horizontal plane but more directivity in the vertical plane (0% chose this)
• The quad has less directivity in both horizontal and vertical planes (0% chose this)
• The quad has more directivity in both horizontal and vertical planes (0% chose this)
• The quad has more directivity in the horizontal plane but less directivity in the vertical plane (0% chose this)
Moving the feed point of a multi-element quad antenna from a side parallel to the ground to a side perpendicular to the ground will have what effect?
• It will change the antenna polarization from horizontal to vertical (0% chose this)
• It will change the antenna polarization from vertical to horizontal (0% chose this)
• It will significantly decrease the antenna feed point impedance (0% chose this)
• It will significantly increase the antenna feed point impedance (0% chose this)
What does the term "antenna front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a delta loop antenna?
• The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction (0% chose this)
• The number of directors versus the number of reflectors (0% chose this)
• The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction (0% chose this)
• The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors (0% chose this)
The cubical "quad" or "quad" antenna consists of two or more square loops of wire. The driven element has an approximate overall length of:
• one wavelength (0% chose this)
• three-quarters of a wavelength (0% chose this)
• two wavelengths (0% chose this)
• one-half wavelength (0% chose this)
The delta loop antenna consists of two or more triangular structures mounted on a boom. The overall length of the driven element is approximately:
• one wavelength (0% chose this)
• one-quarter of a wavelength (0% chose this)
• two wavelengths (0% chose this)
• one-half of a wavelength (0% chose this)
In a regulated power supply, the transformer connects to an external source which is referred to as______________.
• filter (0% chose this)
• rectifier (0% chose this)
• input (0% chose this)
• regulator (0% chose this)
In a regulated power supply, the _______________ is between the input and the rectifier.
• regulator (0% chose this)
• filter (0% chose this)
• transformer (0% chose this)
• output (0% chose this)
In a regulated power supply, the _______________ is between the transformer and the filter.
• output (0% chose this)
• regulator (0% chose this)
• rectifier (0% chose this)
• input (0% chose this)
In a regulated power supply, the output of the rectifier is connected to the ______________.
• transformer (0% chose this)
• regulator (0% chose this)
• filter (0% chose this)
• output (0% chose this)
In a regulated power supply, the output of the filter connects to the ____________________.
• transformer (0% chose this)
• rectifier (0% chose this)
• output (0% chose this)
• regulator (0% chose this)
In a regulated power supply, the _______________ is connected to the regulator.
• transformer (0% chose this)
• output (0% chose this)
• rectifier (0% chose this)
• input (0% chose this)
If your mobile transceiver works in your car but not in your home, what should you check first?
• The speaker (0% chose this)
• The microphone (0% chose this)
• The SWR meter (0% chose this)
• The power supply (0% chose this)
What device converts household current to 12 volts DC?
• A power supply (0% chose this)
• A low pass filter (0% chose this)
• An RS-232 interface (0% chose this)
• A catalytic converter (0% chose this)
Which of these usually needs a high current capacity power supply?
• An SWR meter (0% chose this)
• A transceiver (0% chose this)
• An antenna switch (0% chose this)
• A receiver (0% chose this)
What may cause a buzzing or hum in the signal of an AC-powered transmitter?
• Using an antenna which is the wrong length (0% chose this)
• Energy from another transmitter (0% chose this)
• Bad design of the transmitter's RF power output circuit (0% chose this)
• A bad filter capacitor in the transmitter's power supply (0% chose this)
A power supply is to supply DC at 12 volts at 5 amperes. The power transformer should be rated higher than:
• 6 watts (0% chose this)
• 60 watts (0% chose this)
• 17 watts (0% chose this)
• 2.4 watts (0% chose this)
The diode is an important part of a simple power supply. It converts AC to DC, since it:
• allows electrons to flow in only one direction from anode to cathode (0% chose this)
• allows electrons to flow in only one direction from cathode to anode (0% chose this)
• has a high resistance to AC but not to DC (0% chose this)
• has a high resistance to DC but not to AC (0% chose this)
To convert AC to pulsating DC, you could use a:
• resistor (0% chose this)
• diode (0% chose this)
• transformer (0% chose this)
• capacitor (0% chose this)
Power-line voltages have been made standard over the years and the voltages generally supplied to homes are approximately:
• 130 and 260 volts (0% chose this)
• 120 and 240 volts (0% chose this)
• 110 and 220 volts (0% chose this)
• 100 and 200 volts (0% chose this)
Your mobile HF transceiver draws 22 amperes on transmit. The manufacturer suggests limiting voltage drop to 0.5 volt and the vehicle battery is 3 metres (10 feet) away. Given the losses below at that current, which minimum wire gauge must you use?
• Number 12, 0.11 V per metre (0.03 V per foot) (0% chose this)
• Number 8, 0.05 V per metre (0.01 V per foot) (0% chose this)
• Number 10, 0.07 V per metre (0.02 V per foot) (0% chose this)
• Number 14, 0.19 V per metre (0.06 V per foot) (0% chose this)
Why are fuses needed as close as possible to the vehicle battery when wiring a transceiver directly to the battery?
• To prevent an overcurrent situation from starting a fire (0% chose this)
• To prevent interference to the vehicle's electronic systems (0% chose this)
• To reduce the voltage drop in the radio's DC supply (0% chose this)
• To protect the radio from transient voltages (0% chose this)
You have a very loud low-frequency hum appearing on your transmission. In what part of the transmitter would you first look for the trouble?
• The power supply (0% chose this)
• The variable-frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
• The driver circuit (0% chose this)
• The power amplifier circuit (0% chose this)
How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using your amateur station at home?
• Use a key-operated on/off switch in the main power line (0% chose this)
• Use a carrier-operated relay in the main power line (0% chose this)
• Put a "Danger - High Voltage" sign in the station (0% chose this)
• Put fuses in the main power line (0% chose this)
How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using a mobile amateur station in your car?
• Tune the radio to an unused frequency when you are done using it (0% chose this)
• Turn the radio off when you are not using it (0% chose this)
• Put a "Do not touch" sign on the radio (0% chose this)
• Disconnect the microphone when you are not using it (0% chose this)
Why would you use a key-operated on/off switch in the main power line of your station?
• For safety, in case the main fuses fail (0% chose this)
• To keep the power company from turning off your electricity during an emergency (0% chose this)
• For safety, to turn off the station in the event of an emergency (0% chose this)
• To keep unauthorized persons from using your station (0% chose this)
Why would there be a switch in a high-voltage power supply to turn off the power if its cabinet is opened?
• To keep dangerous RF radiation from leaking out through an open cabinet (0% chose this)
• To keep dangerous RF radiation from coming in through an open cabinet (0% chose this)
• To turn the power supply off when it is not being used (0% chose this)
• To keep anyone opening the cabinet from getting shocked by dangerous high voltages (0% chose this)
How little electrical current flowing through the human body can be fatal?
• Approximately 10 amperes (0% chose this)
• More than 20 amperes (0% chose this)
• Current flow through the human body is never fatal (0% chose this)
• As little as 20 milliamperes (0% chose this)
Which body organ can be fatally affected by a very small amount of electrical current?
• The heart (0% chose this)
• The brain (0% chose this)
• The liver (0% chose this)
• The lungs (0% chose this)
What is the minimum voltage which is usually dangerous to humans?
• 1000 volts (0% chose this)
• 2000 volts (0% chose this)
• 30 volts (0% chose this)
• 100 volts (0% chose this)
What should you do if you discover someone who is being burned by high voltage?
• Run from the area so you won't be burned too (0% chose this)
• Turn off the power, call for emergency help and provide first-aid if needed (0% chose this)
• Wait for a few minutes to see if the person can get away from the high voltage on their own, then try to help (0% chose this)
• Immediately drag the person away from the high voltage (0% chose this)
What is the safest method to remove an unconscious person from contact with a high voltage source?
• Call an electrician (0% chose this)
• Remove the person by pulling an arm or a leg (0% chose this)
• Turn off the high voltage switch before removing the person from contact with the source (0% chose this)
• Wrap the person in a blanket and pull him to a safe area (0% chose this)
Before checking a fault in a mains operated power supply unit, it would be safest to first:
• remove and check fuse from power supply (0% chose this)
• turn off the power and remove power plug (0% chose this)
• short out leads of filter capacitor (0% chose this)
• check action of capacitor bleeder resistance (0% chose this)
Fault finding in a power supply of an amateur transmitter while the supply is operating is not a recommended technique because of the risk of:
• overmodulation (0% chose this)
• blowing the fuse (0% chose this)
• electric shock (0% chose this)
• damaging the transmitter (0% chose this)
What equipment should be worn for working on an antenna tower?
• Approved equipment in accordance with applicable standards concerning fall protection (0% chose this)
• A reflective vest of approved colour (0% chose this)
• A flashing red, yellow or white light (0% chose this)
• A grounding chain (0% chose this)
Why should you wear approved fall arrest equipment if you are working on an antenna tower?
• To keep the tower from becoming unbalanced while you are working (0% chose this)
• To safely hold your tools so they don't fall and injure someone on the ground (0% chose this)
• To prevent you from accidentally falling (0% chose this)
• To safely bring any tools you might use up and down the tower (0% chose this)
For safety, how high should you place a horizontal wire antenna?
• Above high-voltage electrical lines (0% chose this)
• Just high enough so you can easily reach it for adjustments or repairs (0% chose this)
• As close to the ground as possible (0% chose this)
• High enough so that no one can touch any part of it from the ground (0% chose this)
Why should you wear a hard hat if you are on the ground helping someone work on an antenna tower?
• To keep RF energy away from your head during antenna testing (0% chose this)
• So someone passing by will know that work is being done on the tower and will stay away (0% chose this)
• To protect your head from something dropped from the tower (0% chose this)
• So you won't be hurt if the tower should accidentally fall (0% chose this)
Why should your outside antennas be high enough so that no one can touch them while you are transmitting?
• Touching the antenna might radiate harmonics (0% chose this)
• Touching the antenna might cause television interference (0% chose this)
• Touching the antenna might cause RF burns (0% chose this)
• Touching the antenna might reflect the signal back to the transmitter and cause damage (0% chose this)
Why should you make sure that no one can touch an open wire transmission line while you are transmitting with it?
• Because high-voltage radio energy might burn the person (0% chose this)
• Because contact might break the transmission line (0% chose this)
• Because contact might cause spurious emissions (0% chose this)
• Because contact might cause a short circuit and damage the transmitter (0% chose this)
What safety precautions should you take before beginning repairs on an antenna?
• Be sure you and the antenna structure are grounded (0% chose this)
• Inform your neighbours so they are aware of your intentions (0% chose this)
• Turn off the main power switch in your house (0% chose this)
• Be sure to turn off the transmitter and disconnect the transmission line (0% chose this)
What precaution should you take when installing a ground-mounted antenna?
• It should not be installed in a wet area (0% chose this)
• It should not be installed higher than you can reach (0% chose this)
• It should be installed so no one can come in contact with it (0% chose this)
• It should be painted so people or animals do not accidentally run into it (0% chose this)
What should you do for safety when operating at UHF and microwave frequencies?
• Keep antenna away from your eyes when RF is applied (0% chose this)
• Make sure that an RF leakage filter is installed at the antenna feed point (0% chose this)
• Make sure the standing wave ratio is low before you conduct a test (0% chose this)
• Never use a horizontally polarized antenna (0% chose this)
What should you do for safety if you put up a UHF transmitting antenna?
• Make sure that RF field screens are in place (0% chose this)
• Make sure the antenna will be in a place where no one can get near it when you are transmitting (0% chose this)
• Make sure the antenna is near the ground to keep its RF energy pointing in the correct direction (0% chose this)
• Make sure you connect an RF leakage filter at the antenna feed point (0% chose this)
What should you do for safety, before removing the shielding on a UHF power amplifier?
• Make sure the amplifier cannot accidentally be turned on (0% chose this)
• Make sure that RF leakage filters are connected (0% chose this)
• Make sure the antenna transmission line is properly grounded (0% chose this)
• Make sure all RF screens are in place at the antenna transmission line (0% chose this)
Why should you make sure the antenna of a hand-held transceiver is not close to your head when transmitting?
• To help the antenna radiate energy equally in all directions (0% chose this)
• To reduce your exposure to the radio-frequency energy (0% chose this)
• To use your body to reflect the signal in one direction (0% chose this)
• To keep static charges from building up (0% chose this)
How should you position the antenna of a hand-held transceiver while you are transmitting?
• Pointed towards the station you are contacting (0% chose this)
• Pointed away from the station you are contacting (0% chose this)
• Pointed down to bounce the signal off the ground (0% chose this)
• Away from your head and away from others (0% chose this)
How can exposure to a large amount of RF energy affect body tissue?
• It paralyzes the tissue (0% chose this)
• It causes hair to fall out (0% chose this)
• It heats the tissue (0% chose this)
• It lowers blood pressure (0% chose this)
Which body organ is the most likely to be damaged from the heating effects of RF radiation?
• Eyes (0% chose this)
• Heart (0% chose this)
• Liver (0% chose this)
• Hands (0% chose this)
Depending on the wavelength of the signal, the energy density of the RF field, and other factors, in what way can RF energy affect body tissue?
• It causes blood flow to stop (0% chose this)
• It has no effect on the body (0% chose this)
• It heats the tissue (0% chose this)
• It causes ionizing radiation poisoning (0% chose this)
If you operate your amateur station with indoor antennas, what precautions should you take when you install them?
• Locate the antennas as far away as possible from living spaces that will be occupied while you are operating (0% chose this)
• Position the antennas parallel to electrical power wires to take advantage of parasitic effects (0% chose this)
• Position the antennas along the edge of a wall where it meets the floor or ceiling to reduce parasitic radiation (0% chose this)
• Locate the antennas close to your operating position to minimize transmission line length (0% chose this)
Why should directional high-gain antennas be mounted higher than nearby structures?
• So they will not direct RF energy toward people in nearby structures (0% chose this)
• So they will be dried by the wind after a heavy rain storm (0% chose this)
• So they will not damage nearby structures with RF energy (0% chose this)
• So they will receive more sky waves and fewer ground waves (0% chose this)
For best RF safety, where should the ends and center of a dipole antenna be located?
• As close to the transmitter as possible so RF energy will be concentrated near the transmitter (0% chose this)
• Close to the ground so simple adjustments can be easily made without climbing a ladder (0% chose this)
• As high as possible to prevent people from coming in contact with the antenna (0% chose this)
• Near or over moist ground so RF energy will be radiated away from the ground (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation transmitter, the input to the speech amplifier is connected to the:
• frequency multiplier (0% chose this)
• microphone (0% chose this)
• modulator (0% chose this)
• power amplifier (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation transmitter, the microphone is connected to the:
• modulator (0% chose this)
• power amplifier (0% chose this)
• oscillator (0% chose this)
• speech amplifier (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation transmitter, the ____________is in between the speech amplifier and the oscillator.
• power amplifier (0% chose this)
• microphone (0% chose this)
• frequency multiplier (0% chose this)
• modulator (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation transmitter, the __________is located between the modulator and the frequency multiplier.
• microphone (0% chose this)
• oscillator (0% chose this)
• speech amplifier (0% chose this)
• power amplifier (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation transmitter, the ___________is located between the oscillator and the power amplifier.
• frequency multiplier (0% chose this)
• microphone (0% chose this)
• speech amplifier (0% chose this)
• modulator (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation transmitter, the _________ is located between the frequency multiplier and the antenna.
• oscillator (0% chose this)
• power amplifier (0% chose this)
• modulator (0% chose this)
• speech amplifier (0% chose this)
In a frequency modulation transmitter, the power amplifier output is connected to the:
• modulator (0% chose this)
• antenna (0% chose this)
• frequency multiplier (0% chose this)
• microphone (0% chose this)
In a CW transmitter, the output from the __________ is connected to the driver/buffer.
• telegraph key (0% chose this)
• power supply (0% chose this)
• master oscillator (0% chose this)
• power amplifier (0% chose this)
In a typical CW transmitter, the ___________ is the primary source of direct current.
• driver/buffer (0% chose this)
• power amplifier (0% chose this)
• master oscillator (0% chose this)
• power supply (0% chose this)
In a CW transmitter, the _________ is between the master oscillator and the power amplifier.
• driver/buffer (0% chose this)
• audio amplifier (0% chose this)
• power supply (0% chose this)
• telegraph key (0% chose this)
In a CW transmitter, the _____________ controls when RF energy is applied to the antenna.
• driver/buffer (0% chose this)
• power amplifier (0% chose this)
• telegraph key (0% chose this)
• master oscillator (0% chose this)
In a CW transmitter, the ______________ is in between the driver/buffer stage and the antenna.
• power amplifier (0% chose this)
• power supply (0% chose this)
• telegraph key (0% chose this)
• master oscillator (0% chose this)
In a CW transmitter, the output of the _____________ is transferred to the antenna.
• power supply (0% chose this)
• master oscillator (0% chose this)
• power amplifier (0% chose this)
• driver/buffer (0% chose this)
In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the ________ is connected to the balanced modulator.
• variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
• linear amplifier (0% chose this)
• mixer (0% chose this)
• radio frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the ____________ is connected to the filter.
• balanced modulator (0% chose this)
• microphone (0% chose this)
• mixer (0% chose this)
• radio frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
In a single sideband transmitter, the _____________ is in between the balanced modulator and the mixer.
• speech amplifier (0% chose this)
• microphone (0% chose this)
• filter (0% chose this)
• radio frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
In a single sideband transmitter, the ______________ is connected to the speech amplifier.
• filter (0% chose this)
• mixer (0% chose this)
• microphone (0% chose this)
• radio frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the ___________ is connected to the balanced modulator.
• speech amplifier (0% chose this)
• filter (0% chose this)
• variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
• linear amplifier (0% chose this)
In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the variable frequency oscillator is connected to the __________.
• linear amplifier (0% chose this)
• mixer (0% chose this)
• antenna (0% chose this)
• balanced modulator (0% chose this)
In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the _________ is connected to the mixer.
• linear amplifier (0% chose this)
• antenna (0% chose this)
• variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
• radio frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
In an single sideband transmitter, the ____________ is in between the mixer and the antenna.
• balanced modulator (0% chose this)
• radio frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
• linear amplifier (0% chose this)
• variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the linear amplifier is connected to the ______________.
• speech amplifier (0% chose this)
• antenna (0% chose this)
• filter (0% chose this)
• variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
What does chirp mean?
• A small change in a transmitter's frequency each time it is keyed (0% chose this)
• A high-pitched tone which is received along with a CW signal (0% chose this)
• A slow change in transmitter frequency as the circuit warms up (0% chose this)
What can be done to keep a CW transmitter from chirping?
• Add a low pass filter (0% chose this)
• Keep the power supply voltages very steady under transmit load (0% chose this)
• Add a key-click filter (0% chose this)
• Keep the power supply current very steady under transmit load (0% chose this)
What circuit has a variable-frequency oscillator connected to a buffer/driver and a power amplifier?
• A single-sideband transmitter (0% chose this)
• A digital radio transmitter (0% chose this)
• A VFO-controlled CW transmitter (0% chose this)
• A crystal-controlled AM transmitter (0% chose this)
What type of modulation system changes the amplitude of an RF wave for the purpose of conveying information?
• Phase modulation (0% chose this)
• Amplitude-rectification modulation (0% chose this)
• Frequency modulation (0% chose this)
• Amplitude modulation (0% chose this)
In what emission type does the instantaneous amplitude (envelope) of the RF signal vary in accordance with the modulating audio?
• Amplitude modulation (0% chose this)
• Frequency modulation (0% chose this)
• Pulse modulation (0% chose this)
• Frequency shift keying (0% chose this)
Morse code is usually transmitted by radio as:
• a series of key-clicks (0% chose this)
• a continuous carrier (0% chose this)
• a voice-modulated carrier (0% chose this)
• an interrupted carrier (0% chose this)
A mismatched antenna or transmission line may present an incorrect load to the transmitter. The result may be:
• full power will not be transferred to the antenna (0% chose this)
• loss of modulation in the transmitted signal (0% chose this)
• the driver stage will not deliver power to the final (0% chose this)
• the output tank circuit breaks down (0% chose this)
One result of a slight mismatch between the power amplifier of a transmitter and the antenna would be:
• smaller DC current drain (0% chose this)
• lower modulation percentage (0% chose this)
• radiated key-clicks (0% chose this)
• reduced antenna radiation (0% chose this)
An RF oscillator should be electrically and mechanically stable. This is to ensure that the oscillator does not:
• drift in frequency (0% chose this)
• become over modulated (0% chose this)
• generate key-clicks (0% chose this)
• cause undue distortion (0% chose this)
The input power to the final stage of your transmitter is 200 watts and the output is 125 watts. What has happened to the remaining power?
• It has been used to provide greater efficiency (0% chose this)
• It has been used to provide negative feedback (0% chose this)
• It has been used to provide positive feedback (0% chose this)
• It has been dissipated as heat loss (0% chose this)
The difference between DC input power and RF output power of a transmitter RF amplifier:
• is due to oscillating (0% chose this)
• radiates from the antenna (0% chose this)
• appears as heat dissipation (0% chose this)
• is lost in the transmission line (0% chose this)
What may happen if an SSB transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high?
• It may cause digital interference to computer equipment (0% chose this)
• It may cause splatter interference to other stations operating near its frequency (0% chose this)
• It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band (0% chose this)
• It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna (0% chose this)
What may happen if an SSB transmitter is operated with too much speech processing?
• It may cause digital interference to computer equipment (0% chose this)
• It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna (0% chose this)
• It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band (0% chose this)
• It may cause audio distortion or splatter interference to other stations operating near its frequency (0% chose this)
What is the term for the average power supplied to an antenna transmission line during one RF cycle, at the crest of the modulation envelope?
• Average radio-frequency power (0% chose this)
• Peak transmitter power (0% chose this)
• Peak envelope power (0% chose this)
• Peak output power (0% chose this)
What is the usual bandwidth of a single-sideband amateur signal?
• Between 3 and 6 kHz (0% chose this)
• Between 2 and 3 kHz (0% chose this)
• 1 kHz (0% chose this)
• 2 kHz (0% chose this)
In a typical single-sideband phone transmitter, what circuit processes signals from the balanced modulator and sends signals to the mixer?
• Filter (0% chose this)
• IF amplifier (0% chose this)
• RF amplifier (0% chose this)
• Carrier oscillator (0% chose this)
What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a double-sideband phone transmission?
• Only half the bandwidth is required for the same information content (0% chose this)
• Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion (0% chose this)
• Simpler equipment can be used to receive a double-sideband suppressed-carrier signal (0% chose this)
• More power can be put into the sidebands for a given power amplifier capacity (0% chose this)
What happens to the signal of an overmodulated single-sideband or double-sideband phone transmitter?
• It becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth (0% chose this)
• It becomes stronger with no other effects (0% chose this)
• It occupies less bandwidth with poor high-frequency response (0% chose this)
• It has higher fidelity and improved signal-to-noise ratio (0% chose this)
How should the microphone gain control be adjusted on a single-sideband phone transmitter?
• For a dip in plate current (0% chose this)
• For slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks (0% chose this)
• For full deflection of the ALC meter on modulation peaks (0% chose this)
• For 100% frequency deviation on modulation peaks (0% chose this)
The purpose of a balanced modulator in an SSB transmitter is to:
• ensure that the percentage of modulation is kept constant (0% chose this)
• make sure that the carrier and both sidebands are in phase (0% chose this)
• suppress the carrier and pass on the two sidebands (0% chose this)
• make sure that the carrier and both sidebands are 180 degrees out of phase (0% chose this)
In a SSB transmission, the carrier is:
• transmitted with one sideband (0% chose this)
• inserted at the transmitter (0% chose this)
• of no use at the receiver (0% chose this)
• reinserted at the receiver (0% chose this)
The automatic level control (ALC) in a SSB transmitter:
• increases the occupied bandwidth (0% chose this)
• reduces the system noise (0% chose this)
• controls the peak audio input so that the power amplifier is not overdriven (0% chose this)
• reduces transmitter audio feedback (0% chose this)
What may happen if an FM transmitter is operated with the microphone gain or deviation control set too high?
• It may cause interference to other stations operating near its frequency (0% chose this)
• It may cause digital interference to computer equipment (0% chose this)
• It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna (0% chose this)
• It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band (0% chose this)
What may your FM hand-held or mobile transceiver do if you shout into its microphone and the deviation adjustment is set too high?
• It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band (0% chose this)
• It may cause interference to other stations operating near its frequency (0% chose this)
• It may cause digital interference to computer equipment (0% chose this)
• It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna (0% chose this)
What can you do if you are told your FM hand-held or mobile transceiver is overdeviating?
• Talk farther away from the microphone (0% chose this)
• Talk louder into the microphone (0% chose this)
• Let the transceiver cool off (0% chose this)
• Change to a higher power level (0% chose this)
What kind of emission would your FM transmitter produce if its microphone failed to work?
• A phase-modulated carrier (0% chose this)
• An unmodulated carrier (0% chose this)
• A frequency-modulated carrier (0% chose this)
• An amplitude-modulated carrier (0% chose this)
Why is FM voice best for local VHF/UHF radio communications?
• Its RF carrier stays on frequency better than the AM modes (0% chose this)
• It provides good signal plus noise to noise ratio at low RF signal levels (0% chose this)
• The carrier is not detectable (0% chose this)
• It is more resistant to distortion caused by reflected signals (0% chose this)
What is the usual bandwidth of a frequency-modulated amateur signal for +/- 5kHz deviation?
• Greater than 20 kHz (0% chose this)
• Between 10 and 20 kHz (0% chose this)
• Less than 5 kHz (0% chose this)
• Between 5 and 10 kHz (0% chose this)
What is the result of overdeviation in an FM transmitter?
• Poor carrier suppression (0% chose this)
• Out-of-channel emissions (0% chose this)
• Increased transmitter power (0% chose this)
• Increased transmitter range (0% chose this)
What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an RF power amplifier?
• Pulse modulation (0% chose this)
• Phase modulation (0% chose this)
• Multiplex modulation (0% chose this)
• Amplitude modulation (0% chose this)
Why isn't frequency modulated (FM) phone used below 28.0 MHz?
• The bandwidth would exceed limits in the Regulations (0% chose this)
• The transmitter efficiency for this mode is low (0% chose this)
• Harmonics could not be attenuated to practical levels (0% chose this)
• The frequency stability would not be adequate (0% chose this)
You are transmitting FM on the 2 metre band. Several stations advise you that your transmission is loud and distorted. A quick check with a frequency counter tells you that the transmitter is on the proper frequency. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the distortion?
• The power supply output voltage is low (0% chose this)
• The repeater is reversing your sidebands (0% chose this)
• The frequency counter is giving an incorrect reading and you are indeed off frequency (0% chose this)
• The frequency deviation of your transmitter is set too high (0% chose this)
What type of propagation usually occurs from one hand-held VHF transceiver to another nearby?
• Tunnel propagation (0% chose this)
• Skywave propagation (0% chose this)
• Auroral propagation (0% chose this)
• Line-of-sight propagation (0% chose this)
How does the range of sky-wave propagation compare to ground-wave propagation?
• It depends on the weather (0% chose this)
• It is much longer (0% chose this)
• It is much shorter (0% chose this)
• It is about the same (0% chose this)
When a signal is returned to Earth by the ionosphere, what is this called?
• Ground-wave propagation (0% chose this)
• Earth-Moon-Earth propagation (0% chose this)
• Sky-wave propagation (0% chose this)
• Tropospheric propagation (0% chose this)
How are VHF signals propagated within the range of the visible horizon?
• By plane wave (0% chose this)
• By geometric wave (0% chose this)
• By direct wave (0% chose this)
• By sky wave (0% chose this)
Skywave is another name for:
• ground wave (0% chose this)
• inverted wave (0% chose this)
• ionospheric wave (0% chose this)
• tropospheric wave (0% chose this)
That portion of the radiation which is directly affected by the surface of the Earth is called:
• inverted wave (0% chose this)
• ground wave (0% chose this)
• tropospheric wave (0% chose this)
• ionospheric wave (0% chose this)
At lower HF frequencies, radiocommunication out to 200 km, during daytime, is made possible by:
• troposphere (0% chose this)
• skip wave (0% chose this)
• ionosphere (0% chose this)
• ground wave (0% chose this)
The distance travelled by ground waves:
• is less at higher frequencies (0% chose this)
• depends on the maximum usable frequency (0% chose this)
• is more at higher frequencies (0% chose this)
• is the same for all frequencies (0% chose this)
The radio wave which follows a path from the transmitter to the ionosphere and back to Earth is known correctly as the:
• skip wave (0% chose this)
• ionospheric wave (0% chose this)
• F layer (0% chose this)
• surface wave (0% chose this)
Reception of high frequency (HF) radio waves beyond 4000 km is generally made possible by:
• surface wave (0% chose this)
• ionospheric wave (0% chose this)
• ground wave (0% chose this)
• skip wave (0% chose this)
What causes the ionosphere to form?
• Temperature changes ionizing the outer atmosphere (0% chose this)
• Solar radiation ionizing the outer atmosphere (0% chose this)
• Lightning ionizing the outer atmosphere (0% chose this)
• Release of fluorocarbons into the atmosphere (0% chose this)
What type of solar radiation is most responsible for ionization in the outer atmosphere?
• Thermal (0% chose this)
• Ultraviolet (0% chose this)
• Microwave (0% chose this)
• Ionized particles (0% chose this)
Which ionospheric region is closest to the Earth?
• The F region (0% chose this)
• The A region (0% chose this)
• The D region (0% chose this)
• The E region (0% chose this)
Which region of the ionosphere is the least useful for long distance radio-wave propagation?
• The F2 region (0% chose this)
• The F1 region (0% chose this)
• The E region (0% chose this)
• The D region (0% chose this)
What two sub-regions of ionosphere exist only in the daytime?
• F1 and F2 (0% chose this)
• Troposphere and stratosphere (0% chose this)
• Electrostatic and electromagnetic (0% chose this)
• D and E (0% chose this)
When is the ionosphere most ionized?
• Dawn (0% chose this)
• Midnight (0% chose this)
• Dusk (0% chose this)
• Midday (0% chose this)
When is the ionosphere least ionized?
• Shortly before dawn (0% chose this)
• Just after noon (0% chose this)
• Just after dusk (0% chose this)
• Shortly before midnight (0% chose this)
Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio-wave propagation?
• Because it exists only at night (0% chose this)
• Because it is the lowest ionospheric region (0% chose this)
• Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions (0% chose this)
• Because it is the highest ionospheric region (0% chose this)
What is the main reason the 160, 80 and 40 metre amateur bands tend to be useful only for short-distance communications during daylight hours?
• Because of a lack of activity (0% chose this)
• Because of D-region absorption (0% chose this)
• Because of auroral propagation (0% chose this)
• Because of magnetic flux (0% chose this)
During the day, one of the ionospheric layers splits into two parts called:
• D1 and D2 (0% chose this)
• E1 and E2 (0% chose this)
• A and B (0% chose this)
• F1 and F2 (0% chose this)
The position of the E layer in the ionosphere is:
• below the D layer (0% chose this)
• above the F layer (0% chose this)
• below the F layer (0% chose this)
What is a skip zone?
• An area which is too far away for ground-wave propagation, but too close for sky-wave propagation (0% chose this)
• An area which is too far away for ground-wave or sky-wave propagation (0% chose this)
• An area covered by sky-wave propagation (0% chose this)
• An area covered by ground-wave propagation (0% chose this)
What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
• 300 km (190 miles) (0% chose this)
• 4000 km (2500 miles) (0% chose this)
• None; the F2 region does not support radio-wave propagation (0% chose this)
• 2000 km (1250 miles) (0% chose this)
What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?
• 2000 km (1250 miles) (0% chose this)
• 300 km (190 miles) (0% chose this)
• 4000 km (2500 miles) (0% chose this)
• None; the E region does not support radio-wave propagation (0% chose this)
Skip zone is:
• a zone between the antenna and the return of the first refracted wave (0% chose this)
• a zone between the end of the ground wave and the point where the first refracted wave returns to Earth (0% chose this)
• a zone of silence caused by lost sky waves (0% chose this)
• a zone between any two refracted waves (0% chose this)
The distance to Europe from your location is approximately 5000 km. What sort of propagation is the most likely to be involved?
• Sporadic "E" (0% chose this)
• Back scatter (0% chose this)
• Tropospheric scatter (0% chose this)
• Multihop (0% chose this)
For radio signals, the skip distance is determined by the:
• height of the ionosphere and the angle of radiation (0% chose this)
• power fed to the power amplifier (0% chose this)
• angle of radiation (0% chose this)
• type of transmitting antenna used (0% chose this)
The distance from the transmitter to the nearest point where the sky wave returns to the Earth is called the:
• angle of radiation (0% chose this)
• maximum usable frequency (0% chose this)
• skip distance (0% chose this)
• skip zone (0% chose this)
Skip distance is the:
• the maximum distance a signal will travel by both a ground wave and reflected wave (0% chose this)
• the minimum distance reached by a signal after one reflection by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
• the maximum distance reached by a signal after one reflection by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
• the minimum distance reached by a ground-wave signal (0% chose this)
Skip distance is a term associated with signals from the ionosphere. Skip effects are due to:
• selective fading of local signals (0% chose this)
• high gain antennas being used (0% chose this)
• local cloud cover (0% chose this)
• reflection and refraction from the ionosphere (0% chose this)
The skip distance of a sky wave will be greatest when the:
• ionosphere is most densely ionized (0% chose this)
• signal given out is strongest (0% chose this)
• angle between the ground and the radiation is smallest (0% chose this)
• polarization is vertical (0% chose this)
If the height of the reflecting layer of the ionosphere increases, the skip distance of a high frequency (HF) transmission:
• stays the same (0% chose this)
• varies regularly (0% chose this)
• decreases (0% chose this)
• becomes greater (0% chose this)
What effect does the D region of the ionosphere have on lower frequency HF signals in the daytime?
• It has little or no effect on 80-metre radio waves (0% chose this)
• It absorbs the signals (0% chose this)
• It bends the radio waves out into space (0% chose this)
• It refracts the radio waves back to Earth (0% chose this)
What causes distant AM broadcast and 160 metre ham band stations not to be heard during daytime hours?
• The presence of ionized clouds in the E region (0% chose this)
• The splitting of the F region (0% chose this)
• The weather below the ionosphere (0% chose this)
• The ionization of the D region (0% chose this)
Two or more parts of the radio wave follow different paths during propagation and this may result in phase differences at the receiver. This "change" at the receiver is called:
• absorption (0% chose this)
• skip (0% chose this)
• baffling (0% chose this)
A change or variation in signal strength at the antenna, caused by differences in path lengths, is called:
• absorption (0% chose this)
• fluctuation (0% chose this)
• path loss (0% chose this)
When a transmitted radio signal reaches a station by a one-hop and two-hop skip path, small changes in the ionosphere can cause:
• consistently stronger signals (0% chose this)
• a change in the ground-wave signal (0% chose this)
• variations in signal strength (0% chose this)
The usual effect of ionospheric storms is to:
• produce extreme weather changes (0% chose this)
• prevent communications by ground wave (0% chose this)
• increase the maximum usable frequency (0% chose this)
• cause a fade-out of sky-wave signals (0% chose this)
On the VHF and UHF bands, polarization of the receiving antenna is very important in relation to the transmitting antenna, yet on HF bands it is relatively unimportant. Why is that so?
• Greater selectivity is possible with HF receivers making changes in polarization redundant (0% chose this)
• The ionosphere can change the polarization of the signal from moment to moment (0% chose this)
• The ground wave and the sky wave continually shift the polarization (0% chose this)
• Anomalies in the Earth's magnetic field produce a profound effect on HF polarization but not on VHF & UHF frequencies (0% chose this)
• Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations (0% chose this)
• Large changes in the height of the ionosphere at the receiving station ordinarily occurring shortly before sunrise and sunset (0% chose this)
• Phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station (0% chose this)
• Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station (0% chose this)
How does the bandwidth of a transmitted signal affect selective fading?
• It is the same for both wide and narrow bandwidths (0% chose this)
• Only the receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect (0% chose this)
• It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths (0% chose this)
• It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths (0% chose this)
Polarization change often takes place on radio waves that are propagated over long distances. Which of these does not cause polarization change?
• Passage through magnetic fields (Faraday rotation) (0% chose this)
• Refractions (0% chose this)
• Parabolic interaction (0% chose this)
• Reflections (0% chose this)
Reflection of a SSB transmission from the ionosphere causes:
• a high-pitch squeal at the receiver (0% chose this)
• little or no phase-shift distortion (0% chose this)
• phase-shift distortion (0% chose this)
• signal cancellation at the receiver (0% chose this)
How do sunspots change the ionization of the atmosphere?
• The more sunspots there are, the less the ionization (0% chose this)
• Unless there are sunspots, the ionization is zero (0% chose this)
• They have no effect (0% chose this)
• The more sunspots there are, the greater the ionization (0% chose this)
How long is an average sunspot cycle?
• 5 years (0% chose this)
• 7 years (0% chose this)
• 11 years (0% chose this)
• 17 years (0% chose this)